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This course provides a comprehensive exploration of the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing the relationship between anatomical form and physiological processes. Students will study major body systems including skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, endocrine, and reproductive systems focusing on how these systems work both independently and together to maintain homeostasis. The course combines theoretical learning with practical laboratory experiences, enabling students to apply concepts through dissection, model analysis, and physiological experimentation. This foundational knowledge supports further study in health-related fields and prepares students for advanced coursework in biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology for Health Professions An Interactive Journey 2nd Edition by
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Q1) The abbreviation used for twice a day is ________.
A)TAD
B)TID
C)p.r.n
D)BID
Answer: D
Q2) The abbreviation for a stroke is ________ and the letters stand for ________.
A)CPR, cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B)CAD, coronary artery disease
C)CVA, cerebrovascular accident
D)CVA, cardiovascular accident
Answer: C
Q3) ACLS stands for __________
Answer: Advanced Cardiac Life Support
Q4) Which is not a definition for disease?
A)Not at ease
B)A condition in which the body fails to function normally
C)Anything that is a normal structure or function
D)Anything that upsets normal structure or function
Answer: C
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Q1) The Psoas test is used to test for _______________.
Answer: Appendicitis
Q2) The doctor has ordered a study to look at the action of heart valves.Which procedure has he ordered?
A)X-ray
B)CT Scan
C)MRI
D)Ultrasound
Answer: D
Q3) The ________ contains the heart, lungs, and large blood vessels.
A)Thoracic cavity
B)Abdominopelvic cavity
C)Cranial cavity
D)Spinal cavity
Answer: A
Q4) Heart failure can cause the back-up of fluid into the venous system thus causing the neck or ________ veins to become engorged with extra blood.
Answer: Jugular
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Q1) Explain the function of enzymes.
Answer: Enzymes speed up the rate of chemical reactions.The reactants bind to the active site of the enzyme.This makes the reactants more likely to react.They react and products are produced.The enzyme simply carries the reactants through the reaction.The enzyme is unchanged.When the reaction is over, the enzyme releases the products and picks up more reactants and the reaction continues.
Q2) All steroids are unhealthy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A lack of the ability of the body to carry oxygen may be due to a deficiency in ________:
A)iron
B)copper
C)zinc
D)gold
Answer: A
Q4) Cellular respiration requires both glucose and ________________.
Answer: Oxygen
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Q1) Bacterial cells have no nucleus or organelles and reproduce easily through a process known as ________.
A)Chromatin
B)Eukaryosis
C)Interphase
D)Binary fission
Q2) This is the site of protein synthesis in the cell ________.
A)Mitochondria
B)Lysosomes
C)Ribosomes
D)Golgi apparatus
Q3) Normal ____________ are bacteria that are normal in the body.
Q4) Mitosis is the division and sorting of the genetic material, while ________ is the division of the cytoplasm.
Q5) ____________ act as power plants in the cell.
Q6) ____________ are whip-like tails that help cells move.
Q7) The phase in which the chromosomes become visible is ____________.
Q8) Fungi can spread through the release of ________.
Page 6
Q9) Without mitosis, your body would not be able to grow, or replace old or ________ cells.
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Q1) The membrane layer that wraps around individual organs is called ____________.
Q2) Mucous is ________.
A)The type of membrane
B)The material that collects in the corner of the eye
C)The actual substance secreted by membranes
D)The substance secreted by synovial membranes
Q3) Involuntary muscle tissue is called skeletal muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the epithelial membranes encases individual organs?
A)parietal
B)mucous
C)visceral
D)cutaneous
Q5) Explain the relationship between cells, tissues, organs and systems.
Q6) In a serous membrane, the membrane layer that lines cavities is called ________.
Q7) Blood is a connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord are called ____________. Page 8
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Q1) A(n) ________ or closed fracture is a break without a puncture to the skin.
Q2) The microscopic cylindrical-shaped unit of compact bone is called ________.
A)The endosteum
B)The cancellous
C)The osteon
D)The trabeculae
Q3) Tendonitis or tendinitis often occurs in conjunction with ________.
Q4) Explain the steps in bone repair.
Q5) Signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis include which of the following?
A)Joint develops a crooked deformation
B)Greater range of motion
C)Painful swelling of affected joint
D)a and c only
Q6) A cleft palate is an example of which of the following?
A)Congenital disorder
B)Degenerative disorder
C)Infection
D)Nutritional disorder
Q7) The larger version of a tubercle located only on the femur is the ____________.
Page 10
Q8) The clavicle and skull bones form via __________________ ossification.
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Q1) This type of muscle tissue contains striations.
A)Voluntary muscle
B)Cardiac muscle
C)Smooth muscle
D)Both a and b
Q2) Blood is pumped through the heart by which type of muscle?
A)Skeletal
B)Smooth
C)Cardiac
D)Visceral
Q3) Pectoralis major is located in or near the ________.
A)Elbow
B)Chest
C)Upper portion of the thigh
D)Front of lower leg
Q4) Tetanus is a muscle disease caused by an untreated bacterial infection of a(n)
Q5) ____________ attach bone to bone.
Q6) ________ cause pain in the tibia region.
Q7) Explain the steps underlying skeletal muscle contraction.
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Q1) First degree burns affect all three of the skin layers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After a severe burn, a patient may require a(n) ____________, in which skin is removed from an unaffected area of his body and moved to the burned area.
A)Antibacterial patch
B)Heterograft
C)Donor site
D)Autograft
Q3) Second degree burns involve the entire depth of the epidermis and a portion of the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Severe burns require healing at an intensity the body ________ normally achieve on its own.
Q5) Alopecia is the term for any type of ________ loss.
Q6) Eczema is a disorder that results primarily from an allergic reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Guillain Barré syndrome is the autoimmune destruction of the ________ nervous system myelin and often occurs after a viral infection.
Q2) Impulses are conducted rapidly if ____________ is present.
A)Calcium
B)Sodium
C)Myelin
D)Spinal fluid
Q3) ________ is usually mechanical injury to spinal cord tissue.
Q4) The third, innermost layer of the meninges is called the ________.
A)Dura mater
B)Arachnoid mater
C)Pia mater
D)Epidural mater
Q5) Tiny sacs at nerve terminals, called ____________, release contents from the cell when calcium flows in.
Q6) A very common form of peripheral neuropathy caused by repetitive motion is
Q8) The lipid ________ increases action potential conduction speed. Page 13
Q7) The neurotransmitter group ________ inhibit release of pain neurotransmitters.
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Q1) A(n) ____________ is a group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS.
Q2) Thirst is regulated in the thalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The system that controls mood ________.
A)reticular
B)somatic
C)sympathetic
D)limbic
Q4) The midbrain is the most superior portion of the brainstem.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system controls the flight-or-fight response.
Q6) The pons is inferior to the medulla oblongata. A)True
B)False
Q7) List five common effects of a stroke.
Q8) The ____________ lobes are responsible for conscious thought. Page 15
Preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ____________.
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Q1) Sight can be considered ________.
A)A general sense
B)A special sense
C)A chemoreceptor
D)Both b and c
Q2) Receptors used to locate body parts are considered ________.
A)A special sense
B)A chemoreceptor
C)A thermoreceptor
D)A proprioceptor
Q3) The ________ or colored part of the eye helps regulate the amount of light that enters the eye.
Q4) ________ is an inflammation of the inner ear and is usually caused by infections.
Q5) A chronic disease of the inner ear marked by a recurring syndrome of vertigo, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss is called ________.
A)Cholesteatoma
B)Otosclerosis
C)Meniere's disease
D)Mastoiditis
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Q1) Insufficient secretion of PTH by the parathyroid gland is called ________.
A)Hyperpituitarism
B)Hypoparathyroidism
C)Hyperparathyroidism
D)Hypopituitarism
Q2) A standard level, known as the ____________, is necessary to maintain the body's homeostasis.
A)Set point
B)Target level
C)Norm
D)Quotient
Q3) A(n) ________ is the enlargement of the thyroid and can be the result of either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.
Q4) What is the name of the condition in which the body is not producing adequate amounts of insulin?
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Diabetes insipidus
C)Dwarfism
D)Hyperthyroidism
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Q5) Stature disorders that result in well-below-average height are called ________.

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Q1) ________ defend against parasites.
Q2) The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve ________.
A)Between the left atrium and left ventricle
B)That opens from the right ventricle into the artery
C)Between the right atrium and right ventricle
D)That opens from the left ventricle into the artery
Q3) The ____________ is the tip of the heart, distal to the head.
Q4) ________ may be caused by decreased red blood cell (RB) production.
Q5) A person with type A blood ________.
A)Has anti-A antibodies
B)Has A antigens
C)Has anti-B antibodies
D)Both b and c above
Q6) ________ is an inherited bleeding disorder.
Q7) A substance that decreases the body's ability to clot is ________.
A)Aspirin
B)Vitamin K
C)Vitamin A
D)Enzyme
Q8) ________ is a type of blood cancer that can cause increased WBCs. Page 19
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Q1) Atelectasis is the situation in which the air sacs collapse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called ________.
A)Evacuation
B)Perspiration
C)Respiration
D)Ventilation
Q3) Chemoreceptors that help regulate breathing can be found ________.
A)In the medulla oblongata
B)In the carotid artery
C)In the aorta
D)Both b and c
Q4) Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the ____________.
Q5) This structure is not a part of the larynx ________.
A)Thyroid cartilage
B)Vocal cords
C)Epiglottis
D)Eustachian tubes
Q6) The process of gas exchange is known as ____________.
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Q1) Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) is a(n) ________ disorder in which the immune system attacks a variety of structures in the body.
Q2) HIV infection and subsequently AIDS, is characterized by severe decrease in immune function, particularly ________.
A)Memory B-cells
B)Neutrophils
C)Helper T-cells
D)Plasma cells
Q3) ____________ immunity is your body's inborn ability to fight infection.
Q4) ________ is a cancer of the bone marrow and blood, characterized by the overproduction of white blood cells.
Q5) ________ is staged and prognosis is determined by the amount of metastasis, tumor characteristics, and lymph node involvement.
Q6) The lumbar, intestinal, and intercostal trunk all empty into the ________ duct, a large duct that runs from the abdomen up through the diaphragm and into the left subclavian vein.
Q7) ________ is the rise in body temperature as a deliberate attempt by the immune system to destroy the pathogens that have invaded the body.
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Q1) Enzymes are necessary for digestion; ________ is produced to break down fats.
A)Nuclease
B)Lipase
C)Carbohydrase
D)Maltase
Q2) The liver stores Vitamins A, B<sub>12</sub>, K, and C.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Deciduous teeth are commonly called ____________ teeth, because they fall out.
Q4) The stomach has four regions, the area that connects with the small intestine is called the
A)Fundus
B)Body
C)Pylorus
D)Cardiac region
Q5) The peritoneum has drapes of membrane known as ____________________.
Q6) The first set of teeth are called ________ (baby) teeth, and they fall out in time.
Q7) Describe the anatomy of the peritoneum.How is peritoneum different from other serous membranes?
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Q1) Which of the following statements is untrue of the kidneys?
A)The right kidney is slightly higher than the left kidney.
B)The kidneys are outside the peritoneal cavity.
C)The kidneys are surrounded by a layer of fat.
D)The kidneys are affected by blood pressure.
Q2) ________ is scarring of the glomerulus.
Q3) The urinary bladder serves as a reservoir for urine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Water is reabsorbed in the descending loop.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Without functioning kidneys, fluid and ion ___________ would kill you in a matter of days.
A)Imbalance
B)Equilibrium
C)Reactions
D)Impurities
Q6) Diabetic ________ is a type of kidney disease caused by diabetes mellitus.
Q7) ________ is the movement of molecules from high to low concentrations.
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Q1) The smooth muscle layer of the uterus is called the ________.
A)Endometrium
B)Fundus
C)Cervix
D)Myometrium
Q2) HCG is secreted by the ovary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) This syndrome is a genetic disorder that can result in a broad range of malfunctions of the male reproductive system, from complete lack of external or internal male genitalia to patients with ambiguous genitalia to patients who have typical male genitalia but are sterile.
A)Testosterone deficiency
B)Androgen insensitivity syndrome
C)BPH
D)ED Short
Q4) Following birth, the baby is often fed with breast milk.One of the complications is ________ which is an inflammation of the breast.
Q5) ________ pregnancy is also known as a tubal pregnancy.
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Q1) List five behavioral choices to improve health.
Q2) DNA fingerprinting is performed in which manner?
A)Blotting digits on paper
B)Splitting DNA molecules
C)Dusting the scene with powder
D)Dusting cells for very small prints
Q3) A skull fragment found in a 400-year-old trash dump at this settlement provided evidence that skull surgery had been performed on a patient ________.
A)Mexico City, Mexico
B)Cairo, Egypt
C)Beijing, China
D)Jamestown, Virginia
Q4) Bone density usually reaches its greatest peak around age ________.
A)35
B)45
C)55
D)65
Q5) Many triggers can make a cell cancerous, such as exposure to sunlight, radiation, and ________.
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