Human Anatomy and Physiology II Exam Practice Tests
Course
Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology II is a continuation of the foundational study of the human body, building upon concepts introduced in the first semester. This course focuses on the structure and function of organ systems such as the cardiovascular, lymphatic, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will explore the integration and regulation of these systems, emphasizing homeostasis, and will gain a deeper understanding of physiological processes at cellular, tissue, and systemic levels. Laboratory experiences complement the lecture material, allowing students to apply theoretical knowledge through dissections, experiments, and hands-on activities, preparing them for advanced study in health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry R. Martin
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Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final step in the scientific method is data analysis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) In the metric system, a gram (g)is a unit of mass.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Which component of the scientific method involves organizing results as tables, graphs, or drawings?
A)Conclusions
B)Observations
C)Data analysis
D)Experiment
E)Theory
Answer: C
Q4) The first step of the scientific method is making observations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person in anatomical position is standing up straight, facing forward, with arms at the sides, and palms facing backward.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A ________ plane (section)divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
A)sagittal
B)transverse
C)horizontal
D)coronal
E)paramedian
Answer: D
Q3) The anatomical term for the shoulder is the ________ region.
A)acromial
B)sternal
C)mental
D)buccal
E)pectoral
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about the cabbage water tests, except
A)red cabbage contains a pigment that functions as a colorimetric pH indicator.
B)distilled water is used in this experiment as an example of a neutral substance.
C)vinegar is added to one of the test tubes as an example of an acidic substance.
D)baking soda is used in this experiment as an example of a basic substance.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are all classified as organic molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A solution that has a high concentration of hydroxide (OH-)ions
A)has a low pH.
B)has a high concentration of hydrogen (H+)ions too.
C)is a basic (alkaline)solution.
D)is a neutral solution.
E)is an acidic solution.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greatest magnification on the compound light microscope can be achieved by using the high power objective lens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is it important to use only the fine adjustment knob when using the high-power or oil immersion lenses?
A)Using the coarse adjustment knob might crack the coverslip or slide, due to the close working distance.
B)You will not be able to focus on the specimen with the coarse adjustment knob.
C)There will not be enough light on the specimen to see it, if the coarse adjustment knob is used.
D)The condenser does not function when using the coarse adjustment knob.
E)The iris diaphragm does not function when using the coarse adjustment knob.
Q3) What is the typical magnification provided by the eyepiece (ocular)lens system?
A)100x
B)10x
C)4x
D)1,000x
E)0x (the eyepiece lens system does not provide any magnification)
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference in function between the smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?
A)The rough ER produces ATP, while the smooth ER does not.
B)The rough ER helps with cellular movements, while the smooth ER does not.
C)The rough ER conducts lipid synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts protein synthesis.
D)The rough ER breaks down lipids, while the smooth ER breaks down proteins and debris.
E)The rough ER conducts protein synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts lipid synthesis.
Q2) The rough endoplasmic reticulum is a group of flattened sacs that packages glycoproteins to be transported around the cell or excreted.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The nuclear envelope is a double-layered membrane, like the plasma membrane. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the lab experiment on filtration, iodine potassium iodide (IKI)is used to test for the presence of glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When conducting the eggshell membrane experiment, what is vinegar used for?
A)To remove the shell
B)To turn the albumin white
C)To solidify the yolk
D)To make the shell turn a pinkish color
E)To separate the egg shell from the rest of the egg
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true of diffusion?
A)It is considered to be a type of passive transport.
B)It moves substances from higher to lower concentration.
C)It occurs due to random molecular motion.
D)It requires the energy of ATP.
E)It is a type of physical transport process.
Q4) In the molasses experiment, after 30 minutes, the molasses level in the stem of the thistle tube had gone up.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of the cell cycle do the chromosomes line up along the midline of the cell, and become attached to the spindle fibers?
A)Telophase
B)Prophase
C)Anaphase
D)Interphase
E)Metaphase
Q2) A cell that enters the G phase will die within hours.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major phases of the cell cycle are
A)prophase and metaphase.
B)anaphase and telophase.
C)interphase and mitosis.
D)telophase and interphase.
E)mitosis and cytokinesis.
Q4) A karyotype shows the gender of an individual, as well as many genetic abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the keratinized form of stratified squamous epithelium found in the body?
A)The lining of the esophagus
B)The lining of the oral cavity
C)The epidermis of the skin
D)The anal canal
E)The vagina
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of epithelial tissues, except
A)they are well-supplied with blood vessels.
B)the cells are densely packed, with little space between them.
C)they all contain a basement membrane on their underside.
D)they can be composed of a single layer or multiple layers of cells.
E)their apical surface faces the outside or an internal body surface.
Q3) All of the following are major types of tissues, except A)muscle
B)connective
C)epithelial
D)bone
E)nervous
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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of connective tissue is avascular (contains no blood vessels)?
A)Bone
B)Reticular connective tissue
C)Adipose tissue
D)Cartilage
E)Areolar connective tissue
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of blood?
A)It helps to defend the body against disease.
B)It is identical to lymph.
C)It is a liquid connective tissue.
D)It transports substances that conduct clotting.
E)All of these are true of blood.
Q3) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of fibers and a ground substance.
A)True B)False
Q4) Spongy bone makes up the majority of bone shafts in long bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) When observing micrographs of muscle tissue, the most prominent striations can be seen in cardiac muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type(s)of muscle tissue is/are striated?
A)Skeletal only
B)Smooth only
C)Skeletal and cardiac
D)Skeletal and smooth
E)Cardiac only
Q3) Muscle cells are also called muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neuroglia are the supporting cells for neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Nerve cells are also called neuroglia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reticular region of the dermis consists of ________ tissue.
A)areolar connective
B)dense regular connective
C)dense irregular connective
D)adipose
E)stratified squamous epithelial
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a type of skin (cutaneous)gland?
A)Apocrine sweat glands
B)Sebaceous glands
C)Mammary glands
D)Ceruminous glands
E)All of these are considered to be a type of skin (cutaneous)gland.
Q3) Which of the following types of glands secretes an oily substance into the hair follicles, to keep the hair and skin surface lubricated and water-resistant?
A)Apocrine sweat glands
B)Eccrine sweat glands
C)Sudoriferous glands
D)Sebaceous glands
E)Ceruminous glands
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13
Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the cartilage of the adult skeleton?
A)Intervertebral discs lie between adjacent vertebrae, and provide shock absorption for the vertebrae.
B)Costal cartilages connect the ribs to the sternum.
C)Articular cartilage is found on the ends of bones in joints, and reduces friction between joint-forming surfaces of the bones.
D)Costal cartilage, articular cartilage, and intervertebral discs are all composed of fibrocartilage.
E)All of these are true of the cartilage of the adult skeleton.
Q2) Osteons are only found in compact bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following contain red bone marrow in the adult skeleton?
A)The proximal epiphyses of the femurs
B)The radius and ulna
C)The tibia and fibula
D)The phalanges of the hands and feet
E)None of these structures contain red bone marrow in the adult skeleton.
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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bone markings is in the category of openings?
A)Notch
B)Foramen
C)Ramus
D)Facet
E)Fovea
Q2) The number of carpals in the wrists is equal to the number of tarsals in the ankles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of ossification?
A)Intramembranous ossification involves bone formation from hyaline cartilage models.
B)Most bones develop by endochondral ossification.
C)In both intramembranous and endochondral ossification, both spongy and compact bone form.
D)Ossification occurs during fetal growth and childhood.
E)All of these are true of ossification.
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Chapter 14: Skull
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Sample Questions
Q1) The supraorbital foramen is found on the ________, while the infraorbital foramen is found on the ________.
A)maxilla; frontal bone
B)maxilla; mandible
C)zygomatic bone; lacrimal bone
D)frontal bone; maxilla
E)nasal bone; mandible
Q2) The coronoid process, mental foramen, and ramus are all found on the A)maxilla.
B)mandible.
C)ethmoid bone.
D)sphenoid bone.
E)parietal bone.
Q3) Which two skull bones form the zygomatic arch?
A)Maxilla and zygomatic bone
B)Maxilla and mandible
C)Zygomatic and sphenoid bones
D)Temporal and zygomatic bones
E)Occipital and temporal bones
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ vertebrae have the largest vertebral foramina, while the ________ vertebrae have the largest size.
A)cervical; lumbar
B)thoracic; lumbar
C)lumbar; cervical
D)cervical; thoracic
E)thoracic; cervical
Q2) The four vertebrae of the coccyx fuse into 1 bone by the age of about 18.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the curvatures of the vertebral column?
A)The thoracic and sacral curvatures are convex on the anterior side and concave on the posterior side.
B)There are four curvatures of the vertebral column.
C)Primary curvatures are formed by the time of birth.
D)The cervical and lumbar curvatures are secondary curvatures.
E)All of these are true of the curvatures of the vertebral column.
Q4) The thoracic cage and vertebral column are part of the axial skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intertubercular sulcus of the humerus is a passageway for a tendon of the Biceps brachii muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which bone of the pectoral girdle or upper limb is S-shaped?
A)Radius
B)Scapula
C)Ulna
D)Humerus
E)Clavicle
Q3) The humerus articulates with all of the following bones except the A)radius.
B)clavicle.
C)scapula.
D)ulna.
E)all of these bones articulate with the humerus.
Q4) The bones of the pectoral girdle are part of the axial skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Q1) The patellar surface, which articulates with the patella, is found on the tibia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following structures is formed by parts of the ilium, ischium, and pubis?
A)Obturator foramen
B)Acetabulum
C)Pubic arch
D)Greater sciatic notch
E)Iliac fossa
Q3) The distal attachment site for the patellar tendon is the A)greater trochanter.
B)tibial tuberosity.
C)ischial spine.
D)medial malleolus.
E)medial condyle.
Q4) The femur is the longest and strongest bone of the entire skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most bones of the skeleton develop by endochondral ossification.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sphenoidal fontanel lies ________ to the mastoid fontanel.
A)posterior
B)medial
C)caudal
D)anterior
E)inferior
Q3) The largest fontanel is the ________ fontanel.
A)sphenoidal
B)mastoid
C)ethmoid
D)anterior
E)posterior
Q4) Intramembranous bones develop by replacement of a hyaline cartilage model with bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Q1) Which type of synovial joint is multiaxial?
A)Plane
B)Condylar
C)Saddle
D)Pivot
E)Ball-and-socket
Q2) Medial and lateral excursion are special joint movements that involve the mandible.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of joint movements?
A)Most joints are flexed and abducted when the body is in anatomical position.
B)When a skeletal muscle contracts to move a joint, the insertion is pulled toward the origin.
C)In the upper and lower limbs, the origin is typically proximal to the insertion.
D)The more moveable end of a skeletal muscle is called its insertion.
E)All of these are true of joint movements.
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21
Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Q1) A sheet of connective tissue, which connects muscles (or parts of muscles)to other muscles (or their parts), is called a(n)
A)tendon.
B)aponeurosis.
C)fascia.
D)fascicle.
E)sarcolemma.
Q2) What is the role of tropomyosin in a sarcomere?
A)It is the main protein component of thin myofilaments.
B)It blocks the active sites on actin filaments in relaxed muscle fibers.
C)It is the main component of elastic filaments.
D)It is the main protein component in thick myofilaments.
E)It binds to calcium to initiate muscle contraction.
Q3) A skeletal muscle is considered to be an organ of the muscular system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The origin of a skeletal muscle is the attachment site at the less moveable/more stationary end.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) A twitch is the response of an entire skeletal muscle to stimulation by motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the EMG experiment, the hand dynamometer was used to illustrate
A)motor unit recruitment only.
B)smooth muscle contraction.
C)muscle fatigue only.
D)cardiac muscle contraction.
E)motor unit recruitment and muscle fatigue.
Q3) In a motor unit of a skeletal muscle, each muscle fiber is innervated by several motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the EMG experiment, when was tonus observed?
A)During the weakest clench
B)During the period of decreasing tension in the muscle fatigue experiment
C)During the strongest clench
D)In the periods between clenches
E)Tonus was not observed in the EMG experiment.
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Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Q1) The muscles of mastication are all inserted on the maxilla.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following facial muscles stretches from the lower portion of the mandible to the fascia of the upper chest, and pulls the angle of the mouth downward during pouting or expression of horror?
A)Orbicularis oculi
B)Platysma
C)Buccinator
D)Orbicularis oris
E)Levator anguli oris
Q3) Which of the following facial muscles raise(s)the corners of the mouth for smiling and laughing?
A)Buccinator
B)Mentalis and platysma
C)Depressor anguli oris
D)Orbicularis oris
E)Zygomaticus major and minor
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24
Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Q1) Due to its name and position in the forearm (posterior medial side of the forearm), the actions of the extensor carpi ulnaris are most likely to
A)flex the wrist and abduct the thumb.
B)flex the wrist and adduct the hand.
C)flex the wrist and abduct the hand.
D)extend the wrist and abduct the hand.
E)extend the wrist and adduct the hand.
Q2) The correct anatomical description of the arm is the region from the
A)shoulder to the elbow.
B)elbow to the wrist.
C)elbow to the fingers.
D)shoulder to the fingers.
E)shoulder to the wrist.
Q3) Which respiratory muscle(s)function(s)only during forced expiration?
A)Diaphragm
B)External intercostals
C)Pectoralis major
D)Pectoralis minor
E)Internal intercostals
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Muscles of the Vertebral Column, Abdominal
Wall, and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Which of the following muscles of the vertebral column are unique, in that they originate on the iliac crest?
A)Iliocostalis group
B)Semispinalis group
C)Semispinalis thoracis
D)Longissimus group
E)Quadratus lumborum
Q2) Which muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?
A)Bulbospongiosus and Ischiocavernosus
B)Levator ani and coccygeus
C)Levator ani and ischiocavernosus
D)Coccygeus and bulbospongiosus
E)Superficial transverse perineal muscle and bulbospongiosus
Q3) Which of the abdominal wall muscles help(s)flex the vertebral column?
A)Rectus abdominis
B)Internal oblique
C)Transversus abdominis
D)External oblique
E)All of these abdominal wall muscles help flex the vertebral column.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Q1) What is the correct anatomical description of the leg?
A)Knee to ankle
B)Ankle to toes
C)Hip to knee
D)Hip to ankle
E)Sacrum to knee
Q2) Some of the muscles of the hip and lower limb cross more than one joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Muscles that move the thigh at the hip joint have insertions on the A)pelvis.
B)patella.
C)tibia and fibula.
D)sacrum and coccyx.
E)femur.
Q4) The gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus muscles all have the same action (extension of the thigh at the hip).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an anterior surface feature?
A)Tibial tuberosity
B)Xiphoid process
C)Pectoralis major
D)Thenar eminence
E)All of these are anterior surface features.
Q2) All of the following are soft tissue features of the upper limb except the A)cubital fossa.
B)thenar eminence.
C)olecranon process.
D)biceps brachii.
E)All of these are soft tissue features of the upper limb.
Q3) All of the following features could be palpated in the posterior head and neck region except the A)hyoid bone.
B)vertebra prominens.
C)trapezius.
D)occipital ridge.
E)mastoid process.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) A nerve is the same structure as a neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sensory neurons are
A)always multipolar.
B)mostly unipolar, but some are bipolar.
C)always unipolar.
D)mostly multipolar, but some are bipolar.
E)always bipolar.
Q3) All structural types of neurons contain only one axon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is true of interneurons?
A)They are only found in the peripheral nervous system.
B)They are also called efferent neurons.
C)They often connect sensory neurons to motor neurons.
D)They are directly connected to sensory receptors.
E)None of the choices is true of interneurons.
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Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) The anterior ramus of each spinal nerve sends out communicating rami that connect to
A)the brain.
B)the meninges.
C)a sympathetic trunk ganglion.
D)the vertebrae.
E)the skin and muscles of the back.
Q2) Spinal nerves are called mixed nerves because they contain both sensory and motor nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The meninges surround and protect the entire CNS and PNS.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following nerves is part of the cervical plexus?
A)Musculocutaneous nerve
B)Median nerve
C)Femoral nerve
D)Phrenic nerve
E)Pudendal nerve
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) The stretch reflex tests that you demonstrated in this lab require input from the brain in order to work properly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the role of an inhibitory interneuron in a stretch reflex?
A)It is used to inhibit the antagonistic muscles from contracting at the same time as the effectors of the reflex.
B)It is used to ensure that the effectors do not contract excessively.
C)It sends inhibitory commands to the opposite limb, so it will not respond.
D)It ensures that the reflex does not damage the effectors.
E)Inhibitory interneurons are not involved in stretch reflexes.
Q3) Which portion of a reflex arc is the only portion that is found entirely within the CNS?
A)The motor neuron
B)The integration center
C)The receptor
D)The effector
E)The sensory neuron
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Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) A shallow groove on the surface of the brain is called a A)fissure.
B)canal.
C)gyrus.
D)aperture.
E)sulcus.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the cranial meninges?
A)The pia mater is attached to the outer surface of the brain.
B)The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meninges.
C)The dura mater is a single layer around the brain, just as it is around the spinal cord.
D)The subarachnoid space contains cerebrospinal fluid.
E)All of these are true of the cranial meninges.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of the diencephalon?
A)Hypothalamus
B)Thalamus
C)Midbrain
D)Pineal gland
E)All of these are parts of the diencephalon.
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Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The reaction time experiment is an example of a voluntary reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of involuntary reflex responses?
A)They require the stimulation of specific receptors.
B)They occur more slowly than voluntary responses.
C)They require the transmission of nerve impulses.
D)They do not require input from the cerebral cortex.
E)They involve fewer neurons than voluntary responses.
Q3) Which of the following represents the correct order of components in an involuntary spinal reflex arc?
A)Effector, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, sensory receptor
B)Sensory neuron, interneuron, sensory receptor, motor neuron, effector
C)Sensory receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
D)Interneuron, sensory receptor, sensory neuron, effector, motor neuron
E)Sensory receptor, motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron, effector
Q4) All reflex arcs contain an interneuron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the bipolar method of recording the EEG?
A)The 2 main electrodes are placed on opposite sides of the head.
B)The electrical potential difference is measured between the 2 main recording electrodes.
C)The ground electrode is used as a reference point for the body's baseline voltage.
D)The 2 main recording electrodes detect the movement of ions in the extracellular fluid of the cerebral cortex.
E)All of these are true of the bipolar method of recording the EEG.
Q2) The most important ions used in action potentials of neurons are Na and K ions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type(s)of EEG waves become(s)dominant in sleeping adults, but also in some forms of brain disease?
A)Delta
B)Alpha and beta
C)Beta
D)Theta
E)Delta and theta
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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) In a median section of a sheep brain, the thalamus lies ________ the midbrain.
A)superior
B)lateral
C)anterior
D)inferior
E)posterior
Q2) What is the function of the choroid plexuses?
A)They form a bridge between the cerebral hemispheres.
B)They are responsible for visual reflexes.
C)They are small nerve plexuses in the brain.
D)They produce cerebrospinal fluid.
E)They are responsible for auditory reflexes.
Q3) Which ventricles are separated by the septum pellucidum?
A)The lateral ventricles and the third ventricle
B)The 2 medial ventricles
C)The third ventricle and the fourth ventricle
D)The fourth ventricle and the fifth ventricle
E)The 2 lateral ventricles
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Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) An environmental temperature of 85°F would stimulate a ________, and a temperature of 180°F would stimulate a ________.
A)nociceptor; nociceptor
B)warm receptor; warm receptor
C)thermoreceptor; mechanoreceptor
D)warm receptor; nociceptor
E)mechanoreceptor; thermoreceptor
Q2) A special sense is one that has A)no receptors.
B)receptors that are confined to the head.
C)receptors that respond to several types of stimuli.
D)receptors only found in humans.
E)unencapsulated receptors.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of sensory adaptation?
A)Thermoreceptors commonly undergo sensory adaptation.
B)It involves a fading of sensation upon continuous receptor stimulation.
C)It occurs when a person adjusts to a strong smell in the environment.
D)It commonly occurs in pain receptors.
E)All of these are true of sensory adaptation.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) Umami taste receptors are sensitive to A)sodium or potassium salts.
B)sugars.
C)aspartic acid, glutamic acid, and MSG.
D)acids.
E)alkaloids and spoiled foods.
Q2) Olfactory receptors cells send their action potentials through openings in the ethmoid bone, and synapse with neurons in the A)olfactory cortex.
B)olfactory foramina.
C)cribriform plate.
D)thalamus.
E)olfactory bulbs.
Q3) The supporting cells for olfactory receptor cells are
A)pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells.
B)bipolar neurons.
C)simple columnar epithelial cells.
D)multipolar neurons.
E)simple cuboidal epithelial cells.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) The anterior cavity of the eyeball is much smaller than the posterior cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of cones?
A)They provide for color vision.
B)Only cones are found in the fovea centralis.
C)Cones are much more numerous than rods in the peripheral portions of the retina.
D)Cones are responsible for sharp vision.
E)All of these are true of cones.
Q3) Which structure of the cow (or sheep)eye is not present in humans, and helps to reflect light back through the retina, to provide good night vision?
A)Tarsal gland
B)Trochlea
C)Blind spot
D)Tapetum fibrosum
E)Ora serrata
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Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of accommodation?
A)It refers to a change in the shape of the lens, as a person focuses on a near object.
B)When a person focuses on a close object, the lens becomes more spherical.
C)When accommodation occurs, tension is released on the suspensory ligaments holding the lens.
D)It is accomplished by a reflex in the iris.
E)All of these are true of accommodation.
Q2) A person with better than normal visual acuity may have a vision of
A)20/50
B)20/10
C)20/20
D)20/200
E)20/100
Q3) When a person focuses on a close object, the pupil constricts along with the normal accommodation reflex.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) The membranous labyrinth is the only portion of the inner ear that contains endolymph.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which chamber of the inner ear receives sound waves directly from the oval window?
A)Cochlear duct
B)Scala media
C)Scala tympani
D)Vestibule
E)Scala vestibuli
Q3) Which membrane separates the cochlear duct from the scala tympani, and provides a surface on which the spiral organ rests?
A)Vestibular membrane
B)Tectorial membrane
C)Cochlear membrane
D)Basilar membrane
E)Tympanic membrane
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the sense of static equilibrium?
A)It helps to keep the head in balance when a person is not moving.
B)It is also called gravitational equilibrium.
C)The sense organs are found within the vestibule.
D)It helps a person maintain balance during angular acceleration.
E)All of these are true of the sense of static equilibrium.
Q2) The inner ear houses the organs of both static and dynamic equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vestibular neurons transmit nerve impulses along the vestibulocochlear nerve to all of the following sites except
A)the brainstem.
B)the cerebrum.
C)the thalamus.
D)the cerebellum.
E)All of these sites are destinations for neural information from the vestibular neurons.
Q4) Both the crista ampullaris and the macula contain otoliths.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) All of the following hormones are synthesized by the pituitary gland except A)calcitonin.
B)growth hormone.
C)prolactin.
D)thyroid-stimulating hormone.
E)luteinizing hormone.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of true hormones?
A)Each hormone can only influence target cells that contain receptors for it.
B)They are secreted by both endocrine or exocrine glands.
C)Some hormones influence the rates of chemical reactions in their target cells.
D)Some hormones regulate water and electrolyte balance.
E)All of these are true of true hormones.
Q3) Which of the following endocrine glands is composed of 2 different regions, one consisting of glandular epithelial tissue, and the other consisting of nervous tissue?
A)The pineal gland
B)The thymus gland
C)The parathyroid gland
D)The pituitary gland
E)The thyroid gland
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) The primary source of cellular energy (fuel)is glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the hormone insulin?
A)It causes the synthesis of glycogen from glucose in the liver and skeletal muscles.
B)It causes facilitated diffusion of glucose across the plasma membranes of its target cells.
C)It lowers the blood sugar level.
D)It inhibits protein synthesis and fat storage.
E)All of these are true of the hormone insulin.
Q3) Cells that lack insulin receptors cannot use glucose as an energy source.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A)Insulin administration
B)Control of body weight
C)Avoidance of insulin-triggering foods
D)Exercise
E)All of these are treatments for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
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Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) What is the main function of thrombocytes?
A)Hemostasis
B)Oxygen transport
C)Phagocytosis of bacteria
D)Control of inflammation
E)Dilation of blood vessels
Q2) The smallest type of white blood cell (only slightly larger than a red blood cell)is a
A)basophil.
B)monocyte.
C)eosinophil.
D)lymphocyte.
E)neutrophil.
Q3) In a blood smear, the vast majority of formed elements are
A)white blood cells
B)neutrophils
C)platelets
D)leukocytes
E)red blood cells
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44
Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) All of the following factors could cause decreased hematocrit except A)anemia.
B)smoking or emphysema.
C)kidney disease with a decline in erythropoietin production.
D)a hemorrhage.
E)All of these could cause decreased hematocrit.
Q2) The primary determinating factor for total blood cholesterol level is A)heredity.
B)obesity.
C)lack of exercise.
D)a high cholesterol diet.
E)All of these factors contribute equally to the total blood cholesterol level.
Q3) The binding site for oxygen molecules in red blood cells is the globin portion of the hemoglobin molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) On the average, males have a slightly higher hematocrit than females.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) If an Rh- woman was pregnant with her first Rh+ baby, and she had never been exposed to the Rh antigen, her baby would never be in danger of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus or newborn.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are also called agglutinogens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood typing involves identifying the antibodies in a person's blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A harmful reaction may occur in some cases, even when using the universal donor blood type for a transfusion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Type B blood contains antigen B and anti-B antibodies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the pulmonary circuit?
A)It is much shorter than the systemic circuit.
B)Its arteries transport oxygen-rich blood, just like those of the systemic circuit.
C)It pumps blood from the heart to the lungs, and then back to the heart.
D)Blood is pumped into the pulmonary circuit from the right ventricle.
E)All of these are true of the pulmonary circuit.
Q2) Which of the heart valves contain chordae tendineae?
A)The aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves
B)The tricuspid and mitral valves
C)The aortic and mitral valves
D)The pulmonary and tricuspid valves
E)All of the heart valves
Q3) The large arteries associated with the heart all transport oxygen-rich blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The circumflex artery and the anterior interventricular artery are the main branches of the right coronary artery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following shows the components of the cardiac conduction system in the correct sequence?
A)AV bundle, left and right bundle branches, SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers
B)AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle, left and right bundle branches
C)SA node, AV node, AV bundle, left and right bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
D)Purkinje fibers, left and right bundle branches, AV bundle, SA node, AV node
E)SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle, left and right bundle branches
Q2) The AV bundle and the bundle branches are located in the ________ of the heart.
A)right atrium
B)interventricular septum
C)aorta
D)left atrium
E)interatrial septum
Q3) In the standard leads I, II, and III used in this lab exercise, which location is used as the ground?
A)The left ankle
B)The right wrist
C)The right ankle
D)The left wrist
E)Either wrist or either ankle can be used as the ground.
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the components of the cardiac conduction system briefly delays the signal from the pacemaker, so that the atria have time to fill the ventricles with blood, before the ventricles begin to contract?
A)AV bundle
B)SA node
C)Purkinje fibers
D)Left and right bundle branches
E)AV node
Q2) The largest deflection from the isoelectric line in the ECG is found in the A)P wave.
B)T wave.
C)T-P segment.
D)QRS complex.
E)P-R interval.
Q3) The results of the ECG with various leads (arrangements of positive and negative electrodes)are identical, so it does not matter which lead is used.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) Which of the following arteries connects the popliteal artery to the dorsalis pedis artery?
A)Femoral artery
B)Posterior tibial artery
C)Patellar artery
D)Crural artery
E)Anterior tibial artery
Q2) Which of the following arteries is not a branch of the aortic arch?
A)Left common carotid artery
B)Left subclavian artery
C)Right common carotid artery
D)Brachiocephalic trunk
E)All of these are branches of the aortic arch.
Q3) The pulmonary trunk emerges from the ________ of the heart.
A)left ventricle
B)right atrium
C)apex
D)left atrium
E)right ventricle
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) The thumb should not be used to take the radial pulse, because a person may feel a pulse from an artery in the thumb instead.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the cardiac output in a person with a heart rate of 65 beats/min and a stroke volume of 72 ml/beat?
A)4,680 mL/beat
B)137 mL/min
C)4,680 mL/min
D)1.1 mL/beat
E)4,680 beats/min
Q3) The difference between the maximum arterial pressure and the minimum arterial pressure is called the
A)diastolic pressure.
B)pulse pressure.
C)cardiac pressure.
D)systolic pressure.
E)mean arterial pressure.
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) In the spleen, the white pulp contains ________ and the red pulp contains
A)red blood cells; neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils
B)neutrophils; monocytes
C)mostly macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
D)mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
E)mainly lymphocytes; mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages
Q2) The largest vessels of the lymphatic system are the
A)lymphatic collecting vessels.
B)lymph nodes.
C)collecting ducts.
D)lymphatic capillaries.
E)lymphatic trunks.
Q3) The thymus is responsible for the maturation of B-lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) External respiration is the same as pulmonary ventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lungs are symmetric, with each lung consisting of three lobes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which structure(s)of the respiratory system contain(s)C-rings or plates of hyaline cartilage, to prevent airway collapse?
A)The trachea and bronchi
B)The trachea, bronchi, and all of the bronchioles
C)The bronchi only
D)The nasal cavity
E)The trachea only
Q4) In the bronchial tree, terminal bronchioles branch directly into
A)alveolar sacs.
B)respiratory bronchioles.
C)alveoli.
D)large bronchioles.
E)alveolar ducts.
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) The ________ can be calculated by multiplying breathing rate by tidal volume.
A)alveolar ventilation rate
B)anatomic dead space
C)inspiratory reserve volume
D)minute respiratory volume
E)inspiratory capacity
Q2) All of the following factors would be expected to increase a person's vital capacity except
A)being male instead of female.
B)getting older.
C)being taller.
D)getting regular exercise.
E)being in good general health.
Q3) Which of the following respiratory volumes or capacities include(s)the residual volume (RV)?
A)Total lung capacity (TLC)only
B)Functional residual capacity (FRC)and total lung capacity (TLC)
C)Vital capacity (VC)and total lung capacity (TLC)
D)Vital capacity (VC)only
E)Functional residual capacity (FRC)only
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) A respiratory capacity is the sum of two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Obstructive lung diseases, such as chronic bronchitis, often cause an elevation in the functional residual capacity (FRC)and the residual volume (RV).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Total lung capacity (TLC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not true of the vital capacity (VC)?
A)It can be calculated by adding the inspiratory reserve volume and the expiratory reserve volume.
B)It can be measured on a spirometer by taking a maximal inspiration, and then maximally expiring into the spirometer mouthpiece.
C)Restrictive lung disease, such as pulmonary fibrosis, can cause a decrease in VC.
D)Vital capacity (VC)is a larger volume than functional residual capacity (FRC).
E)All of these are true of the vital capacity.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) What is the result of the inflation reflex?
A)An increase in the duration of inspirations
B)An increase in the duration of expirations
C)A decrease in the duration of inspirations
D)A decrease in the duration of expirations
E)An increase in the duration of inspirations and a decrease in the duration of expirations
Q2) The central chemoreceptors for respiration are located in the ________; they monitor the blood concentration(s)of ________.
A)pons; oxygen
B)medulla oblongata; carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions
C)aortic and carotid arteries; oxygen
D)pons; carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions
E)medulla oblongata; oxygen
Q3) Muscles of inspiration include all of the following except the
A)external obliques.
B)pectoralis minor.
C)scalenes.
D)external intercostals.
E)All of these are muscles of inspiration.
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Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) The enzyme produced by the salivary glands is ________; it breaks down
A)amylase; starch
B)lipase; lipids
C)pepsin; proteins
D)amylase; lipids
E)pepsin; starch
Q2) What is the function of the uvula?
A)To prevent food from entering the larynx and trachea during swallowing
B)To separate the hard palate from the soft palate
C)To prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing
D)To prevent infection from entering the lungs
E)To connect the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity
Q3) Bile is produced by the liver and gallbladder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The stomach absorbs a significant amount of digested food.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Pancreatic amylase has the same action as salivary amylase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Enzymes can be proteins, lipids, or carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Denaturation does not alter the primary structure of an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Temperatures much higher than the optimum temperature denature enzymes, but colder temperatures do not.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not true of enzymes?
A)They are considered to be biological catalysts.
B)Enzymes are relatively non-specific, and able to catalyze several chemical reactions in the body.
C)Enzyme activity is temperature-dependent.
D)Denaturation destroys the ability of an enzyme to function.
E)All of these are true of enzymes.
58
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Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) In the catabolic pathways of dietary nutrients, which step(s)produce(s)no ATP?
A)Krebs cycle
B)Oxidative phosphorylation
C)Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)Glycolysis
E)ATP is produced in all of the steps in the catabolic pathways of dietary nutrients.
Q2) A direct calorimeter measures heat produced in units of A)kcal/L of oxygen.
B)kcal/g of body weight.
C)kcal/min.
D)kcal/L of carbon dioxide.
E)kcal/body weight/hour.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the conditions used to measure basal metabolic rate?
A)The person is awake and relaxed.
B)The person has not exercised for at least an hour.
C)The person is in a brightly lit room with a cool temperature.
D)The person has not eaten for 12-14 hours.
E)All of these are true of the conditions used to measure basal metabolic rate.
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the urinary bladder?
A)The detrusor muscle makes up the muscular coat of the urinary bladder.
B)The trigone contains openings for the ureters and the urethra.
C)The bladder can store about 600 mL of urine, but the urge to void can be felt when it contains about 500 mL.
D)Rugae are folds of the mucosa that allow the urinary bladder to stretch for urine storage.
E)All of these are true of the urinary bladder.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the juxtamedullary nephrons?
A)They lie entirely within the renal medulla.
B)Their nephron loops are much longer than those of the cortical nephrons.
C)They are much less numerous than the cortical nephrons.
D)They are similar in appearance to cortical nephrons, but they are larger.
E)All of these are true of the juxtamedullary nephrons.
Q3) From your observations of kidney slides, it can be seen that all of the renal corpuscles are located in the renal cortex.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Q1) An abnormal color of the urine can be caused by eating certain foods, such as beets or carrots; when this occurs, it is nonpathological.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is considered to be a nitrogenous waste, and is normally found in urine?
A)Urea
B)Ketones
C)Glucose
D)Hemoglobin
E)Bilirubin
Q3) A high protein diet may make the pH of a person's urine more basic (alkaline).
A)True
B)False
Q4) What effect would diabetes insipidus have on a person's urinalysis?
A)The specific gravity would be higher than normal.
B)The pH would be abnormally high.
C)The specific gravity would be lower than normal.
D)The glucose level would be higher than normal.
E)There would be no effect on the urinalysis.
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Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) As spermatogenic cells mature, they migrate from the outer edge of the seminiferous tubule toward the lumen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Spermatogenesis occurs through the process of meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the male reproductive organs produce(s)a fluid that contains citrate, calcium ions, and phosphate ions, to buffer the acidity in the female vagina?
A)The prostate gland
B)The testes
C)The bulbourethral glands
D)The epididymis
E)The seminal vesicles
Q4) The cilia of the pseudostratified columnar epithelium in the epididymis beat back and forth to transport mature sperm out of the epididymis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following structures is not entirely within the perineum of the female?
A)The mons pubis
B)The anus
C)The labia minora
D)The labia majora
E)The vestibule
Q2) The fornices are thin folds of mucosa that partly close the vaginal orifice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On a microscopic slide of a uterine tube, the lumen appears very smooth, and lacks folds; these features help the ovulated oocyte to move down the uterine tube toward the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Areolar glands of the breast produce milk.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Q1) Which extraembryonic membrane encloses the embryo and contains protective fluid that cushions the embryo (and fetus)?
A)Allantois
B)Chorion
C)Ectoderm
D)Amnion
E)Yolk sac
Q2) During cleavage divisions, there is an increase in both the number and size of the cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the fate of the trophoblast of the blastocyst?
A)It develops into the morula.
B)It develops into the embryo.
C)It develops into the zygote.
D)It develops into the inner cell mass.
E)It develops into the extraembryonic membranes and part of the placenta.
Q4) Meiosis occurs only during gametogenesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 63: Genetics
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Q1) If a husband and wife are both carriers of albinism, which is a recessive trait with two alleles, what is the probability that each of their children will be albino?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q2) In coin toss experiments, as well as in traits inherited by children in the same family, each event is independent of all others; in other words, chance does not have a memory of previous events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The specific combination of alleles that a person inherits for a certain trait is called the A)locus.
B)phenotype.
C)genome.
D)homologous chromosome.
E)genotype.
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Page 65