Human Anatomy and Physiology II
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology II is a continuation of the study of the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing deeper exploration of the major organ systems. This course covers the cardiovascular, lymphatic, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems, integrating concepts of homeostasis, fluid and electrolyte balance, and the roles of hormones. Students will examine the physiological processes that sustain human health and analyze the interrelationships between systems. Through lectures, laboratory work, and practical applications, the course fosters a comprehensive understanding of human biology essential for advanced study or careers in health and medical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry R. Martin
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Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) When plotting data on a graph, drawing the line of best fit involves placing all of the data points on the line.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) An important feature of a hypothesis is that it has to be ________.
A)a known fact
B)true
C)a widely accepted theory
D)false
E)testable
Answer: E
Q3) In the metric system, a gram (g)is a unit of mass.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The first step of the scientific method is making observations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity?
A)Diaphragm
B)Stomach
C)Spleen
D)Liver
E)Pleura
Answer: A
Q2) The inguinal region is found in the ________ area.
A)anterior knee
B)shoulder
C)forearm
D)groin
E)hip
Answer: D
Q3) The anterior body cavity consists of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many plant pigments can be used as colorimetric tests for changes in ________.
A)temperature
B)carbohydrate concentration
C)pH
D)water purity
E)sodium ion (Na+)concentration
Answer: C
Q2) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are all classified as organic molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Acids have a pH of <7.0, and they contain a higher concentration of H+ ions than OHions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Sudan IV dye is a test for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to use only the fine adjustment knob when using the high-power or oil immersion lenses?
A)Using the coarse adjustment knob might crack the coverslip or slide, due to the close working distance.
B)You will not be able to focus on the specimen with the coarse adjustment knob.
C)There will not be enough light on the specimen to see it, if the coarse adjustment knob is used.
D)The condenser does not function when using the coarse adjustment knob.
E)The iris diaphragm does not function when using the coarse adjustment knob.
Q2) All of the following are true of a stereomicroscope, except
A)it can also be called a dissecting microscope.
B)it is used to view large, opaque specimens.
C)the image of the specimen is reversed and inverted.
D)it can be used to view an object 3-dimensionally.
E)it provides less magnification than a compound light microscope.
Q3) A compound microscope is one that has two ocular lenses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cytosol and cytoplasmic organelles are components of the ________.
A)cytoskeleton
B)cytoplasm
C)mitochondria
D)nucleus
E)plasma membrane
Q2) What is the difference in function between the smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?
A)The rough ER produces ATP, while the smooth ER does not.
B)The rough ER helps with cellular movements, while the smooth ER does not.
C)The rough ER conducts lipid synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts protein synthesis.
D)The rough ER breaks down lipids, while the smooth ER breaks down proteins and debris.
E)The rough ER conducts protein synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts lipid synthesis.
Q3) The plasma membrane of a cell can also be called the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Q1) Which of the passive transport processes requires hydrostatic pressure to transport molecules across membranes in the body?
A)Osmosis
B)Filtration
C)Facilitated diffusion
D)Pinocytosis
E)Diffusion
Q2) In the molasses experiment, after 30 minutes, the molasses level in the stem of the thistle tube had gone up.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following transport processes requires the energy of ATP to move substances across the plasma membrane?
A)Diffusion
B)Osmosis
C)Facilitated diffusion
D)Active transport
E)Filtration
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Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Q1) The process by which uncommitted cells become committed, specialized, and functional is called ________.
A)cytokinesis
B)differentiation
C)mitosis
D)synthesis
E)cleavage
Q2) Which of the following is the correct sequence of the phases of interphase?
A)G , G , G
B)G , S, G
C)S, G , G
D)G ,G , G , S
E)G , G , S
Q3) Meiosis is a type of cell division unique to gametes, that serves to produce haploid sperm and egg cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A cell that enters the G phase will die within hours.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the keratinized form of stratified squamous epithelium found in the body?
A)The lining of the esophagus
B)The lining of the oral cavity
C)The epidermis of the skin
D)The anal canal
E)The vagina
Q2) Which type of epithelial tissue provides protection against respiratory infections, due to the presence of mucus and cilia?
A)Simple squamous
B)Pseudostratified columnar
C)Stratified columnar
D)Simple cuboidal
E)Stratified squamous
Q3) The thinnest type of epithelial tissue in the body, which allows rapid diffusion of substances through the cells, is simple cuboidal epithelium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Q1) Which of the following types of connective tissue is avascular (contains no blood vessels)?
A)Bone
B)Reticular connective tissue
C)Adipose tissue
D)Cartilage
E)Areolar connective tissue
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of connective tissues in general?
A)Connective tissues contain an abundance of extracellular matrix.
B)The cells are packed tightly together, as they are in epithelial tissues.
C)The ground substance can vary from liquid to solid.
D)Most connective tissues are well-supplied with blood vessels.
E)All of these are characteristics of connective tissues in general.
Q3) Which cell type produces heparin and histamine to promote inflammation in the connective tissues when necessary?
A)Fibroblasts
B)Chondroblasts
C)Osteoblasts
D)Mast cells
E)Erythrocytes
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Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intercalated discs contain both desmosomes and gap junctions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Neuroglia are the supporting cells for neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dendrites, an axon, and a soma are all components of ________.
A)smooth muscle cells
B)neuroglia
C)cardiac muscle cells
D)neurons
E)skeletal muscle cells
Q4) Both neurons and neuroglia are able to generate and conduct nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cardiac muscle is found in the walls of the heart and blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a type of skin (cutaneous)gland?
A)Apocrine sweat glands
B)Sebaceous glands
C)Mammary glands
D)Ceruminous glands
E)All of these are considered to be a type of skin (cutaneous)gland.
Q2) Most of the accessory structures of the skin are found in the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hypodermis is considered to be a true layer of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true of the stratum basale?
A)It contains melanocytes.
B)It is the deepest layer of the epidermis.
C)It consists of only one layer of cuboidal or columnar cells.
D)It is the layer of the epidermis in which cell division is occurring.
E)All of these are true of the stratum basale.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chicken bones soaked in vinegar or hydrochloric acid overnight become flexible, because the acid dissolves the collagen fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following contain red bone marrow in the adult skeleton?
A)The proximal epiphyses of the femurs
B)The radius and ulna
C)The tibia and fibula
D)The phalanges of the hands and feet
E)None of these structures contain red bone marrow in the adult skeleton.
Q3) Some of the large cranial bones, which have wide surfaces, and are sometimes curved, are classified as ________ bones.
A)short
B)long
C)irregular
D)flat
E)sesamoid
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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Q1) The bones that connect the upper and lower limbs to the axial skeleton are those of the pectoral and pelvic girdles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The axial skeleton contains more bones than the appendicular skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A rounded bone process that functions as an articulation in a joint is called a
A)facet
B)crest
C)meatus
D)condyle
E)fovea
Q4) The thoracic cage consists of the A)ribs and sternum.
B)coxal bones.
C)ribs.
D)scapulae and clavicles.
E)coxal bones and sacrum.
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Chapter 14: Skull
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Q1) What is the name of the structure that supports the teeth on both the maxilla and the mandible?
A)Crista galli
B)Pterygoid process
C)Ramus
D)Alveolar process
E)Coronoid process
Q2) The vertebral arteries, accessory nerve, and the connections between the brainstem and spinal cord are all transmitted through the ________.
A)vertebral foramen
B)foramen magnum
C)mental foramen
D)stylomastoid foramen
E)foramen ovale
Q3) All of the following bones are part of the eye orbit except the A)maxilla.
B)zygomatic bone.
C)nasal bone.
D)frontal bone.
E)lacrimal bone.
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Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lateral projections on cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae are called A)spinous processes.
B)pedicles.
C)transverse processes.
D)lateral process.
E)transverse foramina.
Q2) The vertebral column extends from the first cervical vertebra (C1)to the fifth lumbar vertebra (L5).
A)True
B)False
Q3) The surfaces of ribs that articulate with vertebrae are called A)processes.
B)notches.
C)tubercles.
D)angles.
E)facets.
Q4) There are five pairs of false ribs in the human skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bones of the pectoral girdle are part of the axial skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The carpals are not included in the anatomical description of the hand.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The trochlear notch of the ulna articulates with the ________ of the humerus.
A)olecranon fossa
B)trochlea
C)head
D)capitulum
E)intertubercular sulcus
Q4) Which bone of the pectoral girdle or upper limb is S-shaped?
A)Radius
B)Scapula
C)Ulna
D)Humerus
E)Clavicle
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18
Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Q1) Which of the following structures is the weakest portion of the femur, and is a common site of fracture in a "broken hip"?
A)Head
B)Neck
C)Fovea capitis
D)Greater trochanter
E)Lesser trochanter
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the bones of the lower limb?
A)The lower limb contains 8 tarsals, just like the upper limb contains 8 carpals.
B)There are 5 metatarsals in each foot, just like there are 5 metacarpals in each hand.
C)There are 14 phalanges in each foot, just like in the hand.
D)The leg contains 2 bones, just like the forearm.
E)All of these are true of the bones of the lower limb.
Q3) The patellar surface, which articulates with the patella, is found on the tibia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the fontanels?
A)They are sometimes called "soft spots."
B)They are areas of incomplete ossification in the skull of an infant.
C)They occur between the flat bones of the skull, the vertebrae, and the long bones of the upper and lower limbs.
D)They allow for cranial compression during childbirth, and rapid brain development after birth.
E)All of these are true of the fontanels.
Q2) The relatively small size of the face in the fetal skull is due to all of the following except
A)the small size of the maxillae and their sinuses.
B)the undersized mandible.
C)the lack of tooth eruptions in the maxillae and mandible.
D)the small size of the nasal cavities.
E)all of these are reasons why the face is small in a fetal skull.
Q3) All of the fontanels of the fetal/infant skull involve the parietal bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Q1) What type of synovial joints are metacarpophalangeal joints?
A)Condylar
B)Hinge
C)Pivot
D)Ball-and-socket
E)Saddle
Q2) The only structural type of joint that contains synovial fluid in a joint cavity is a cartilaginous joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following joints is/are capable of circumduction?
A)Elbow and knee
B)Shoulder and hip
C)Hip and knee
D)Shoulder, hip, elbow, and knee
E)Shoulder and elbow
Q4) Medial and lateral excursion are special joint movements that involve the mandible.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Q1) A muscle can serve as an agonist in one action and an antagonist in another action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A muscle fiber is identical to a muscle cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A particular muscle causes flexion of the lower limb at the knee. It is located on the posterior side of the thigh. Where would you expect to find its antagonist?
A)On the medial side of the thigh
B)On the anterior side of the thigh
C)On the lateral side of the thigh
D)On the posterior side of the thigh too
E)On any side of the thigh
Q4) In a motor unit, each neuron innervates (controls)a single muscle fiber.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) In a motor unit of a skeletal muscle, each muscle fiber is innervated by several motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Muscle fatigue can be induced by sustaining maximum clench force on an object for several seconds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of tonus?
A)It is a state of slight muscle contraction.
B)It occurs when a muscle is fully contracted.
C)During periods of tonus, the motor units take turns contracting.
D)It keeps the motor units healthy and ready to contract at any time.
E)All of these are true of tonus.
Q4) In the EMG experiment, when was tonus observed?
A)During the weakest clench
B)During the period of decreasing tension in the muscle fatigue experiment
C)During the strongest clench
D)In the periods between clenches
E)Tonus was not observed in the EMG experiment.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Q1) Which of the following nerves innervates the muscles of mastication?
A)Trigeminal nerve
B)Ansa cervicalis
C)Accessory nerve
D)Hypoglossal nerve
E)Facial nerve
Q2) Which of the following muscles of facial expression is the only one that closes the eye when blinking?
A)Nasalis
B)Orbicularis oris
C)Risorius
D)Mentalis
E)Orbicularis oculi
Q3) All of the muscles that move the hyoid bone and larynx are innervated by the facial nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The muscles that move the head are found in the neck.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Q1) The flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris both flex the wrist and abduct the hand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In general, the extensors of the wrist and fingers are located on the anterior side of the forearm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a muscle of respiration?
A)External intercostals
B)Diaphragm
C)Pectoralis major
D)Internal intercostals
E)All of these are major muscles of respiration.
Q4) All muscles cross only one joint.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Wall,
and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Which muscles form the outermost layer of the layered abdominal wall muscles?
A)Internal oblique
B)External intercostal
C)Transversus abdominis
D)Rectus abdominis
E)External oblique
Q2) The deep muscles of the back flex the vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which muscle(s)of the pelvic floor is/are responsible for erection of the penis and clitoris?
A)Bulbospongiosus only
B)Superficial transverse perineal muscle and coccygeus
C)Ischiocavernosus only
D)Bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus
E)Coccygeus only
Q4) The linea alba is a muscle of the pelvic floor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Q1) Some of the muscles of the hip and lower limb cross more than one joint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The origins of the muscles that move the foot are on the femur, tibia, or fibula.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are posterior leg muscles except the A)gastrocnemius.
B)soleus.
C)popliteus.
D)extensor digitorum longus.
E)All of these are posterior leg muscles.
Q4) Looking at the names of these muscles, which one would you expect to insert on the distal phalanges of toes 2-5?
A)Flexor digitorum longus
B)Tibialis anterior
C)Flexor hallucis longus
D)Extensor pollicis longus
E)Fibularis longus
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Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Q1) External landmarks (surface anatomy)on the body not only allow for examination of surface features, but also offer an opportunity to locate certain internal structures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following views would you NOT be able to see the lateral malleolus?
A)Medial view
B)Posterior view
C)Lateral view
D)Anterior view
E)The lateral malleolus would be visible in all of these views.
Q3) The xiphoid process is a A)bony feature of the torso.
B)soft tissue feature of the head.
C)bony feature of the upper limb.
D)soft tissue feature of the lower limb.
E)soft tissue feature of the torso.
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Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) Which type of neuroglia forms the myelin sheath around some axons of the PNS (peripheral nervous system)?
A)Schwann cells
B)Astrocytes
C)Satellite cells
D)Oligodendrocytes
E)Ependymal cells
Q2) Nodes of Ranvier are found only on A)myelinated axons.
B)dendrites.
C)astrocytes.
D)Nissl bodies.
E)unmyelinated axons.
Q3) A bundle of nerve fibers is surrounded by a layer of fibrous connective tissue called the
A)epineurium.
B)fascicle.
C)endoneurium.
D)neurilemma.
E)perineurium.
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Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the epidural space?
A)It lies between the vertebrae and the dura mater.
B)It contains connective tissue and blood vessels.
C)It contains cerebrospinal fluid.
D)It is the site for epidural injections of anesthetics.
E)All of these are true of the epidural space.
Q2) What is the function of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord?
A)It contains extra gray matter to provide the necessary innervation to the upper limbs.
B)It provides extra innervation to the heart and lungs.
C)It contains extra gray matter to provide the necessary innervation to the lower limbs.
D)It provides a large amount of neurons to control the postural muscles of the back.
E)It contains many neurons to provide accurate sensation to all areas of the trunk.
Q3) The meninges surround and protect the entire CNS and PNS.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) Which of the following nerves innervates the effectors of the patellar reflex?
A)Musculocutaneous nerve
B)Median nerve
C)Common fibular nerve
D)Femoral nerve
E)Tibial nerve
Q2) Stretch reflexes and withdrawal reflexes are types of autonomic reflexes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the role of an inhibitory interneuron in a stretch reflex?
A)It is used to inhibit the antagonistic muscles from contracting at the same time as the effectors of the reflex.
B)It is used to ensure that the effectors do not contract excessively.
C)It sends inhibitory commands to the opposite limb, so it will not respond.
D)It ensures that the reflex does not damage the effectors.
E)Inhibitory interneurons are not involved in stretch reflexes.
Q4) A reflex arc is the simplest kind of neural pathway in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) A shallow groove on the surface of the brain is called a A)fissure.
B)canal.
C)gyrus.
D)aperture.
E)sulcus.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the cranial meninges?
A)The pia mater is attached to the outer surface of the brain.
B)The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meninges.
C)The dura mater is a single layer around the brain, just as it is around the spinal cord.
D)The subarachnoid space contains cerebrospinal fluid.
E)All of these are true of the cranial meninges.
Q3) Swallowing problems might indicate damage to all of the following cranial nerves except
A)the trigeminal nerve.
B)the vagus nerve.
C)the hypoglossal nerve.
D)the glossopharyngeal nerve.
E)damage to any of these nerves might cause swallowing problems.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Neural pathways for voluntary and involuntary responses to stimuli are similar, but not identical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of involuntary reflex responses?
A)They require the stimulation of specific receptors.
B)They occur more slowly than voluntary responses.
C)They require the transmission of nerve impulses.
D)They do not require input from the cerebral cortex.
E)They involve fewer neurons than voluntary responses.
Q3) Which of the following represents the correct order of components in an involuntary spinal reflex arc?
A)Effector, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, sensory receptor
B)Sensory neuron, interneuron, sensory receptor, motor neuron, effector
C)Sensory receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
D)Interneuron, sensory receptor, sensory neuron, effector, motor neuron
E)Sensory receptor, motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron, effector
Q4) All reflex arcs contain an interneuron.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a bodily function controlled by nerve impulses?
A)Generation of thought processes
B)Muscle contraction
C)Problem solving and other higher mental functions
D)Responses to various stimuli
E)All of these are functions controlled by nerve impulses.
Q2) Which of the following brain waves has the highest frequency?
A)Theta
B)Beta
C)Delta
D)Gamma
E)Alpha
Q3) All 4 types of brain waves can usually be observed in the EEG of a normal adult.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most important ions used in action potentials of neurons are Na and K ions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) Which ventricles are separated by the septum pellucidum?
A)The lateral ventricles and the third ventricle
B)The 2 medial ventricles
C)The third ventricle and the fourth ventricle
D)The fourth ventricle and the fifth ventricle
E)The 2 lateral ventricles
Q2) Which of the following structures separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres of the sheep brain?
A)Central sulcus
B)Coronal fissure
C)Lateral sulcus
D)Longitudinal fissure
E)Transverse fissure
Q3) When looking at the ventral surface of the sheep brain, which of the following structures is the most anterior?
A)Oculomotor nerves
B)Optic chiasma
C)Mammillary body
D)Facial nerves
E)Olfactory bulbs
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Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) General senses are senses that have sensory receptors distributed widely in the skin, joints, muscles, and organs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of Meissner's corpuscles?
A)They are also called tactile corpuscles.
B)They are numerous in the hands, feet, joints, and external genital organs.
C)They are most abundant in the hypodermis.
D)They are stimulated by light touch.
E)All of these are true of Meissner's corpuscles.
Q3) Which type of sensory receptors respond to tissue damage, such as a cut, or a temperature or pressure extreme?
A)Mechanoreceptors
B)Thermoreceptors
C)Chemoreceptors
D)Tactile corpuscles
E)Nociceptors
Q4) All sensory neurons have receptive fields of approximately the same size.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) The supporting cells for olfactory receptor cells are
A)pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells.
B)bipolar neurons.
C)simple columnar epithelial cells.
D)multipolar neurons.
E)simple cuboidal epithelial cells.
Q2) In the absence of olfaction, the sense of gustation is diminished.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the function of the basal cells of the taste buds?
A)They are the taste receptor cells.
B)They transmit sensory impulses from the taste receptor cells to the 3 cranial nerves associated with gustation.
C)They surround and protect the taste buds.
D)They replace damaged taste cells every 7-10 days.
E)They provide physical support to the taste receptor cells.
Q4) Taste receptors for the 5 different categories of taste sensations are evenly distributed on the tongue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) Why is the optic disc sometimes called the blind spot of the eye?
A)There are no rods and cones there.
B)There are no nerve fibers there.
C)There are no blood vessels there.
D)There are rods there, but no cones, so color vision is not possible in that area.
E)There are cones there, but no rods, so black and white vision is not possible in that area.
Q2) The innermost (most anterior)layer of the retina consists of A)rods and cones.
B)bipolar neurons.
C)the pigmented epithelium.
D)nerve fibers of the ganglion cells.
E)amacrine cells.
Q3) The aqueous humor occupies and flows through the anterior and posterior chambers and the pupil.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) Which of the following structures refract(s)light to focus it on to the proper area of the retina?
A)Iris
B)Ciliary body
C)Cornea and lens
D)Pupil
E)Optic disc and ciliary body
Q2) A defect in the curvature of the cornea or lens results in a condition called A)emmetropia.
B)hyperopia.
C)myopia.
D)astigmatism.
E)presbyopia.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of farsightedness?
A)It is caused by the eyeball being too long.
B)It is also called hyperopia.
C)When a person is farsighted, distant objects are clear, but close objects look blurry.
D)A convex lens is used to correct farsightedness.
E)All of these are true of farsightedness.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) The inner ear contains the organs for both hearing and equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the Rinne test, when the sound of the tuning fork can no longer be heard through bone conduction, normal hearing is indicated if the sound can once again be heard through air conduction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a chamber found in the cochlea?
A)Scala tympani
B)Vestibule
C)Cochlear duct
D)Scala vestibuli
E)All of these are chambers found in the cochlea.
Q4) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the bony labyrinth?
A)Cochlea
B)Tympanic membrane
C)Vestibule
D)Semicircular canals
E)All of these structures are part of the bony labyrinth.
40
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the sense of static equilibrium?
A)It helps to keep the head in balance when a person is not moving.
B)It is also called gravitational equilibrium.
C)The sense organs are found within the vestibule.
D)It helps a person maintain balance during angular acceleration.
E)All of these are true of the sense of static equilibrium.
Q2) In the vision and equilibrium test, it can be demonstrated that vision has very little to do with the sense of equilibrium, since unsteadiness does not increase when the eyes are closed while balancing on one foot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of otoliths?
A)They cause the stereocilia to bend, which is the stimulus for sending nerve impulses to the cerebrum.
B)They consist of magnesium chloride.
C)They add weight to the otolithic membrane as the head is tilted, which causes it to sag.
D)They are embedded in the gelatinous portion of the otolithic membrane.
E)All of these are true of otoliths.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following hormones causes water retention by the kidneys in times of dehydration?
A)Glucagon
B)ADH
C)Somatostatin
D)PTH
E)Adrenal androgens
Q2) What is a paracrine secretion?
A)A secretion that is released into the interstitial fluid and transported by the blood
B)A secretion that affects the cell that secreted it
C)A secretion that is released onto an internal body surface
D)A secretion that is released onto the skin
E)A secretion that affects neighboring cells
Q3) A major difference between endocrine and exocrine glands is that endocrine glands are ductless.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A)Insulin administration
B)Control of body weight
C)Avoidance of insulin-triggering foods
D)Exercise
E)All of these are treatments for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Q2) What is the function of pancreatic polypeptide?
A)To promote somatostatin secretion
B)To increase the blood glucose level
C)To inhibit secretion of insulin and glucagon
D)To decrease the blood glucose level
E)To inhibit somatostatin and digestive enzyme secretion
Q3) Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the pancreas?
A)Glucagon
B)Pancreatic polypeptide
C)Insulin
D)Somatostatin
E)All of these hormones are secreted by the pancreas.
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43
Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) If your differential white blood cell count contained 60% neutrophils, what could you conclude?
A)That you have an excess of neutrophils
B)That you might have a fungal infection
C)That you have a deficiency of neutrophils
D)That you might have an autoimmune disease
E)That you have a normal percentage of neutrophils
Q2) Which of the following cells and fragments in the blood lack a nucleus, and therefore, cannot reproduce?
A)Platelets only
B)Red blood cells and platelets
C)All types of white blood cells
D)Red blood cells only
E)Lymphocytes and monocytes
Q3) Besides bacterial infections, stress can be a cause of elevated neutrophils in the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) The primary determinating factor for total blood cholesterol level is A)heredity.
B)obesity.
C)lack of exercise.
D)a high cholesterol diet.
E)All of these factors contribute equally to the total blood cholesterol level.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of cholesterol?
A)For the best health, it is recommended that the LDL and HDL levels in the blood should be as low as possible.
B)A cholesterol level of greater than 200 mg/dl is associated with an increase in the likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease.
C)LDLs are molecules that transport cholesterol to the tissues for use by the cells.
D)HDLs are molecules that are transported to the liver for decomposition and removal from the body.
E)All of these are true of cholesterol.
Q3) On the average, males have a slightly higher hematocrit than females.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) What would happen if a transfusion recipient with type A- blood was given type A+ donor blood? (Assume the recipient had never been exposed to the Rh factor.)
A)The recipient would begin to produce anti-Rh antibodies in a few days, which would agglutinate the donor's red blood cells.
B)There would be an immediate transfusion reaction, and the recipient would become very ill or even die.
C)Due to the influx of Rh antigens, the recipient's blood type would change from A- to A+.
D)The recipient's red blood cells would be agglutinated by the donor's anti-A antibodies. E)There would be no effect on the recipient; this is a compatible transfusion.
Q2) There are many different antigens found on red blood cell membranes, but only antigens A and B, and the Rh antigens are likely to cause agglutination reactions when transplanted into a person that lacks them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) When dissecting the sheep heart, it can be seen that the wall thickness of the pulmonary trunk and aorta is much greater than that of the superior and inferior venae cavae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the coronary sinus?
A)It empties blood into the left atrium of the heart.
B)It drains the oxygen-poor blood from the cardiac veins, and returns it to the heart.
C)It runs through the fat pad of the coronary sulcus.
D)It is located on the posterior surface of the heart.
E)All of these are true of the coronary sinus.
Q3) The great cardiac vein runs through the same sulcus as the anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The large arteries associated with the heart all transport oxygen-rich blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) The first and second heart sounds are derived from the opening of the heart valves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sounds associated with the mitral valve can best be heard by listening with a stethoscope in the
A)second intercostal space, to the right of the sternum.
B)fifth intercostal space, just to the right of the sternum.
C)directly over the middle of the sternum.
D)second intercostal space, to the left of the sternum.
E)fifth intercostal space, to the left of the sternum, along the nipple line.
Q3) The lead arrangement known as Einthoven's triangle, which is used to record an ECG, involves placing recording electrodes on
A)both wrists and the left ankle.
B)both ankles and the right wrist.
C)both ankles and the left wrist.
D)the left and right shoulders and the navel.
E)both wrists and the right ankle.
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The results of the ECG with various leads (arrangements of positive and negative electrodes)are identical, so it does not matter which lead is used.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the components of the cardiac conduction system briefly delays the signal from the pacemaker, so that the atria have time to fill the ventricles with blood, before the ventricles begin to contract?
A)AV bundle
B)SA node
C)Purkinje fibers
D)Left and right bundle branches
E)AV node
Q3) Which portion(s)of the cardiac conduction system is/are found in the right atrium of the heart?
A)SA node and AV node
B)AV bundle and the bundle branches
C)Purkinje fibers
D)AV bundle
E)SA node
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) All of the following are veins of the upper limb and shoulder except the A)azygos vein.
B)basilic vein.
C)axillary vein.
D)cephalic vein.
E)median cubital vein.
Q2) Which of the following arteries connects the popliteal artery to the dorsalis pedis artery?
A)Femoral artery
B)Posterior tibial artery
C)Patellar artery
D)Crural artery
E)Anterior tibial artery
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the tunica interna?
A)It contains an epithelial layer of stratified squamous epithelium.
B)It is the innermost layer of an artery or vein.
C)It provides a smooth lining adjacent to the lumen of the blood vessel.
D)It contains a basement membrane in both arteries and veins.
E)All of these are true of the tunica interna.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) In order to be palpated to obtain the pulse, an artery must be
A)at least 1/2 inch in diameter.
B)close to the heart.
C)above the knee.
D)superficial and above the knee.
E)superficial, with firm tissue beneath it.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the effects of various factors on blood pressure?
A)An increase in cardiac output increases blood pressure.
B)An increase in peripheral resistance decreases blood pressure.
C)An increase in blood volume increases blood pressure.
D)An increase in vasoconstriction of blood vessels increases blood pressure.
E)All of these are true of the effects of various factors on the blood pressure.
Q3) When a person suddenly moves from a supine position to a standing position, the blood pressure increases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) Which lymphatic trunks merge to form the cisterna chyli?
A)Subclavian and bronchomediastinal
B)Lumbar and intestinal
C)Inguinal and lumbar
D)Intestinal and subclavian
E)Intestinal and pelvic
Q2) The largest vessels of the lymphatic system are the
A)lymphatic collecting vessels.
B)lymph nodes.
C)collecting ducts.
D)lymphatic capillaries.
E)lymphatic trunks.
Q3) Which of the following is/are not considered to be (an)organ(s)of the lymphatic system?
A)Spleen
B)Thymus
C)Lymph nodes
D)Tonsils
E)All of these are considered to be organs of the lymphatic system.
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) The lungs are symmetric, with each lung consisting of three lobes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following portions of the pharynx is a passage for air only (not food)?
A)Oropharynx
B)Sinopharynx
C)Nasopharynx
D)Laryngopharynx
E)None of the portions of the pharynx is a passageway for only air; all portions transport both air and food.
Q3) The narrow air passages through the nasal cavity are called
A)nasal meatuses.
B)external nares.
C)nasal conchae.
D)paranasal sinuses.
E)nasal septa.
Q4) Blood vessels, nerves and a main bronchus all enter each lung at the hilum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) Respiratory capacities are the sums or two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Boyle's law states that
A)the thinner the respiratory membrane, the faster diffusion will occur.
B)the pressure of a gas is proportional to its volume.
C)the higher the temperature of a gas, the greater its volume will be.
D)the higher the temperature of a gas, the higher its pressure will be.
E)the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume.
Q3) Which of the following is not a muscle of forced expiration?
A)Interosseous portion of the internal intercostals
B)Rectus abdominis
C)Pectoralis minor
D)External oblique
E)All of these are muscles of forced expiration.
Q4) Normal, quiet expiration does not require any muscle contraction; it is entirely a result of muscle relaxation and elastic recoil.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) If you exhaled normally into the environment, and then blew all of the air that you could into a balloon, the volume of air in the balloon would represent the A)functional residual capacity (FRC).
B)expiratory capacity (EC).
C)inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
D)vital capacity (VC).
E)expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
Q2) In the experimental analysis, the difference in amplitude between the peak of a normal inspiration and the peak of the maximal inspiration would represent the
A)inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
B)tidal volume (TV).
C)inspiratory capacity (IC).
D)expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
E)functional residual capacity (FRC).
Q3) Inspiratory capacity (IC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) Which of the following is not detected by the peripheral chemoreceptors?
A)An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood
B)A decrease in the level of oxygen in the blood
C)An increase in the level of hydrogen ions in the blood
D)An increase in the level of sodium ions in the blood
E)The peripheral chemoreceptors detect all of these changes.
Q2) What type(s)of muscle tissue make(s)up the muscles of inspiration and expiration?
A)Both consist of skeletal muscle.
B)Inspiratory muscles consist of skeletal muscle, and expiratory muscles consist of smooth muscle.
C)Inspiratory muscles consist of smooth muscle, and expiratory muscles consist of skeletal muscle.
D)Both consist of smooth muscle.
E)Inspiratory muscles consist of skeletal muscle, and expiratory muscles consist of cardiac muscle.
Q3) During normal, quiet breathing, inspirations last longer than expirations.
A)True
B)False
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56
Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of mesenteries?
A)They are folds of the peritoneal membrane.
B)They are not present in the large intestine.
C)They suspend abdominal viscera from the abdominal walls.
D)They contain blood vessels that supply blood to the loops of the small intestine.
E)All of these are true of mesenteries.
Q2) What is the function of the uvula?
A)To prevent food from entering the larynx and trachea during swallowing
B)To separate the hard palate from the soft palate
C)To prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing
D)To prevent infection from entering the lungs
E)To connect the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity
Q3) Which of the following are the minor lobes of the liver?
A)Right and left lobes
B)Quadrate and caudate lobes
C)Left and caudate lobes
D)Right and quadrate lobes
E)Left and quadrate lobes
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) In the amylase activity experiment, the development of a blue-black color upon the addition of iodine-potassium-iodide to the test tube indicates that
A)the starch has been broken down.
B)the starch has been denatured.
C)amylase is functioning at its optimum temperature.
D)the starch has not been broken down.
E)glucose is present in the test tube.
Q2) Denaturation does not alter the primary structure of an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction, it is consumed in the process, so it cannot be used repeatedly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Temperatures much higher than the optimum temperature denature enzymes, but colder temperatures do not.
A)True
B)False
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58
Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) The majority of energy expended by the body is heat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Oxygen consumption is normally directly proportional to metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of heat production and body temperature regulation in a person?
A)The higher the surface area to volume ratio in a person, the less heat escapes into the environment.
B)The greater the number of cells that a person has, the more heat is produced by the person.
C)Most heat loss occurs through the skin surface.
D)People and other warm-blooded animals must have proper methods of heat production and heat loss to keep their body temperature at its homeostatic level.
E)All of these are true of heat production and body temperature regulation in warm-blooded animals.
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) As blood flows through the kidney, the cortical radiate arteries branch directly into the afferent arterioles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the urethra?
A)It is about the same length in males and females.
B)It contains two sphincters, one composed of smooth muscle, and the other composed of skeletal muscle.
C)The type of epithelium found in the mucous coat changes between the base of the urinary bladder and the external urethral orifice.
D)It contains urethral glands, which secrete protective mucus into the lumen of the urethra.
E)All of these are true of the urethra.
Q3) What is the first process of urine formation?
A)Micturition
B)Tubular secretion
C)Active transport
D)Tubular reabsorption
E)Glomerular filtration
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the processes of urine formation?
A)Micturition
B)Tubular secretion
C)Glomerular filtration
D)Tubular reabsorption
E)All of these are processes of urine formation.
Q2) Which of the following factors does not affect the daily urine volume?
A)The environmental temperature
B)The respiratory rate
C)The relative humidity
D)The body temperature
E)All of these factors affect the daily urine volume.
Q3) A high protein diet may make the pH of a person's urine more basic (alkaline).
A)True
B)False
Q4) An abnormal color of the urine can be caused by eating certain foods, such as beets or carrots; when this occurs, it is nonpathological.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of testosterone?
A)It is a major male sex hormone.
B)It has a significant effect on sex drive.
C)It is produced by the sustentacular cells in the seminiferous tubules.
D)It is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
E)All of these are true of testosterone.
Q2) The two ejaculatory ducts empty into the urethra within the A)corpus spongiosum.
B)seminal vesicles.
C)bulbourethral glands.
D)spermatic cord.
E)prostate gland.
Q3) The ejaculatory duct forms from the merging of the ________ and the ________. A)bulbourethral gland; urethra
B)ductus deferens; seminal vesicle
C)ductus deferens; bulbourethral gland
D)epididymis; ductus deferens
E)prostate gland; urethra
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which organ of the female reproductive system is similar in structure to the penis?
A)Vestibule
B)Areola
C)Fimbraie
D)Clitoris
E)Hymen
Q2) On a microscopic slide of the ovarian cortex, we are likely to see follicles in different stages of development (primordial follicles, primary follicles, secondary follicles, and mature follicles).
A)True
B)False
Q3) The openings of the urethra and vagina are enclosed in a space called the A)labia minora.
B)ampulla.
C)vestibule.
D)fundus.
E)fornix.
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Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Q1) What is the fate of the trophoblast of the blastocyst?
A)It develops into the morula.
B)It develops into the embryo.
C)It develops into the zygote.
D)It develops into the inner cell mass.
E)It develops into the extraembryonic membranes and part of the placenta.
Q2) Which of the following primary germ layers develops into the linings of the digestive, respiratory, and urinary organs?
A)Periderm
B)Endoderm
C)Mesoderm
D)Exoderm
E)Ectoderm
Q3) During ovulation, which of the following structures is not expelled from the ovary?
A)All of the granulosa cells in the follicle
B)The secondary oocyte
C)The corona radiata
D)The zona pellucida
E)All of these are expelled from the ovary during ovulation.
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Page 64
Chapter 63: Genetics
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Q1) What do the traits of tongue roller, freckles, and dimples have in common?
A)They all have multiple alleles.
B)They are all recessive traits.
C)They are all inherited by codominance.
D)They are all dominant traits.
E)They are all inherited by incomplete dominance.
Q2) What blood types could the children have, if their mother was type A (I i)and their father was type B (I i)?
A)A or B
B)O
C)A, B, AB, or O
D)AB or O
E)A, B, or AB
Q3) Inheritance of the ABO blood group is an example of
A)complete dominance only.
B)incomplete dominance only.
C)sex-linked inheritance only.
D)incomplete dominance and sex-linked inheritance.
E)codominance and multiple alleles.
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