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Human Anatomy and Physiology II is a continuation of the comprehensive study of the human body, building on concepts introduced in the first part of the sequence. This course explores the structure and function of organ systems including the cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on the integration of physiological processes, homeostatic mechanisms, and the ways in which these systems interact to maintain health. Students will engage in laboratory exercises and discussions to reinforce theoretical knowledge, enhance practical skills, and develop a deeper understanding of the human body's complexity.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Human Physiology 4th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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Q1) Select the incorrect association.
A) anatomy/function
B) human body/multicellular.
C) carbon dioxide/cell waste product.
D) physiology/body function.
E) unicellular/one-celled.
Answer: A
Q2) All cells are capable of reproducing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The plasma surrounds and bathes all of the body's cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) ____________________ refers to maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment.
Answer: homeostasis
Q5) ____________________ are drugs that prevent rejection of transplanted tissues.
Answer: immunosuppressive drugs
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Q1) Selectively controls movement of molecules between the intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid.
A)plasma membrane
B)nucleus
C)cytoplasm
D)cytosol
E)organelles
F)cytoskeleton
Answer: A
Q2) The bending movements of cilia and flagella
A) are accomplished by alternate solation and gelation of the cytosol.
B) involve the alternate assembly and disassembly of actin filaments.
C) are produced by the sliding of adjacent microtubule doublets past each other.
D) are important in providing motility for many organisms but are not of any use in humans.
E) none of these answers.
Answer: C
Q3) The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores the substance ____________________.
Answer: calcium
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Q1) Select the structure that promotes cell adhesion.
A) calmodulin.
B) collagen.
C) elastin.
D) CAMs
E) TSH.
Answer: D
Q2) With active transport, ATP energy is used in the phosphorylation-dephosphorylation cycle of the carrier.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Its charge tends to move sodium out of the cell.
A)potassium
B)sodium
C)chloride
D)intracellular proteins
Answer: B
Q4) Cadherins are one kind of ____________________.
Answer: CAM
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Q1) The rising phase of the action potential is due to A) calcium equilibrium.
B) potassium efflux.
C) potassium influx.
D) sodium efflux.
E) sodium influx.
Q2) Which class(s) of hormone(s) is not stored in the secretory cell after being synthesized?
A) peptides.
B) catecholamines.
C) steroids.
D) thyroid hormone.
E) both steroids and thyroid hormone are correct.
Q3) The portion of DNA where steroid hormones interact is known as ___________.
Q4) During the resting potential, many potassium channels are open in the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) At the end of repolarization, the newly opened channels for ____________________ ions close.

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Q1) Similar EEG to an alert person
A)Slow-wave
B)Paradoxical
Q2) Broca's area is located near the temporal and parietal lobes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Damage to which spinal cord component will affect only motor activity?
A) spinal nerve
B) dorsal root
C) ventral root
D) ascending tracts
E) dorsal root ganglion
Q4) The ____________________ are protective and nourishing membranes that lie between the central nervous system and its bony covering.
Q5) The CSF moves from the ___________ space through the _________ villi into the _______ sinus.
Q6) Astrocytes take up the neurotransmitter GABA.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Afferent division
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Q1) The ____________________ is point on the retina where the optic nerve exits.
Q2) confer vision in shades of gray A)rods
B)cones
C)both rods and cones
Q3) These cells give rise to the axons of the optic nerve.
A) bipolar neurons.
B) convex cells.
C) ganglion cells.
D) hair cells.
E) rods and cones.
Q4) The semicircular canals are activated as the head starts to rotate, but cease responding if the head movement continues at the same rate in the same direction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The term adequate stimulus refers to the intensity of a stimulus developing above a threshold value.
A)True B)False
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Q1) A drug that blocks Beta 1 receptors would be used to treat asthma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sympathetic postganglionic fibers that innervate the sweat glands secrete acetylcholine rather than norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the various ways in which toxins can interfere with normal neuron function?
Q4) What system would suppress the digestive organs during times of greater physical activity?
A) parasympathetic.
B) enteric nervous system.
C) somatic nervous system.
D) none of these answers.
E) all of these answers
Q5) The sympathetic nervous system is always excitatory to the organs it innervates.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the various types of autonomic receptors.
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Q1) Lie(s) near the groove of the thin filament helix.
A)actin only
B)myosin only
C)actin and myosin
D)troponin-tropomyosin complex
E)actin, troponin, and tropomyosin
F)actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin
Q2) A skeletal muscle undergoes hypertrophy mainly by producing many more muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following characteristics are shared by all three types of muscle tissues?
A) each one contains myosin and actin.
B) each one is neurogenic.
C) each one is striated.
D) each one is considered to be under voluntary control.
E) none of these answers.
Q4) In a state of ____________________ a muscle cannot maintain any kind of tension.
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Q5) Single-unit smooth muscle is ______ rather than requiring nervous stimulation.
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Q1) Adjacent cardiac muscle cells are joined together end-to-end in the ventricles by
A) intercalated discs.
B) sarcomeres.
C) Purkinje fibers.
D) sinoatrial nodes.
E) atrioventricular nodes.
Q2) Select the cranial nerve of the parasympathetic nervous system that signals the heart.
A) cardiac.
B) coronary.
C) hypoglossal.
D) trigeminal.
E) vagus.
Q3) Select the incorrect statement about cardiac muscle cells.
A) all of them contract in the heart or none of them contract.
B) they are capable of graded strength of contraction.
C) they are produced constantly after infancy.
D) they have an abundance of mitochondria.
E) they have an abundance of myoglobin.
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Q1) In an arteriole, if the blood vessel radius is 2 units and then vasoconstricted to 1 units, the resistance:
A) the resistance decreases 16 times.
B) the resistance increases 16 times.
C) flow will be decreased.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) both (b) and (c) above.
Q2) Total peripheral resistance is primarily dependent on ____________________.
Q3) Polycythemia is associated with blood viscosity increases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement regarding sympathetic stimulation effects on blood pressure is incorrect?
A) vasoconstriction of arterioles increases total peripheral resistance.
B) decreased end diastolic volume increases cardiac output.
C) increased stroke volume increases cardiac output.
D) vasoconstriction of veins increases venous return
E) vasoconstriction of veins increases stroke volume.
Q5) A deficiency of ____________________ in the blood reduces the blood-colloid osmotic pressure.
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Q1) Can secrete enzymes or toxins that are injurious to host cells.
A)pertains to bacteria
B)pertains to viruses
Q2) Secrete macrophage-migration inhibition factor.
A)applies to cytotoxic T cells
B)applies to helper T cells
C)applies to regulatory T cells
D)applies to both helper T and regulatory T cells
E)applies to all three types of T cells
Q3) Specific immune responses
A) require helper T cell activation.
B) are under control of the adaptive immune system.
C) could not occur if the thymus gland did not develop.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answer.
Q4) local arterial dilation
Q5) Cytotoxic T cells also induce viral infected cells to self-destruct in a process known as __________.
Q6) phagocytic secretions
Q7) Coagulation involves as cascade of ____________________ activation.
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Q1) The alveolar wall is ____________________ (how many?) cell layer(s) thick. The wall of the pulmonary capillaries surrounding an alveolus is cell ____________________ (how many?) layer(s) thick.
Q2) In the breathing cycle, the atmospheric pressure normally does not change.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the pulmonary ventilation rate is 3200 ml/minute with a tidal volume of 400, the respiratory rate is ____ breaths per minute.
A) 6
B) 8
C) 14
D) 16
E) 20
Q4) Respiration is accomplished entirely by the respiratory system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most profound changes in thoracic volume can be accomplished by contraction of the ____________________.
Q6) functional residual capacity

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Q1) The plasma clearance of a substance can be used to calculate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) if that substance is freely filtered at the glomerulus and
A) secreted and reabsorbed by the tubules.
B) neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules.
C) secreted by the tubules.
D) reabsorbed by the tubules.
E) none of these answers.
Q2) Glomerular filtration occurs primarily by active transport.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What mechanisms are responsible for producing concentrated urine?
A) the juxtamedullary nephrons become active.
B) the counter-current mechanism pulls out much water.
C) vasopressin causes facultative water reabsorption in distal tubule.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q4) The vasa recta is ______ to salt and ______ to H<sub>2</sub>O.
A)permeable
B)impermeable
Q5) Body fluids are ____________________ at 300 mosm/liter.
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Q1) kidney failure
A)respiratory acidosis
B)respiratory alkalosis
C)metabolic acidosis
D)metabolic alkalosis
Q2) The respiratory system can compensate for metabolic acidosis through hyperventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Osmotic activity across the
A) capillary wall is not due to the unequal distribution of plasma proteins in the plasma and interstitial fluid.
B) cellular plasma membranes is not related to any differences in ionic concentration between the ECF and ICF.
C) cellular plasma membranes is not related to differences in protein composition between the ECF and ICF.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) both (a) and (c) above.
Q4) Describe how sodium and blood pressure balance are interconnected.
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Q1) The three gastrointestinal hormones that function as enterogastrones are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
Q2) The function of mixing movements is to promote digestion and facilitate absorption.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The swallowing center does not initiate and coordinate secondary peristaltic waves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The liver has endocrine functions which include secreting the hormones thrombopoietin and insulin-like growth factor-I
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pacemaker cells at the lower parts of the stomach generate slow-wave potentials that sweep up the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Intrinsic factor is important in the absorption of _____________
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Q1) Upon cold exposure all of the following occur except A) skin vasoconstriction.
B) decreased muscle tone.
C) nonshivering thermogenesis.
D) behavioral adaptations.
E) stimulation of thermoreceptors.
Q2) About ____ kilocalories of energy is liberated by consumption of 3 liters of oxygen.
A) 4.8
B) 9.6
C) 14.4
D) 19.2
E) 24
Q3) Which chemical messenger is released by the immune system?
A) orexin
B) melanin
C) ACTH
D) CRH
E) Cachetin
Q4) Describe some of the mechanisms that increase or suppress appetite.
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Q1) Excess circulating glucose:
A) is stored as glycogen
B) is transformed to fatty acids and glycerol
C) can eventually be converted to triglycerides
D) both (a) and (b)
E) all of the above
Q2) Excess levels of ACTH would be indicative of primary adrenal insufficiency
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cortisol _____ blood glucose.
A)increases
B)decreases
C)has no effect on
Q4) Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Insulin _____ blood glucose.
A)increases
B)decreases
C)has no effect on
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Q1) What triggers the events related to FSH decline between events 4 and 6?
A) rise in estrogen
B) fall in progesterone
C) pregnancy
D) ovulation
E) none of the above
Q2) The delivery of the placenta is the third stage of labor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both males and females produce testosterone and estrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Progesterone levels are similar on day 7 and day 17 of the ovarian cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The externally visible portions of the reproductive system are referred to as ____________________.
Q6) The secondary oocyte normally has a diploid chromosome number.
A)True
B)False

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