Human Anatomy and Physiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology explores the structure and function of the human body at both the microscopic and macroscopic levels. This course covers major body systems including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, endocrine, and reproductive systems. Students learn how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis and support life processes. Emphasis is placed on understanding anatomical terminology, physiological mechanisms, and clinical relevance to health and disease. The knowledge gained in this course provides a foundation for further study in health sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry R. Martin
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Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the hypothesis you tested in this experiment, the ratio of a person's upper limb length to body height is approximately 50%.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Knowing that there are 2.54 cm per inch, a person that is 5'5" in height would be ________ cm tall.
A)16.51
B)165.1
C)25.4
D)25.6
E)255.9
Answer: B
Q3) When drawing a graph to display experimental data, the independent variable is plotted along the x-axis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A transverse plane can also be called a horizontal plane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following regional terms refers to the back of the knee?
A)Popliteal
B)Cubital
C)Perineal
D)Sural
E)Crural
Answer: A
Q3) In directional terminology, the opposite of posterior is anterior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The anterior body cavity consists of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is a ________ difference between a pH of 5 and a pH of 6.
A)10x
B)2x
C)5x
D)100x
E)50x
Answer: A
Q2) The building blocks of many lipids include
A)amino acids.
B)monosaccharides.
C)polypeptides.
D)fatty acids and glycerol.
E)polysaccharides.
Answer: D
Q3) Sudan IV dye is a test for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following practices should be followed when making a wet mount, except
A)the specimen should be covered with a drop of water.
B)the wet specimen should be covered with a coverslip.
C)the specimen can be opaque and up to 1mm in thickness.
D)the microscope should not be tilted.
E)if using the oil immersion lens, open the iris diaphragm to illuminate the specimen.
Q2) The greatest magnification on the compound light microscope can be achieved by using the high power objective lens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the working distance on a microscope?
A)The distance between your eye and the ocular lens
B)The distance between the condenser and the slide
C)The distance between the specimen and the slide
D)The distance between the objective lens and the slide
E)The distance between the ocular lens and the objective lens
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cytosol and cytoplasmic organelles are components of the ________.
A)cytoskeleton
B)cytoplasm
C)mitochondria
D)nucleus
E)plasma membrane
Q2) All of the following are true of the plasma membrane, except
A)it is mainly composed of a phospholipid bilayer.
B)it is selectively permeable to various substances, controlling which substances can cross the membrane.
C)the glycocalyx provides structural integrity to the plasma membrane.
D)transmembrane proteins may function as ion channels, enzymes, or receptors.
E)charged or large molecules can sometimes enter a cell via membrane proteins.
Q3) Which of the following organelles provide additional surface area for absorption?
A)Cilia
B)Microvilli
C)Ribosomes
D)Flagella
E)Centrioles
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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7% solution of glucose would be considered hypertonic to human cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an active process by which substances cross the plasma membrane?
A)Pinocytosis
B)Filtration
C)Active transport
D)Phagocytosis
E)All of these are active processes.
Q3) In the molasses experiment, after 30 minutes, the molasses level in the stem of the thistle tube had gone up.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cells placed in a hypotonic solution will shrink.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meiosis is a type of cell division unique to gametes, that serves to produce haploid sperm and egg cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The appearance of a cleavage furrow indicates that A)mitosis is about to begin.
B)cytokinesis is occurring.
C)the cell will soon be entering the S phase.
D)the G phase is coming to an end.
E)the G phase is occurring.
Q3) The major phases of the cell cycle are
A)prophase and metaphase.
B)anaphase and telophase.
C)interphase and mitosis.
D)telophase and interphase.
E)mitosis and cytokinesis.
Q4) Mitosis refers to nuclear division, and cytokinesis refers to cytoplasmic division.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the air sacs of the lungs, the walls of capillaries, and the inner linings of blood vessels?
A)Stratified squamous
B)Simple cuboidal
C)Simple columnar
D)Transitional
E)Simple squamous
Q2) The thinnest type of epithelial tissue in the body, which allows rapid diffusion of substances through the cells, is simple cuboidal epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of epithelial tissue is found in several structures of the urinary system, such as the urinary bladder and the ureters?
A)Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
B)Simple columnar
C)Transitional
D)Stratified cuboidal
E)Simple squamous
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10
Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spongy bone makes up the majority of bone shafts in long bones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type of connective tissue fiber that stretches is reticular fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which cell type produces heparin and histamine to promote inflammation in the connective tissues when necessary?
A)Fibroblasts
B)Chondroblasts
C)Osteoblasts
D)Mast cells
E)Erythrocytes
Q4) All of the following are dense connective tissues except
A)elastic connective tissue.
B)dense irregular connective tissue.
C)reticular connective tissue.
D)dense regular connective tissue.
E)All of these are types of dense connective tissue.
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Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) When observing micrographs of muscle tissue, the most prominent striations can be seen in cardiac muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Spindle-shaped cells are characteristic of ________ tissue.
A)nervous
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)striated muscle
E)skeletal muscle
Q3) Which type(s)of muscle tissue is/are striated?
A)Skeletal only
B)Smooth only
C)Skeletal and cardiac
D)Skeletal and smooth
E)Cardiac only
Q4) Both neurons and neuroglia are able to generate and conduct nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lunula of a nail has a whitish appearance, because it is covered by a thick region of the nail bed, which hides the color of the underlying blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the stratum basale?
A)It contains melanocytes.
B)It is the deepest layer of the epidermis.
C)It consists of only one layer of cuboidal or columnar cells.
D)It is the layer of the epidermis in which cell division is occurring.
E)All of these are true of the stratum basale.
Q3) What is/are the stimulus(-i)for contraction of the arrector pili muscles?
A)Low blood pH
B)Dry skin
C)Cold temperature or fear
D)Hot temperature
E)Hot temperature or fear
Q4) Most of the accessory structures of the skin are found in the dermis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) By the time a person reaches adulthood, all of his/her red bone marrow has been converted to yellow bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chicken bones soaked in vinegar or hydrochloric acid overnight become flexible, because the acid dissolves the collagen fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some of the large cranial bones, which have wide surfaces, and are sometimes curved, are classified as ________ bones.
A)short
B)long
C)irregular
D)flat
E)sesamoid
Q4) Each bone consists of either compact or spongy bone, but not both.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of ossification?
A)Intramembranous ossification involves bone formation from hyaline cartilage models.
B)Most bones develop by endochondral ossification.
C)In both intramembranous and endochondral ossification, both spongy and compact bone form.
D)Ossification occurs during fetal growth and childhood.
E)All of these are true of ossification.
Q2) Which of the following bone markings is in the category of openings?
A)Notch
B)Foramen
C)Ramus
D)Facet
E)Fovea
Q3) A depression in a bone, shaped like a narrow groove, is called a ________.
A)fissure
B)sulcus
C)sanal
D)tubercle
E)fossa
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Skull
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bones are connected by the squamous suture?
A)The frontal and parietal bones
B)The parietal and zygomatic bones
C)The parietal and temporal bones
D)The parietal and occipital bones
E)The two parietal bones
Q2) Which of the following bones does not articulate with any other bone, but is attached to muscles of the tongue and larynx?
A)Sphenoid bone
B)Palatine bone
C)Vomer bone
D)Stapes
E)Hyoid bone
Q3) All of the following bones contain paranasal sinuses except
A)the maxilla.
B)the mandible.
C)the ethmoid bone.
D)the sphenoid bone.
E)All of these bones contain paranasal sinuses.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of tissue are intervertebral discs composed of?
A)Elastic connective tissue
B)Fibrocartilage
C)Hyaline cartilage
D)Elastic cartilage
E)Areolar connective tissue
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the curvatures of the vertebral column?
A)The thoracic and sacral curvatures are convex on the anterior side and concave on the posterior side.
B)There are four curvatures of the vertebral column.
C)Primary curvatures are formed by the time of birth.
D)The cervical and lumbar curvatures are secondary curvatures.
E)All of these are true of the curvatures of the vertebral column.
Q3) The inferior portion of the sternum is called the A)manubrium.
B)spinous process.
C)xiphoid process.
D)body.
E)facet.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parts of the scapula articulates with another bone?
A)Coracoid process
B)Superior border
C)Glenoid cavity
D)Scapular spine
E)Infraspinous fossa
Q2) Anatomically, the forearm represents the region from the
A)elbow to the fingers.
B)shoulder to the elbow.
C)elbow to the wrist.
D)shoulder to the fingers.
E)wrist to the fingers.
Q3) The heads of the radius and ulna are found on the proximal end of their respective bones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the olecranon fossa of the humerus articulates with the olecranon process of the ulna, it allows a person to straighten the arm at the elbow.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most anterior portion of the hip bone?
A)Ischium
B)Ilium
C)Acetabulum
D)Pubis
E)Ischial tuberosity
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the differences between the male and female pelves?
A)The pelvis is heavier, and contains thicker bones in the female.
B)The pelvic outlet is larger in the female pelvis.
C)The iliac crest is less flared in the male.
D)The acetabula are larger and closer together in the male.
E)All of these are true of the differences between the male and female pelves.
Q3) Anatomically, the thigh is considered to be the region from the A)knee to the ankle.
B)hip to the ankle.
C)ankle to the toes.
D)hip to the knee.
E)ribs to the knee.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following bones develop by intramembranous ossification except
A)the parietal bones.
B)the humerus.
C)some parts of the mandible.
D)the frontal bone.
E)some parts of the clavicle.
Q2) Most bones of the skeleton develop by endochondral ossification.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The relatively small size of the face in the fetal skull is due to all of the following except
A)the small size of the maxillae and their sinuses.
B)the undersized mandible.
C)the lack of tooth eruptions in the maxillae and mandible.
D)the small size of the nasal cavities.
E)all of these are reasons why the face is small in a fetal skull.
Q4) The posterior fontanel is surrounded by the parietal and occipital bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the knee joint?
A)The knee is a modified hinge joint.
B)The knee contains a lateral meniscus and a medial meniscus.
C)It contains a condylar joint between the patellar surface of the femur and the patella.
D)The ACL (anterior cruciate ligament)is positioned so that it helps prevent hyperextension of the knee.
E)All of these are true of the knee joint.
Q2) Movement of the thumb so that it comes in contact with another finger of the same hand is called A)excursion. B)reposition. C)opposition.
D)retraction. E)inversion.
Q3) The only structural type of joint that contains synovial fluid in a joint cavity is a cartilaginous joint.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A muscle can serve as an agonist in one action and an antagonist in another action. A)True
B)False
Q2) The origin of a skeletal muscle is the attachment site at the less moveable/more stationary end.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a motor unit, each neuron innervates (controls)a single muscle fiber.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A particular muscle causes flexion of the lower limb at the knee. It is located on the posterior side of the thigh. Where would you expect to find its antagonist?
A)On the medial side of the thigh
B)On the anterior side of the thigh
C)On the lateral side of the thigh
D)On the posterior side of the thigh too
E)On any side of the thigh
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22
Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) A twitch is the response of an entire skeletal muscle to stimulation by motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Electromyography is a recording of voltage on the skin surface, which is derived from the contraction of skeletal muscles under the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a motor neuron of a particular motor unit is activated, all of the muscle fibers it innervates are stimulated to contract simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true of tonus?
A)It is a state of slight muscle contraction.
B)It occurs when a muscle is fully contracted.
C)During periods of tonus, the motor units take turns contracting.
D)It keeps the motor units healthy and ready to contract at any time.
E)All of these are true of tonus.
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23
Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Q1) Which of the following muscles of facial expression inserts on the orbicularis oris, and compresses the cheeks when blowing air?
A)Buccinator
B)Mentalis
C)Platyma
D)Risorius
E)Zygomaticus major
Q2) The muscles of mastication are all inserted on the maxilla.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The muscles that move the head are found in the neck.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true of the masseter muscle?
A)It originates on the zygomatic arch.
B)It is innervated by the facial nerve.
C)It inserts on the lateral portion of the mandible.
D)It closes the jaw by elevating the mandible.
E)All of these are true of the masseter muscle.
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper Limb
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Q1) Most of the muscles that move the forearm and hand are innervated by the ________ nerve(s).
A)ulnar
B)musculocutaneous C)axillary
D)suprascapular
E)median and radial
Q2) The rotator cuff muscles all have insertions on the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which respiratory muscle(s)function(s)only during forced expiration?
A)Diaphragm
B)External intercostals
C)Pectoralis major
D)Pectoralis minor
E)Internal intercostals
Q4) All muscles cross only one joint.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Muscles of the Vertebral Column, Abdominal
Wall, and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) The anterior portion of the perineum is called the A)anal triangle.
B)genital opening.
C)urogenital triangle.
D)external anal sphincter.
E)pelvic diaphragm.
Q2) Which of the abdominal wall muscles help(s)flex the vertebral column?
A)Rectus abdominis
B)Internal oblique
C)Transversus abdominis
D)External oblique
E)All of these abdominal wall muscles help flex the vertebral column.
Q3) The diamond-shaped area between the lower limbs is called the perineum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The muscles of the pelvic floor are almost entirely innervated by the pudendal nerve.
A)True
B)False
26
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Q1) What is/are the action(s)of the anterior leg muscles?
A)Plantar flexion of the foot and flexion of the toes
B)Inversion of the foot
C)Dorsiflexion of the foot and extension of the toes
D)Abduction of the leg
E)Eversion of the foot
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the hamstring group of muscles?
A)It consists of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.
B)All of the hamstrings insert on both the tibia and the fibula.
C)All of the hamstrings cause flexion of the leg at the knee.
D)All of the hamstrings have origins on the ischial tuberosity, although the biceps femoris has an additional origin.
E)All of these are true of the hamstrings.
Q3) Muscles that move the thigh at the hip joint have insertions on the A)pelvis.
B)patella.
C)tibia and fibula.
D)sacrum and coccyx.
E)femur.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Q1) Soft tissue features do not include bone or cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an anterior surface feature?
A)Tibial tuberosity
B)Xiphoid process
C)Pectoralis major
D)Thenar eminence
E)All of these are anterior surface features.
Q3) In which of the following views would you NOT be able to see the lateral malleolus?
A)Medial view
B)Posterior view
C)Lateral view
D)Anterior view
E)The lateral malleolus would be visible in all of these views.
Q4) The deltoid can be seen on both the anterior and posterior views of the trunk (torso).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) The rarest structural type of neuron is a bipolar neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nodes of Ranvier are found only on
A)myelinated axons.
B)dendrites.
C)astrocytes.
D)Nissl bodies.
E)unmyelinated axons.
Q3) Pertaining to the nervous system, what is an effector?
A)A cell or nerve ending that transmits sensory information to a sensory neuron
B)An interneuron
C)A motor neuron
D)A type of neuroglia that physically supports neurons in the CNS
E)A muscle or gland that receives a nerve impulse from a motor neuron
Q4) A nerve is the same structure as a neuron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) The numbers of spinal nerve pairs in the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccygeal regions are ________ respectively.
A)8, 12, 5, 5, and 4
B)7, 12, 5, 5, and 1
C)7, 10, 5, 4, and 1
D)8, 12, 5, 5, and 1
E)7, 12, 5, 5, and 4
Q2) The lumbar plexus is considered to be the most complex of the nerve plexuses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are major spinal nerve plexuses except the ________ plexus.
A)lumbar
B)brachial
C)sacral
D)cervical
E)thoracic
Q4) Spinal nerves are called mixed nerves because they contain both sensory and motor nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) The normal response(s)in the plantar reflex is/are
A)plantar flexion of the foot only.
B)dorsiflexion of the foot and spreading of the toes.
C)flexion of the toes only.
D)dorsiflexion of the foot only.
E)plantar flexion of the foot and flexion of the toes.
Q2) A reflex arc is the simplest kind of neural pathway in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the crossed extensor reflex?
A)It occurs in conjunction with a withdrawal reflex.
B)When flexor muscles of the lower limb contract due to stepping on a sharp object, the extensor muscles in the same limb are inhibited.
C)It occurs in reflexes in both the upper and lower limb.
D)When flexor muscles of the lower limb contract due to stepping on a sharp object, the extensor muscles in the opposite limb are stimulated.
E)The crossed extensor reflex helps a person remain upright during the withdrawal reflex.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is the main area of the brain that receives information from skin receptors and proprioceptors?
A)Wernicke's area
B)Motor association area
C)Primary somatosensory cortex
D)Insula
E)Somatosensory association cortex
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the cranial nerves?
A)There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
B)They are part of the CNS.
C)Most arise from the brainstem.
D)Most, but not all, are mixed nerves.
E)All of these are true of the cranial nerves.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the cranial meninges?
A)The pia mater is attached to the outer surface of the brain.
B)The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meninges.
C)The dura mater is a single layer around the brain, just as it is around the spinal cord.
D)The subarachnoid space contains cerebrospinal fluid.
E)All of these are true of the cranial meninges.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the square root of the variance is called the
A)deviation from the mean.
B)mean.
C)standard deviation.
D)median.
E)sum.
Q2) Neural pathways for voluntary and involuntary responses to stimuli are similar, but not identical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The reaction time for involuntary reflex responses is typically shorter than the reaction time in voluntary reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a spinal reflex arc, the interneuron, if present, is found in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following brain waves has the highest frequency?
A)Theta
B)Beta
C)Delta
D)Gamma
E)Alpha
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a bodily function controlled by nerve impulses?
A)Generation of thought processes
B)Muscle contraction
C)Problem solving and other higher mental functions
D)Responses to various stimuli
E)All of these are functions controlled by nerve impulses.
Q3) A high degree of alertness is indicated in the EEG by
A)brain waves with a low frequency.
B)brain waves with a high amplitude.
C)brain waves with a medium amplitude and a medium frequency.
D)brain waves with a high frequency.
E)brain waves with a low amplitude.
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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) Which portion of the brainstem continues directly into the spinal cord?
A)Medulla oblongata
B)Cerebral peduncle
C)Midbrain
D)Corpora quadrigemina
E)Pons
Q2) Which ventricles are separated by the septum pellucidum?
A)The lateral ventricles and the third ventricle
B)The 2 medial ventricles
C)The third ventricle and the fourth ventricle
D)The fourth ventricle and the fifth ventricle
E)The 2 lateral ventricles
Q3) What is the function of the choroid plexuses?
A)They form a bridge between the cerebral hemispheres.
B)They are responsible for visual reflexes.
C)They are small nerve plexuses in the brain.
D)They produce cerebrospinal fluid.
E)They are responsible for auditory reflexes.
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35
Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) Which type of sensory receptors respond to tissue damage, such as a cut, or a temperature or pressure extreme?
A)Mechanoreceptors
B)Thermoreceptors
C)Chemoreceptors
D)Tactile corpuscles
E)Nociceptors
Q2) Areas of the body that are capable of precise tactile localization contain more abundant touch receptors than areas that are not.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The results of the temperature experiment suggest that there is a greater concentration of cold receptors than warm receptors in the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All sensory neurons have receptive fields of approximately the same size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) What type of cells are olfactory receptor cells?
A)Squamous epithelial cells
B)Columnar epithelial cells
C)Bipolar neurons
D)Cuboidal epithelial cells
E)Multipolar neurons
Q2) The smell and taste of foods are influenced by all of the following except
A)the appearance of the food.
B)the texture of the food.
C)the temperature of the food.
D)a person's mood.
E)all of these influence the smell and taste of foods.
Q3) Olfactory receptors cells send their action potentials through openings in the ethmoid bone, and synapse with neurons in the
A)olfactory cortex.
B)olfactory foramina.
C)cribriform plate.
D)thalamus.
E)olfactory bulbs.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) The anterior cavity of the eyeball is much smaller than the posterior cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pupil is an opening in the ciliary body, which allows light to enter the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following structures secrete(s)an oily lubricant for the surface of the eye?
A)Ciliary body
B)Lacrimal glands
C)Conjunctiva
D)Pigmented epithelium
E)Tarsal glands
Q4) What is the function of the suspensory ligaments?
A)They suspend the iris in the anterior cavity of the eye.
B)They hold the retina against the choroid.
C)They hold the optic nerve in place in the posterior portion of the eye.
D)They hold the lens in position, suspended from the ciliary body.
E)They hold the choroid against the sclera.
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Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) The near point of accommodation increases with age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) About 7% of females are colorblind.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following structures refract(s)light to focus it on to the proper area of the retina?
A)Iris
B)Ciliary body
C)Cornea and lens
D)Pupil
E)Optic disc and ciliary body
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true of farsightedness?
A)It is caused by the eyeball being too long.
B)It is also called hyperopia.
C)When a person is farsighted, distant objects are clear, but close objects look blurry.
D)A convex lens is used to correct farsightedness.
E)All of these are true of farsightedness.
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Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) Which chamber of the inner ear receives sound waves directly from the oval window?
A)Cochlear duct
B)Scala media
C)Scala tympani
D)Vestibule
E)Scala vestibuli
Q2) The S-shaped tube of the ear is called the A)auditory tube.
B)membranous labyrinth.
C)external acoustic meatus.
D)bony labyrinth.
E)tympanic cavity.
Q3) The tympanic cavity is a fluid-filled chamber in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The membranous labyrinth is the only portion of the inner ear that contains endolymph.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the crista ampullaris?
A)It is an organ of dynamic equilibrium.
B)The cupula is the gelatinous cap over the hair cell cilia.
C)Its sensory information is carried on neurons of the cochlear nerve.
D)It is located within a semicircular duct of the inner ear.
E)All of these are true of the crista ampullaris.
Q2) In the Barany test, what is the expected response of the eyes to rotation in a chair when the head is tilted 90 degrees onto the shoulder?
A)Side to side nystagmus
B)Up and down nystagmus
C)Random eye movements
D)Rotary nystagmus
E)No eye movement
Q3) In the vision and equilibrium test, it can be demonstrated that vision has very little to do with the sense of equilibrium, since unsteadiness does not increase when the eyes are closed while balancing on one foot.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) All of the following glands are both endocrine and exocrine except
A)the testes.
B)the pancreas.
C)the adrenal glands.
D)the ovaries.
E)All of these glands are both endocrine and exocrine.
Q2) Which of the following endocrine glands secretes 2 antagonistic hormones?
A)The pancreas
B)The ovaries
C)The thyroid gland
D)The adrenal medulla
E)The pituitary gland
Q3) Which of the following is not true of true hormones?
A)Each hormone can only influence target cells that contain receptors for it.
B)They are secreted by both endocrine or exocrine glands.
C)Some hormones influence the rates of chemical reactions in their target cells.
D)Some hormones regulate water and electrolyte balance.
E)All of these are true of true hormones.
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Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the hormone insulin?
A)It causes the synthesis of glycogen from glucose in the liver and skeletal muscles.
B)It causes facilitated diffusion of glucose across the plasma membranes of its target cells.
C)It lowers the blood sugar level.
D)It inhibits protein synthesis and fat storage.
E)All of these are true of the hormone insulin.
Q2) While a person is sleeping or between meals, blood glucose decreases and insulin level increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are possible symptoms of insulin shock except
A)rapid heart rate.
B)hyperglycemia.
C)mental disorientation and/or anxiety.
D)impaired vision.
E)sweating.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) Which of the following cells and fragments in the blood lack a nucleus, and therefore, cannot reproduce?
A)Platelets only
B)Red blood cells and platelets
C)All types of white blood cells
D)Red blood cells only
E)Lymphocytes and monocytes
Q2) If your differential white blood cell count showed that you had 10% lymphocytes, what could you conclude?
A)That you have a deficiency of lymphocytes, or that another type of white blood cell is elevated
B)That you most likely have a parasitic worm infection
C)That your lymphocytes are in the normal range
D)That you have an excess of lymphocytes
E)That you most likely have tuberculosis
Q3) Sometimes the granules in the cytoplasm of neutrophils are so large, that the nucleus is almost hidden from view.
A)True
B)False
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) The most important factor influencing the percent saturation of hemoglobin is A)the pH.
B)the temperature.
C)the partial pressure of oxygen.
D)the carbon dioxide level.
E)All of these factors are equally important in determining the percent saturation of hemoglobin.
Q2) All of the following factors could cause decreased hematocrit except A)anemia.
B)smoking or emphysema.
C)kidney disease with a decline in erythropoietin production.
D)a hemorrhage.
E)All of these could cause decreased hematocrit.
Q3) On the average, males have a slightly higher hematocrit than females.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The binding site for oxygen molecules in red blood cells is the globin portion of the hemoglobin molecules.
A)True
B)False
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) Type B blood contains antigen B and anti-B antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a person with type O blood needed a transfusion, which blood type(s)could be safely used as donor blood?
A)B only
B)O only
C)A or B
D)AB only
E)A, B, AB, or O
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the Rh factor?
A)It is an antigen found on some people's red blood cell membranes.
B)A high percentage of Americans have the Rh factor.
C)The most reactive of the Rh antigen group is antigen B.
D)It was named for the Rhesus monkey, in which it was first discovered.
E)All of these are true of the Rh factor.
Q4) Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are also called agglutinogens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) Which blood vessels branch directly off of the aorta at the level of the aortic semilunar valves?
A)Brachiocephalic arteries
B)Right and left coronary arteries
C)Right and left subclavian arteries
D)Great cardiac veins
E)Right and left pulmonary arteries
Q2) Cardiac muscle tissue makes up all of the following portions of the heart except
A)the myocardium of the walls of the heart chambers.
B)the trabeculae carneae.
C)the pectinate muscles.
D)the chordae tendineae.
E)the papillary muscles.
Q3) Blood flowing out of the pulmonary veins flows into the ________ and then proceeds through the ________.
A)pulmonary trunk; right ventricle
B)right ventricle; pulmonary trunk
C)right atrium; tricuspid valve
D)left ventricle; aortic semilunar valve
E)left atrium; mitral valve
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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following events is not observed in the ECG, because it is hidden in the QRS complex?
A)Atrial depolarization
B)Ventricular repolarization
C)Atrial systole
D)Atrial repolarization
E)Ventricular depolarization
Q2) In the cardiac cycle, the atria relax while the ventricles are contracting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the standard leads I, II, and III used in this lab exercise, which location is used as the ground?
A)The left ankle
B)The right wrist
C)The right ankle
D)The left wrist
E)Either wrist or either ankle can be used as the ground.
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following portions of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?
A)The T wave
B)The P-R segment
C)The QRS complex
D)The P wave
E)The P-R interval
Q2) Which portion(s)of the cardiac conduction system is/are found in the right atrium of the heart?
A)SA node and AV node
B)AV bundle and the bundle branches
C)Purkinje fibers
D)AV bundle
E)SA node
Q3) Typically, ventricular diastole has a longer duration than ventricular systole.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ECG is a recording of an action potential of a single cardiac muscle cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) Which of the following arteries is not a branch of the aortic arch?
A)Left common carotid artery
B)Left subclavian artery
C)Right common carotid artery
D)Brachiocephalic trunk
E)All of these are branches of the aortic arch.
Q2) The main blood supply to the intestines is provided by the ________ arteries.
A)common iliac
B)superior and inferior mesenteric
C)common hepatic
D)internal iliac
E)celiac and lumbar
Q3) Which of the following is not a branch of the celiac trunk?
A)Splenic artery
B)Common hepatic artery
C)Renal artery
D)Left gastric artery
E)All of these are branches of the celiac trunk.
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Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) The difference between the maximum arterial pressure and the minimum arterial pressure is called the
A)diastolic pressure.
B)pulse pressure.
C)cardiac pressure.
D)systolic pressure.
E)mean arterial pressure.
Q2) The thumb should not be used to take the radial pulse, because a person may feel a pulse from an artery in the thumb instead.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood pressure is expressed as
A)systolic pressure / diastolic pressure.
B)diastolic pressure / pulse pressure.
C)pulse pressure / systolic pressure.
D)diastolic pressure / systolic pressure.
E)systolic pressure / pulse pressure.
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) Which type of cells is present along with lymphocytes in the lymphatic organs, that helps engulf and destroy pathogens, and helps to activate the immune response?
A)Neutrophils
B)Fibroblasts
C)Macrophages
D)Astrocytes
E)Red blood cells
Q2) Which of the following organs does not contain lymphocytes?
A)Thymus
B)Spleen
C)Red bone marrow
D)Tonsils
E)All of these organs contain lymphocytes.
Q3) The adenoids are also called the pharyngeal tonsils.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The thymus is the largest lymphatic organ in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) External respiration is the same as pulmonary ventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The paranasal sinuses open into the nasopharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the bronchial tree, the lobar bronchi branch directly into A)terminal bronchioles.
B)secondary bronchi.
C)primary bronchi.
D)bronchioles.
E)segmental bronchi.
Q4) The narrow air passages through the nasal cavity are called A)nasal meatuses.
B)external nares.
C)nasal conchae.
D)paranasal sinuses.
E)nasal septa.
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)can be calculated by subtracting the tidal volume (TV)from the vital capacity (VC).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following respiratory volumes or capacities has the highest volume?
A)Inspiratory reserve volume
B)Vital capacity
C)Functional residual capacity
D)Inspiratory capacity
E)Expiratory reserve volume
Q3) Respiratory capacities are the sums or two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ can be calculated by multiplying breathing rate by tidal volume.
A)alveolar ventilation rate
B)anatomic dead space
C)inspiratory reserve volume
D)minute respiratory volume
E)inspiratory capacity
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following respiratory volumes and capacities has the lowest volume?
A)Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
B)Residual volume (RV)
C)Tidal volume (TV)
D)Functional residual capacity (FRC)
E)Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Q2) Which of the following is not a use for oxygen in the body?
A)To generate ATP for energy
B)Aerobic respiration of food molecules
C)To break down nutrients into their building blocks
D)Anaerobic breakdown of glucose
E)All of these are uses for oxygen in the body.
Q3) The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a tidal expiration is called the
A)expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
B)residual volume (RV).
C)vital capacity (VC).
D)anatomic dead space.
E)functional residual capacity (FRC).
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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) The calcium hydroxide experiment demonstrates that
A)there is a much lower concentration of O in expired air than in atmospheric air.
B)there is a much higher concentration of CO in expired air than in atmospheric air.
C)there is a much higher concentration of O in expired air than in atmospheric air.
D)there is a much lower concentration of CO in expired air than in atmospheric air.
E)the concentrations of CO in expired air and atmospheric air are approximately equal.
Q2) During inspiration, the expiratory neurons of the ventral respiratory group (VRG)are being inhibited.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During normal, quiet breathing, the expiratory muscles are only minimally involved in the process of respiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) Which of the following shows the parts of the large intestine in the proper sequence?
A)Sigmoid colon, ascending colon, descending colon, transverse colon, cecum, anal canal, rectum, anus
B)Ileum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending,colon, rectum, sigmoid colon, anal canal, anus
C)Cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, anus
D)Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, rectum, sigmoid colon, anal canal, anus
E)Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, anal canal, anus
Q2) Dentin forms most of a tooth, and it is the hardest substance in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The splenic flexure of the large intestine is on the left side of the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of enzymes?
A)They are considered to be biological catalysts.
B)Enzymes are relatively non-specific, and able to catalyze several chemical reactions in the body.
C)Enzyme activity is temperature-dependent.
D)Denaturation destroys the ability of an enzyme to function.
E)All of these are true of enzymes.
Q2) Pancreatic amylase has the same action as salivary amylase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of amylase?
A)It breaks down starch into maltose.
B)It is produced by more than one organ of the digestive system.
C)Its optimum temperature is close to room temperature.
D)The optimum pH for amylase activity is 6.8 - 7.0.
E)All of these are true of amylase.
Q4) Temperatures much higher than the optimum temperature denature enzymes, but colder temperatures do not.
A)True
B)False
Page 58
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Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) In the catabolic pathways of dietary nutrients, which step(s)produce(s)no ATP?
A)Krebs cycle
B)Oxidative phosphorylation
C)Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)Glycolysis
E)ATP is produced in all of the steps in the catabolic pathways of dietary nutrients.
Q2) In which step(s)of the catabolism of nutrients is/are oxygen directly consumed?
A)Krebs cycle
B)Oxidative phosphorylation
C)Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
D)Glycolysis
E)Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
Q3) Metabolism is the sum of all of the chemical reactions within cells that release energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anabolic reactions release energy, while catabolic reactions use energy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the kidney?
A)Regulation of blood pressure
B)Regulation of blood pH
C)Regulation of water and electrolyte concentrations in the blood
D)Secretion of renin and erythropoietin
E)All of these are functions of the kidney.
Q2) Which of the following structures does not enter or exit the kidney at the hilum?
A)The renal column
B)The renal artery
C)The ureter
D)The renal vein
E)All of these structures enter or exit the kidney at the hilum.
Q3) As blood flows through the kidney, blood from the efferent arteriole flows directly into the
A)peritubular capillaries.
B)glomerulus.
C)renal vein.
D)afferent arteriole.
E)cortical radiate vein.
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Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the processes of urine formation?
A)Micturition
B)Tubular secretion
C)Glomerular filtration
D)Tubular reabsorption
E)All of these are processes of urine formation.
Q2) Which of the following is considered to be a nitrogenous waste, and is normally found in urine?
A)Urea
B)Ketones
C)Glucose
D)Hemoglobin
E)Bilirubin
Q3) What effect would diabetes insipidus have on a person's urinalysis?
A)The specific gravity would be higher than normal.
B)The pH would be abnormally high.
C)The specific gravity would be lower than normal.
D)The glucose level would be higher than normal.
E)There would be no effect on the urinalysis.
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cilia of the pseudostratified columnar epithelium in the epididymis beat back and forth to transport mature sperm out of the epididymis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the later part of fetal development, the testes descend into the scrotum through the A)epididymis.
B)ejaculatory duct. C)urethra.
D)inguinal canal.
E)ureters.
Q3) A portion of the ductus deferens is located within the scrotum.
A)True B)False
Q4) As spermatogenic cells mature, they migrate from the outer edge of the seminiferous tubule toward the lumen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Q1) On a microscopic slide of a uterine tube, the lumen appears very smooth, and lacks folds; these features help the ovulated oocyte to move down the uterine tube toward the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On a microscopic slide of the ovarian cortex, we are likely to see follicles in different stages of development (primordial follicles, primary follicles, secondary follicles, and mature follicles).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organ of the female reproductive system is similar in structure to the penis?
A)Vestibule
B)Areola
C)Fimbraie
D)Clitoris
E)Hymen
Q4) Areolar glands of the breast produce milk.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the umbilical cord?
A)It is directly connected to the placenta.
B)There are two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein.
C)The umbilical arteries transport oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the embryo.
D)The allantois forms part of the umbilical cord.
E)All of these are true of the umbilical cord.
Q2) During which phase of meiosis do the centromeres of double-stranded chromosomes divide, followed by the sister chromatids moving toward opposite poles of the cell, and now being called single-stranded chromosomes?
A)Anaphase I
B)Metaphase II
C)Anaphase II
D)Telophase II
E)Metaphase I
Q3) Meiosis occurs only during gametogenesis.
A)True
B)False
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64
Chapter 63: Genetics
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Q1) Sex-linked traits are
A)inherited from one of the sex chromosomes.
B)only found in males.
C)inherited from the X chromosome only.
D)only found in females.
E)inherited from the Y chromosome only,
Q2) Carriers of a recessive trait are always heterozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The specific combination of alleles that a person inherits for a certain trait is called the A)locus.
B)phenotype.
C)genome.
D)homologous chromosome.
E)genotype.
Q4) A male with red-green colorblindness could have received the recessive gene for this condition from either parent.
A)True
B)False
Page 65
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