Human Anatomy and Physiology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology is a comprehensive course that explores the structure and function of the human body, focusing on the interrelationships between anatomical systems and physiological processes. Students will gain foundational knowledge of major organ systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how these systems work individually and collaboratively to maintain homeostasis and support life. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical applications, learners will develop critical skills in anatomical identification, physiological measurement, and clinical relevance, preparing them for further studies or careers in health sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The origin of the term "anatomy" is related to
A)the Greek word for "function."
B)the name of the first anatomist.
C)the Greek word for "cutting up."
D)the function of internal organs.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following processes is most important to the continuation of the human species?
A)Responsiveness
B)Movement
C)Reproduction
D)Respiration
Answer: C
Q3) Cadaver dissection is against the law in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Self-regulating control mechanisms usually operate by a process called ________ feedback.
Answer: negative
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atoms of different elements have
A)the same atomic number and same atomic weight.
B)the same atomic number but different atomic weights.
C)different atomic numbers.
D)different atomic numbers but the same number of electrons.
Answer: C
Q2) Lipids
A)are insoluble in water.
B)include phospholipids, cholesterol, and fats.
C)contain C, H, and O, but with proportionately less oxygen than in carbohydrates.
D)All of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) Two or more atoms bonding form a ________.
Answer: molecule
Q4) Cholesterol, a type of lipid, is composed of three fatty acid chains attached to glycerol.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stem cells taken from a person to be used to treat a disease in that same person come from
A)embryos or fetuses.
B)the person or a blood relative.
C)existing cell populations or reprogrammed cells.
D)two different cell types.
Answer: C
Q2) Adrenoleukodystrophy is caused by deficiency of a protein in the outer membrane of
A)cells.
B)lysosomes.
C)mitochondria.
D)peroxisomes.
Answer: D
Q3) A telomere is a type of hormone that controls the cell cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Mitosis occurs in ________ cells.
Answer: somatic
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxidation forms chemical bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Phospholipids are critical structures in cell membranes and are therefore enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an example of catabolism?
A)The assembly of the cell membrane from precursor molecules
B)The increase in muscle tissue with exercise
C)The formation of secretory proteins in the pancreas
D)The breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm and mitochondria
Q4) Dehydration synthesis is catabolic and hydrolysis is anabolic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The anaerobic reactions of cellular respiration take place in the A)cytoplasm.
B)mitochondria.
C)nucleus.
D)ribosomes.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elastic connective tissue forms ________.
A)bones
B)branching networks or parallel strands
C)cartilage
D)ligaments and tendons
Q2) A biomedical engineer is tasked with creating epithelial tissue to be placed in a test animal. This tissue requires mucus secretions to create a protective layer on top of the tissue. The engineer needs to place ________ in the tissue to accomplish this function.
Q3) The band between cardiac muscle cells is called a(n)________ ________.
Q4) Epithelial tissue functions in
A)secretion, absorption, and protection.
B)contraction, movement, and reflexes.
C)reacting to stimuli, thinking, and remembering.
D)nourishing and hydrating tissues.
Q5) Cells within a tissue are joined together by ________.
Q6) The lining of the nose consists of ________ membrane.
Q7) A single layer of flattened epithelium forms a tissue called ________.
Q8) Cartilage cells occupy small chambers called ________.
Q9) Cutaneous membrane is synonymous with ________.
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skin cancer is most likely to develop from
A)pigmented epithelial cells.
B)pigmented melanocytes.
C)nonpigmented epithelial cells.
D)nonpigmented melanocytes.
Q2) You step out of the shower and vigorously rub your skin with a towel. If you were able to analyze the towel, you would find skin cells. They are most likely
A)subcutaneous layer cells.
B)from the dermis.
C)keratinized epidermal cells.
D)fibroblasts.
Q3) Aging affects the appearance of the skin, producing wrinkles and sagging due to decreased collagen and elastin formation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pigment produced by melanocytes is ________.
Q5) The ________ sweat glands become active at puberty and possess ducts that open into hair follicles.
Q6) The ________ of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two divisions of the skeleton are called axial and ________.
Q2) Which of the following bone shape is stated with an incorrect example?
A)Long bone - forearm bones
B)Short bone - wrist and ankle bones
C)Flat bone - thigh bone
D)Irregular bone - vertebrae
Q3) The parietal bones meet each other along the sagittal suture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The axial skeleton includes
A)the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles.
B)the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
C)the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges.
D)the femur, tibia, and fibula.
Q6) The membranous soft spots of a newborn's skull are called ________.
Q7) The xiphoid process is part of the ________.
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tooth root attached to a jawbone by a periodontal ligament is a ________.
A)synchondrosis
B)syndesmosis
C)gomphosis
D)synovial joint
Q2) The hip joint has less freedom of movement than the shoulder joint because
A)the joint capsule of the hip is surrounded by muscles and the shoulder is not.
B)the articulating parts of the hip are closer together than those of the shoulder.
C)the hip joint capsule is less elastic than the shoulder.
D)the hip has less synovial fluid than the shoulder joint.
Q3) Arthritis is a circulatory problem.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hip joint is a ball-and-socket joint.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Moving a part backward is called ________.
Q6) A ________ joint is found between a metacarpal and its adjacent phalanx.
Q7) Movement at the ankle that brings the foot closer to the shin is ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sarcomere is best described as
A)a part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B)a group of fascicles.
C)a group of muscle fibers.
D)a unit within a muscle fiber.
Q2) A forceful, sustained muscle contraction is called a(n)________ contraction.
Q3) At a neuromuscular junction
A)actin and myosin filaments slide past one another.
B)troponin and tropomyosin exchange places.
C)neurotransmitters are released.
D)intercalated discs are synthesized.
Q4) You bend your arms at the elbow and forcefully press your palms into each other. Your hands do not move and the muscles of your upper arms do not shorten, but tension greatly increases in them. This muscle contraction is described as being ________.
Q5) The structures that connect cardiac muscle cells are
A)intervertebral discs.
B)neuromuscular junctions.
C)intercalated discs.
D)motor end plates.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the response of a nerve fiber is all-or-none, a greater intensity of stimulus does not produce a stronger impulse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The somatic nervous system controls voluntary actions and the autonomic nervous system oversees involuntary actions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An impulse conducted along an axon consists of a wave of ________ ________ moving away from a point of stimulation.
Q4) The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a polarized neuron cell membrane is called the ________ ________.
Q5) Drugs that increase the actions of norepinephrine and/or serotonin by keeping them in synapses longer are most likely used to treat A)multiple sclerosis.
B)Tay-Sachs disease.
C)clinical depression. D)erectile dysfunction.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Divisions of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spinal cord has
A)no nourishment from, nor interaction with CSF.
B)a core of white matter surrounded by gray matter.
C)a core of gray matter surrounded by white matter.
D)spinal nerves that control olfaction.
Q2) Aphasia is loss of the ability to A)speak.
B)move the hands.
C)walk.
D)think.
Q3) The brain has about one hundred million neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dopamine is secreted by the ________ and is deficient in ________ disease. A)cerebral cortex; Alzheimer
B)amygdala; Lou Gehrig's
C)medulla oblongata; Huntington
D)substantia nigra; Parkinson
Page 13
Q5) The cardiac center, vasomotor center, and respiratory center are located in the ________ of the brainstem.
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The auditory ossicles are in the inner ear.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are paired correctly?
A)Baroreceptors-stimulated by damage to tissues
B)Nociceptors-stimulated by blood pressure changes
C)Thermoreceptors- stimulated by energy from light
D)Proprioceptors- stimulated by tension changes in muscles and tendons
Q3) Which example fits? "A sensation is ________ , and projection of a sensation is ________."
A)a Pacinian corpuscle being stimulated to generate an action potential upon stretch stimulation; the transmission of that impulse into the brain
B)nociceptors sending pain signals about tissue damage from a bee sting on your finger; the brain recognizing that the pain is from your finger
C)the sweet taste of ice cream on your tongue; the right side of the brain projecting the sweet taste to the left side, or vice versa
D)a change in membrane permeability of a receptor; transmission of an impulse into a sensory area of the brain
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thymus gland secretes hormones called ________ that ________.
A)thyroxines; control metabolism
B)melatonins; control circadian rhythms
C)prostaglandins; control strength
D)thymosins; control production and differentiation of white blood cells
Q2) Down-regulation of a target cell can occur in response to
A)prolonged decrease in the level of a hormone.
B)prolonged increase in the level of a hormone.
C)signals from antagonistic hormone products.
D)signals from the posterior pituitary.
Q3) Hyposecretion of hormones from the adrenal cortex leads to A)Cushing syndrome.
B)Addison disease.
C)buffalo hump.
D)moon face.
Q4) A person who is stressed usually will have increased
A)activity of the spleen and other lymphatic organs.
B)number of lymphocytes in the blood.
C)resistance to infections.
D)blood pressure.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following usually accounts for the smallest percentage of leukocytes in a blood sample?
A)Monocytes
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Neutrophils
Q2) Which of the following are agranulocytes?
A)Basophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Neutrophils
D)Monocytes
Q3) A platelet plug is formed when fibrinogen is converted to fibrin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As a platelet plug forms, platelets release
A)collagen.
B)creatine.
C)serotonin.
D)fibrin.
Q5) The most abundant type of plasma protein is ________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic stimulation increases
A)end-diastolic volume.
B)stroke volume.
C)end-systolic volume.
D)blood vessel volume.
Q2) Which of the following layers of the heart and their functions are correctly matched?
A)Epicardium-protective inner lining of the heart chambers and valves
B)Myocardium-cardiac muscle tissue that pumps blood out of the heart chambers
C)Endocardium-protective outer covering
D)Pericardium-protective inner lining of the heart chambers and valves
Q3) When venous pressure is too low, ________ stimulate smooth muscles in the walls of veins to contract.
A)parasympathetic reflexes
B)sympathetic reflexes
C)somatic reflexes
D)carbon dioxide levels
Q4) Arteries are strong, elastic vessels that carry blood to the heart.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a result of the allergen-antibody reaction, mast cells release histamine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are pathogens?
A)A type of antibody
B)Agents that alter DNA base sequences
C)Disease-causing agents
D)Phagocytic leukocytes
Q3) The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)is responsible for the infection known as mononucleosis. The virus attacks B lymphocytes and uses them to replicate itself. When the immune system manages to halt EBV production, the virus still remains dormant in infected B cells for the rest of the life of the host. In which of the following locations would you most likely find dormant EBV (in a previously infected person)?
A)The eyes
B)The spleen
C)The stomach
D)The hair
Q4) Lymph nodes are centers for the production of ________, which act against foreign particles carried in lymph.
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A genetic mutation prevents the parietal cells of the gastric glands from secreting their typical products. What effect would this have on digestion within the stomach?
A)The stomach would not produce a protective mucus coating and would digest itself.
B)Somatostatin would be secreted, so all digestion would be halted.
C)Pepsinogen would not be secreted, so protein digestion would not occur within the stomach.
D)Hydrochloric acid would not be produced, so pepsinogen would not be activated to form pepsin.
Q2) Secretion of cholecystokinin from the intestinal wall is stimulated by
A)protein in the stomach.
B)protein in the small intestine.
C)fat in the stomach.
D)protein and fat in the small intestine.
Q3) Which constituent of bile has a digestive function?
A)Bile salts
B)Bile pigments
C)Cholesterol
D)Electrolytes
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals at highest risk for developing anorexia nervosa are
A)infants.
B)adolescents.
C)adults.
D)children.
Q2) Riboflavin is carried in the blood combined with the blood protein called ________.
Q3) Diabetics who don't have access to or refuse their insulin supplementation quickly become starved for glucose. Their body rapidly oxidizes lipids into acetyl CoA, and then into________, which can be used as fuel much like glucose in various places of the body. However, these molecules can build up and raise blood pH, which is life-threatening.
Q4) Hannah eats tremendous amounts of food, but then takes laxatives, vomits, and exercises to keep from gaining weight. She has an eating disorder called ________.
Q5) As a whole, the chemical reactions that are used by cells to build and break down compounds are referred to as ________.
Q6) The B vitamins are water insoluble.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The volume of air that enters the lungs during forced maximal inspiration is the A)inspiratory reserve volume.
B)expiratory reserve volume.
C)vital capacity.
D)tidal volume.
Q2) The vocal cords are in the A)pharynx.
B)larynx.
C)trachea.
D)oral cavity.
Q3) The nasal conchae create passageways in the nasal cavity called ________.
Q4) Exposure to secondhand smoke can cause or increase risk of A)high altitude sickness and sleep apnea.
B)heart disease, lung cancer, and low birth weight.
C)pneumonia and tuberculosis.
D)sarcoidosis, multiple sclerosis, and vasculitis
Q5) Coughing reflexes become faster with age.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In a mixture of gases, each gas creates a pressure called its ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins of smaller molecular size may be reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the process of ________.
Q2) The glomerular filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule is isotonic to the plasma of the peritubular capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Select the sequence that indicates the parts of a renal tubule in the correct sequence from beginning to end.
A)Proximal convoluted tubule, ascending limb of nephron loop, descending limb of nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule
B)Distal convoluted tubule, ascending limb of nephron loop, descending limb of nephron loop, proximal convoluted tubule
C)Proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule
D)Collecting duct, proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule
Q4) Cells in the ________ produce ADH.
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys help to regulate the hydrogen ion concentration of body fluids by altering the rate at which hydrogen ions are secreted.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Maxwell has just finished a brutal 10 kilometer run. His body has
A)an increased production of carbonic acid and increased pH of body fluids.
B)an increased production of carbonic acid and decreased pH of body fluids.
C)a decreased production of carbonic acid, and increased pH of body fluids.
D)a decreased production of carbonic acid and decreased pH of body fluids.
Q3) Lara had a gastric band placed around her stomach, which makes it smaller and able to hold less. How will this affect her thirst?
A)Her thirst is more difficult to satisfy.
B)No aspect of her thirst mechanism is altered.
C)Less water intake is needed to satisfy her thirst.
D)She will continue to be thirsty after drinking.
Q4) The hormone ADH is released from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An arterial blood pH below 7.35 is called ________.
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dimensions of a uterine tube are
A)5 centimeters in diameter and about 20 centimeters long.
B)2 centimeters in diameter and about 30 centimeters long.
C)10 centimeters in diameter and about 40 centimeters long.
D)0.7 centimeters in diameter and about 10 centimeters long.
Q2) The structure the sperm enters upon exiting the ductus deferens is the A)seminal vesicles.
B)epididymis.
C)ejaculatory duct.
D)rete testis.
Q3) The hormone(s)mainly responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics is A)estrogens.
B)progesterone.
C)androgens.
D)luteinizing hormone.
Q4) The secretions of the prostate gland neutralize the acid in semen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) After birth, the foramen ovale is closed as a result of
A)increasing pressure in the right atrium.
B)increasing pressure in the left atrium.
C)increased resistance in the pulmonary circuit.
D)decreased blood volume in the pulmonary veins.
Q2) The slender projections that grow out from the trophoblast into the uterine wall are called ________.
Q3) Compared to adult hemoglobin, fetal hemoglobin
A)binds iron more strongly.
B)has more hemoglobin subunits.
C)binds oxygen more readily.
D)has more heme units.
Q4) Passive aging is
A)a result of a person being much less active in later years.
B)decay of tissues.
C)a breakdown of structures and slowing of functions.
D)a buildup of structures and speeding of functions.
Q5) If a pregnant woman becomes infected with the Varicella (chicken pox)virus during the embryonic stage, the fetus can develop eye problems, mental retardation, and delayed growth. The Varicella virus is a(n)________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) In genomic imprinting
A)genes on the Y chromosome are only expressed in males.
B)children copy their parents' behavior.
C)the same allele has a different effect if inherited from the mother or father.
D)a trait affects a structure found only in one sex.
Q2) Chorionic villus sampling can be performed earlier in pregnancy than amniocentesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An allele that is not expressed in the heterozygous condition is A)recessive.
B)dominant.
C)autosomal.
D)codominant.
Q4) Polydactyly is an example of a trait that is both ________ and variably expressive.
A)incompletely penetrant
B)pleiotropic
C)multifactorial
D)completely penetrant
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