Human Anatomy and Physiology I Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology I is an introductory course that explores the structure and function of the human body, focusing on the fundamental concepts of anatomy and physiology at the cellular, tissue, and organ system levels. This course typically covers topics including the organization of the human body, basic biochemistry, cell structure and function, and the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, and nervous systems. Emphasizing the interrelationships among systems, students gain a foundational understanding of how the body maintains homeostasis and adapts to internal and external challenges. This course is essential for students pursuing careers in health sciences, biology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry R. Martin
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Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the metric system, 1 cm is equal to ________ mm.
A)100
B)1,000
C)0.1
D)10
E)0.01
Answer: D
Q2) The difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable is that the dependent variable
A)can be changed.
B)is derived from the experimental results.
C)is determined before the experiment is conducted.
D)is equivalent to the hypothesis.
E)is equivalent to the observations.
Answer: B
Q3) In the metric system, a gram (g)is a unit of mass.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The eye is further from the midline of the body than the nose; therefore, the eye is ________ to the nose.
A)medial
B)proximal
C)lateral
D)distal
E)caudal
Answer: C
Q2) The liver is located in the thoracic cavity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following is the function of the endocrine system?
A)To remove wastes and liquids from the body
B)To detect changes in the body, and stimulate glands and muscles
C)To return excess tissue fluid to the blood
D)To secrete hormones
E)To protect internal tissues
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the iodine (IKI)test, a blue-black color indicates that
A)proteins have been broken down.
B)starch has not been broken down.
C)lipids have not been broken down.
D)starch has been broken down.
E)proteins have not been broken down.
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following are true about the cabbage water tests, except
A)red cabbage contains a pigment that functions as a colorimetric pH indicator.
B)distilled water is used in this experiment as an example of a neutral substance.
C)vinegar is added to one of the test tubes as an example of an acidic substance.
D)baking soda is used in this experiment as an example of a basic substance.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
Q3) Sudan IV dye is a test for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) When viewing a specimen on a compound light microscope, the image is right-side-up but reversed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a microscopic lens is not clean, after cleaning it with lens paper or a cotton swab and lens cleaner, it should be cleaned with hydrochloric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A parfocal microscope is one that keeps the specimen in focus (or very close to it)when a higher-power objective lens is rotated into position, after focusing with a lower-power objective.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A compound microscope is one that has two ocular lenses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organelles are sometimes called "suicide sacs," because they are able to destroy the whole cell?
A)Ribosomes
B)Golgi apparatus
C)Lysosomes
D)Mitochondria
E)Centrioles
Q2) Which of the following organelles provide additional surface area for absorption?
A)Cilia
B)Microvilli
C)Ribosomes
D)Flagella
E)Centrioles
Q3) What do lysosomes and peroxisomes have in common?
A)They both have specific roles in cell division
B)They are both involved in ATP production for the cell.
C)They are both vesicles (sacs)of enzymes.
D)They both produce proteins for the cell.
E)They are both part of the cytoskeleton.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the filtration experiment, which substances passed through the filter paper because of their small molecular size?
A)Water, glucose, starch, and charcoal
B)Water, glucose, and starch
C)Water and glucose
D)Starch and charcoal
E)Water, starch, and charcoal
Q2) Which of the following transport processes requires the energy of ATP to move substances across the plasma membrane?
A)Diffusion
B)Osmosis
C)Facilitated diffusion
D)Active transport
E)Filtration
Q3) In the molasses experiment, after 30 minutes, the molasses level in the stem of the thistle tube had gone up.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meiosis is a type of cell division unique to gametes, that serves to produce haploid sperm and egg cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A cell that enters the G phase will die within hours.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The nucleolus and nuclear envelope, which disperse during ________, are reassembled during ________.
A)prophase; metaphase
B)anaphase; telophase
C)prophase; telophase
D)interphase; anaphase
E)prophase; interphase
Q4) Which of the following events occurs in both the G and the G phases?
A)Mitosis
B)DNA replication
C)Cytokinesis
D)Spindle apparatus formation
E)Cell growth
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the air sacs of the lungs, the walls of capillaries, and the inner linings of blood vessels?
A)Stratified squamous
B)Simple cuboidal
C)Simple columnar
D)Transitional
E)Simple squamous
Q2) Which type of epithelial tissue provides protection against respiratory infections, due to the presence of mucus and cilia?
A)Simple squamous
B)Pseudostratified columnar
C)Stratified columnar
D)Simple cuboidal
E)Stratified squamous
Q3) The thinnest type of epithelial tissue in the body, which allows rapid diffusion of substances through the cells, is simple cuboidal epithelium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of connective tissue is avascular (contains no blood vessels)?
A)Bone
B)Reticular connective tissue
C)Adipose tissue
D)Cartilage
E)Areolar connective tissue
Q2) All of the following are true about areolar connective tissue except
A)it consists of cells in a fluid-gel matrix.
B)it sustains tissue tension.
C)it holds tissue fluids.
D)it binds organs loosely together.
E)All of these are true of areolar connective tissue.
Q3) Which type of cartilage makes up the larynx, costal cartilage, the ends of long bones, and the fetal skeleton?
A)Dense regular cartilage
B)Hyaline cartilage
C)Compact cartilage
D)Elastic cartilage
E)Fibrocartilage
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Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Branched muscle fibers and intercalated discs are characteristic of ________ muscle tissue.
A)smooth
B)voluntary
C)cardiac
D)multinucleated
E)skeletal
Q2) Muscle cells are also called muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Spindle-shaped cells are characteristic of ________ tissue.
A)nervous
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)striated muscle
E)skeletal muscle
Q4) Intercalated discs contain both desmosomes and gap junctions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is/are the stimulus(-i)for contraction of the arrector pili muscles?
A)Low blood pH
B)Dry skin
C)Cold temperature or fear
D)Hot temperature
E)Hot temperature or fear
Q2) What is the deepest layer of the epidermis in which the cells are beginning to flatten and accumulate keratin?
A)Stratum lucidum
B)Stratum spinosum
C)Stratum corneum
D)Stratum granulosum
E)Stratum basale
Q3) From your observations of skin slides, it can be seen that the epidermis is a much thicker layer than the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sweat glands are also called sudoriferous glands.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each bone consists of either compact or spongy bone, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The inorganic portion of the bone matrix consists of all of the following except
A)calcium phosphate.
B)calcium carbonate.
C)collagen fibers.
D)fluoride ions.
E)magnesium ions.
Q3) Which of the following structures would NOT be found in the long bones of a mature adult?
A)Epiphyses
B)Epiphyseal plates
C)Red bone marrow
D)Epiphyseal lines
E)Diaphyses
Q4) A bone is considered to be a tissue of the skeletal system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most adults have 206 bones, but the number at birth is close to 275.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A cavity in a bone, especially in a bone of the skull, is called a ________.
A)fissure
B)tuberosity
C)meatus
D)foramen
E)sinus
Q3) The thoracic cage consists of the A)ribs and sternum.
B)coxal bones.
C)ribs.
D)scapulae and clavicles.
E)coxal bones and sacrum.
Q4) The axial skeleton contains more bones than the appendicular skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Skull
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the structure that supports the teeth on both the maxilla and the mandible?
A)Crista galli
B)Pterygoid process
C)Ramus
D)Alveolar process
E)Coronoid process
Q2) Which bones are connected by the squamous suture?
A)The frontal and parietal bones
B)The parietal and zygomatic bones
C)The parietal and temporal bones
D)The parietal and occipital bones
E)The two parietal bones
Q3) All of the following bones are part of the eye orbit except the A)maxilla.
B)zygomatic bone.
C)nasal bone.
D)frontal bone.
E)lacrimal bone.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surfaces of ribs that articulate with vertebrae are called A)processes.
B)notches.
C)tubercles.
D)angles. E)facets.
Q2) The thoracic cage and vertebral column are part of the axial skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The vertebral column extends from the first cervical vertebra (C1)to the fifth lumbar vertebra (L5).
A)True
B)False
Q4) The inferior portion of the sternum is called the A)manubrium.
B)spinous process.
C)xiphoid process.
D)body.
E)facet.
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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parts of the scapula articulates with another bone?
A)Coracoid process
B)Superior border
C)Glenoid cavity
D)Scapular spine
E)Infraspinous fossa
Q2) The heads of the radius and ulna are found on the proximal end of their respective bones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the bones of the hand?
A)The hand contains a single metacarpal for each digit.
B)The carpals are arranged in 2 rows of 4 bones each.
C)The metacarpals articulate with the proximal phalanges.
D)All 5 digits of the hand contain 3 phalanges.
E)All of these are true of the bones of the hand.
Q4) The carpals are not included in the anatomical description of the hand.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Q1) There are 7 tarsals in each foot, and 8 carpals in each hand, but the upper limb and the lower limb contain the same number of bones. How can this be explained?
A)The forearm contains 2 bones, but the leg contains only 1 bone.
B)The foot contains 1 more metatarsal than the hand.
C)The foot contains 1 more phalanx than the hand.
D)The upper limb has no counterpart for the patella.
E)The arm contains 1 bone, while the thigh contains 2 bones.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an alternate name for the hip bone?
A)Os coxa
B)Pelvic bone
C)Innominate bone
D)Coxal bone
E)All of these are alternate names for the hip bone.
Q3) The 2 hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx form the pelvic girdle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The patellar surface, which articulates with the patella, is found on the tibia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following fontanels are paired, occurring in 2 different places on the fetal skull?
A)Anterior and posterior
B)Anterior and sphenoidal
C)Mastoid and sphenoidal
D)Mastoid and posterior
E)All of the fontanels are paired in the fetal skull.
Q2) Intramembranous bones develop by replacement of a hyaline cartilage model with bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are fontanels in the fetal skull except the ________ fontanel.
A)ethmoid
B)sphenoidal
C)anterior
D)mastoid
E)posterior
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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Q1) Inversion and eversion are special movements of the A)forearm and hand.
B)mandible.
C)sole of the foot at the ankle joint.
D)thumb toward or away from the other fingers.
E)the knee joint.
Q2) The only structural type of joint that contains synovial fluid in a joint cavity is a cartilaginous joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of synovial joints are metacarpophalangeal joints?
A)Condylar
B)Hinge
C)Pivot
D)Ball-and-socket
E)Saddle
Q4) Medial and lateral excursion are special joint movements that involve the mandible.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Q1) Whenever an object is lifted, all motor units in the appropriate muscle(s)are stimulated, regardless of the weight of the object.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What does "striated" mean, as it applies to skeletal muscle?
A)It means that skeletal muscle action can be willed to occur.
B)It means that skeletal muscle appears striped, due to alternating Z and M lines in each sarcomere.
C)It means that the tissue appears striped, due to the pattern formed by multinucleated cells.
D)It means that skeletal muscle tissue consists of motor units.
E)It means that the tissue appears striped, due to the repeating pattern of the A bands and I bands in the sarcomeres.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a method of naming muscles?
A)By the relative size of the muscle
B)By the action of the muscle
C)By the number of origins that the muscle has
D)By the shape of the muscle
E)All of these are methods of naming muscles.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The type of muscle tissue that was used for electromyography in this lab exercise is ________ muscle.
A)mononucleated
B)cardiac
C)non-striated
D)skeletal
E)smooth
Q2) In the EMG experiment, the hand dynamometer was used to illustrate A)motor unit recruitment only.
B)smooth muscle contraction.
C)muscle fatigue only.
D)cardiac muscle contraction.
E)motor unit recruitment and muscle fatigue.
Q3) In a motor unit of a skeletal muscle, each muscle fiber is innervated by several motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Q1) Which of the following facial muscles raise(s)the corners of the mouth for smiling and laughing?
A)Buccinator
B)Mentalis and platysma
C)Depressor anguli oris
D)Orbicularis oris
E)Zygomaticus major and minor
Q2) Which of the following nerves innervates the muscles of mastication?
A)Trigeminal nerve
B)Ansa cervicalis
C)Accessory nerve
D)Hypoglossal nerve
E)Facial nerve
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the masseter muscle?
A)It originates on the zygomatic arch.
B)It is innervated by the facial nerve.
C)It inserts on the lateral portion of the mandible.
D)It closes the jaw by elevating the mandible.
E)All of these are true of the masseter muscle.
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Q1) Many of the flexors of the wrist and fingers originate on the A)lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
B)head of the ulna.
C)medial epicondyle of the humerus.
D)distal end of the radius.
E)greater tubercle of the humerus.
Q2) In general, the extensors of the wrist and fingers are located on the anterior side of the forearm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All muscles cross only one joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The majority of muscles that move the arm have origins on the A)humerus.
B)scapula.
C)sternum.
D)ribs.
E)clavicle.
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Chapter 24: Muscles of the Vertebral Column, Abdominal
Wall, and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) The anterior portion of the perineum is called the A)anal triangle.
B)genital opening.
C)urogenital triangle.
D)external anal sphincter.
E)pelvic diaphragm.
Q2) The muscles of the pelvic floor are almost entirely innervated by the pudendal nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following correctly lists the erector spinae muscles, from lateral to medial?
A)Iliocostalis group, longissimus group, spinalis group
B)Semispinalis thoracis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis capitis
C)Spinalis group, longissimus group, iliocostalis group
D)Quadratus lumborum, semispinalis thoracis, iliocostalis group
E)Semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis
Q4) The linea alba is a muscle of the pelvic floor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the hamstring group of muscles?
A)It consists of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.
B)All of the hamstrings insert on both the tibia and the fibula.
C)All of the hamstrings cause flexion of the leg at the knee.
D)All of the hamstrings have origins on the ischial tuberosity, although the biceps femoris has an additional origin.
E)All of these are true of the hamstrings.
Q2) All of the major adductors of the thigh have origins on the A)ilium.
B)ischium.
C)pubis.
D)greater trochanter of the femur.
E)linea aspera of the femur.
Q3) All of the following are posterior leg muscles except the A)gastrocnemius.
B)soleus.
C)popliteus.
D)extensor digitorum longus.
E)All of these are posterior leg muscles.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Q1) The deltoid can be seen on both the anterior and posterior views of the trunk (torso).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The transverse arch is a
A)bony feature of the torso.
B)soft tissue feature of the lower limb.
C)soft tissue feature of the upper limb.
D)soft tissue feature of the torso.
E)bony feature of the lower limb.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a posterior surface feature?
A)Calcaneal tendon
B)Popliteal fossa
C)External occipital protuberance
D)Head of the fibula
E)All of these are posterior surface features.
Q4) Soft tissue features do not include bone or cartilage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) What is the function of ependymal cells?
A)They are the phagocytes of the brain.
B)They produce cerebrospinal fluid, and circulate it around the brain and spinal cord.
C)They produce the myelin sheath around axons of the peripheral nervous system.
D)They support the cell bodies of neurons in peripheral ganglia.
E)They produce the myelin sheath around axons of the central nervous system.
Q2) Which type of neuroglial cell has a cuboidal shape?
A)Microglia
B)Schwann cells
C)Ependymal cells
D)Oligodendrocytes
E)Astrocytes
Q3) Which of the following is true of interneurons?
A)They are only found in the peripheral nervous system.
B)They are also called efferent neurons.
C)They often connect sensory neurons to motor neurons.
D)They are directly connected to sensory receptors.
E)None of the choices is true of interneurons.
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Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) The lumbar plexus is considered to be the most complex of the nerve plexuses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The meninges surround and protect the entire CNS and PNS.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On the dermatome map, the sacral nerves generally innervate the genital, buttock, anal, and posterior lower limb regions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The anterior roots of the spinal nerves contain motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following nerves is part of the cervical plexus?
A)Musculocutaneous nerve
B)Median nerve
C)Femoral nerve
D)Phrenic nerve
E)Pudendal nerve
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) Which of the following represents the correct order of components in a reflex arc?
A)Effector, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, receptor
B)Receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector
C)Sensory neuron, receptor, integration center, motor neuron, effector
D)Receptor, motor neuron, integration center, sensory receptor, effector
E)Integration center, receptor, sensory neuron, effector, motor neuron
Q2) What is the role of an inhibitory interneuron in a stretch reflex?
A)It is used to inhibit the antagonistic muscles from contracting at the same time as the effectors of the reflex.
B)It is used to ensure that the effectors do not contract excessively.
C)It sends inhibitory commands to the opposite limb, so it will not respond.
D)It ensures that the reflex does not damage the effectors.
E)Inhibitory interneurons are not involved in stretch reflexes.
Q3) The stretch reflex tests that you demonstrated in this lab require input from the brain in order to work properly.
A)True
B)False
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) The sensation of dental pain is derived from the ________ nerve.
A)hypoglossal
B)vagus
C)glossopharyngeal
D)accessory
E)trigeminal
Q2) Among the pairs of cranial nerves, 3 are sensory, 4 are mixed, and 5 are primarily motor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which portion of the cerebellum is the deep branching pattern of white matter?
A)Thalamus
B)Arbor vitae
C)Falx cerebelli
D)Cerebellar cortex
E)Vermis
Q4) The cerebral cortex is the part of the brain used for conscious awareness and decision making.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the square root of the variance is called the
A)deviation from the mean. B)mean.
C)standard deviation. D)median.
E)sum.
Q2) The reaction time experiment is an example of a voluntary reaction. A)True
B)False
Q3) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the average reaction time for all subjects in each condition is called the group A)variance. B)median.
C)standard deviation.
D)mean. E)mode.
Q4) All reflex arcs contain an interneuron. A)True B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following brain waves has the highest frequency?
A)Theta
B)Beta
C)Delta
D)Gamma
E)Alpha
Q2) The most important ions used in action potentials of neurons are Na and K ions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All 4 types of brain waves can usually be observed in the EEG of a normal adult.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alpha block occurs when a person closes his/her eyes, and changes from a state of concentration to a state of relaxation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Many neurons firing in synchrony results in a brain wave with high amplitude. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) Which of the following structures separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres of the sheep brain?
A)Central sulcus
B)Coronal fissure
C)Lateral sulcus
D)Longitudinal fissure
E)Transverse fissure
Q2) Which layer of the meninges is thick and opaque?
A)Arachnoid mater
B)Infundibulum
C)Dura mater
D)Mammillary body
E)Pia mater
Q3) Which ventricles are separated by the septum pellucidum?
A)The lateral ventricles and the third ventricle
B)The 2 medial ventricles
C)The third ventricle and the fourth ventricle
D)The fourth ventricle and the fifth ventricle
E)The 2 lateral ventricles
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Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of Meissner's corpuscles?
A)They are also called tactile corpuscles.
B)They are numerous in the hands, feet, joints, and external genital organs.
C)They are most abundant in the hypodermis.
D)They are stimulated by light touch.
E)All of these are true of Meissner's corpuscles.
Q2) General senses are senses that have sensory receptors distributed widely in the skin, joints, muscles, and organs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A special sense is one that has A)no receptors.
B)receptors that are confined to the head.
C)receptors that respond to several types of stimuli.
D)receptors only found in humans.
E)unencapsulated receptors.
Q4) All sensory neurons have receptive fields of approximately the same size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) The supporting cells for olfactory receptor cells are
A)pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells.
B)bipolar neurons.
C)simple columnar epithelial cells.
D)multipolar neurons.
E)simple cuboidal epithelial cells.
Q2) In the absence of olfaction, the sense of gustation is diminished.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the function of the basal cells of the taste buds?
A)They are the taste receptor cells.
B)They transmit sensory impulses from the taste receptor cells to the 3 cranial nerves associated with gustation.
C)They surround and protect the taste buds.
D)They replace damaged taste cells every 7-10 days.
E)They provide physical support to the taste receptor cells.
Q4) Both the primary olfactory cortex and the primary gustatory cortex are located in the temporal lobe of the cerebrum.
A)True
B)False
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) The anterior cavity of the eyeball is much smaller than the posterior cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vision is one of the special senses, because its receptors are found within complex sensory organs in the head.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following extrinsic eye muscles rotates the eyeball inferiorly and laterally?
A)Superior rectus
B)Inferior oblique
C)Inferior rectus
D)Superior oblique
E)Lateral rectus
Q4) All of the following cranial nerves innervate the extrinsic eye muscles except A)the facial nerve.
B)the abducens nerve.
C)the trochlear nerve.
D)the oculomotor nerve.
E)all of these cranial nerves innervate the extrinsic eye muscles.
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Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) A defect in the curvature of the cornea or lens results in a condition called A)emmetropia.
B)hyperopia.
C)myopia.
D)astigmatism.
E)presbyopia.
Q2) A person with better than normal visual acuity may have a vision of
A)20/50
B)20/10
C)20/20
D)20/200
E)20/100
Q3) Which of the following structures refract(s)light to focus it on to the proper area of the retina?
A)Iris
B)Ciliary body
C)Cornea and lens
D)Pupil
E)Optic disc and ciliary body
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) What is the function of the pharyngotympanic tube?
A)To transmit sound waves to the tympanic membrane
B)To drain endolymph into the pharynx
C)To equalize the pressure on both sides of the eardrum
D)To drain perilymph into the pharynx
E)To transmit sound waves to the spiral organ
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a chamber found in the cochlea?
A)Scala tympani
B)Vestibule
C)Cochlear duct
D)Scala vestibuli
E)All of these are chambers found in the cochlea.
Q3) The membranous labyrinth is the only portion of the inner ear that contains endolymph.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The tympanic cavity is a fluid-filled chamber in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) In the vision and equilibrium test, it can be demonstrated that vision has very little to do with the sense of equilibrium, since unsteadiness does not increase when the eyes are closed while balancing on one foot.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vestibular neurons transmit nerve impulses along the vestibulocochlear nerve to all of the following sites except A)the brainstem.
B)the cerebrum.
C)the thalamus.
D)the cerebellum.
E)All of these sites are destinations for neural information from the vestibular neurons.
Q3) The inner ear houses the organs of both static and dynamic equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both the crista ampullaris and the macula contain otoliths.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) If you were suddenly in a dangerous situation, which of your major endocrine glands would you expect to be activated to secrete hormones?
A)Adrenal gland
B)Thyroid gland
C)Pituitary gland
D)Hypothalamus
E)All of these endocrine glands would likely be activated during a dangerous situation.
Q2) Which of the following endocrine glands secretes 2 antagonistic hormones?
A)The pancreas
B)The ovaries
C)The thyroid gland
D)The adrenal medulla
E)The pituitary gland
Q3) All of the following glands are both endocrine and exocrine except A)the testes.
B)the pancreas.
C)the adrenal glands.
D)the ovaries.
E)All of these glands are both endocrine and exocrine.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) Cells that lack insulin receptors cannot use glucose as an energy source.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary source of cellular energy (fuel)is glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is secreted by the pancreatic acini?
A)Digestive hormones
B)Insulin and glucagon
C)Somatostatin
D)Digestive enzymes
E)Hydrochloric acid
Q4) Diabetes insipidus is a form of diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Insulin shock can occur when a person with type 1 diabetes mellitus eats a high-carbohydrate meal, but forgets to take insulin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) Which of the following types of white blood cells is likely to increase in number in a person with cancer, chicken pox, or hypothyroidism?
A)Monocytes
B)Basophils
C)Neutrophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Eosinophils
Q2) Which of the following is not true of red blood cells?
A)The biconcave disc shape makes them look hollow in their centers.
B)They are also called erythrocytes.
C)They transport oxygen through the blood, but not carbon dioxide.
D)They contain hemoglobin for gas transport.
E)All of these are true of red blood cells.
Q3) Formed elements make up about 55% of the volume of the blood, and plasma makes up 45%.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood is a type of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
44
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Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of cholesterol?
A)For the best health, it is recommended that the LDL and HDL levels in the blood should be as low as possible.
B)A cholesterol level of greater than 200 mg/dl is associated with an increase in the likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease.
C)LDLs are molecules that transport cholesterol to the tissues for use by the cells.
D)HDLs are molecules that are transported to the liver for decomposition and removal from the body.
E)All of these are true of cholesterol.
Q2) A complete blood count (CBC)measures all of the following except
A)the white blood cell count.
B)the hematocrit.
C)the hemoglobin concentration.
D)the red blood cell count.
E)the percentages of each type of white blood cell.
Q3) On the average, males have a slightly higher hematocrit than females.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) A person with type AB blood contains ________ antigens on his/her red blood cells, and ________ antibodies in his/her blood plasma.
A)B; anti-A
B)neither A nor B; anti-A and anti-B
C)A and B; Anti-A and Anti-B
D)A; anti-B
E)A and B; neither anti-A nor anti-B
Q2) What would happen if a transfusion recipient with type A- blood was given type A+ donor blood? (Assume the recipient had never been exposed to the Rh factor.)
A)The recipient would begin to produce anti-Rh antibodies in a few days, which would agglutinate the donor's red blood cells.
B)There would be an immediate transfusion reaction, and the recipient would become very ill or even die.
C)Due to the influx of Rh antigens, the recipient's blood type would change from A- to A+.
D)The recipient's red blood cells would be agglutinated by the donor's anti-A antibodies.
E)There would be no effect on the recipient; this is a compatible transfusion.
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) What is the function of the auricles?
A)They are the upper chambers of the heart.
B)They supply oxygen-rich blood to the walls of the heart.
C)They are the lower chambers of the heart, which pump blood to the systemic and pulmonary circuits.
D)They form the serous membrane around the heart.
E)They allow the atria to expand while they are filling with blood.
Q2) Blood flowing out of the pulmonary veins flows into the ________ and then proceeds through the ________.
A)pulmonary trunk; right ventricle
B)right ventricle; pulmonary trunk
C)right atrium; tricuspid valve
D)left ventricle; aortic semilunar valve
E)left atrium; mitral valve
Q3) The circumflex artery and the anterior interventricular artery are the main branches of the right coronary artery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) The first and second heart sounds are derived from the opening of the heart valves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system transmits electrical signals directly to the Purkinje fibers?
A)AV node
B)Internodal fibers
C)Right and left bundle branches
D)AV bundle
E)SA node
Q3) The AV node controls the basic rhythm of the heart, so it is called the pacemaker, but the SA node can modify heart rate when necessary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the cardiac cycle, ventricular depolarization and repolarization both begin at the apex of the heart and progress superiorly.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) There is a short period of time in the cardiac cycle, in which all four heart chambers are in diastole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ECG is a recording of an action potential of a single cardiac muscle cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the components of the cardiac conduction system briefly delays the signal from the pacemaker, so that the atria have time to fill the ventricles with blood, before the ventricles begin to contract?
A)AV bundle
B)SA node
C)Purkinje fibers
D)Left and right bundle branches
E)AV node
Q4) Typically, the heart rate increases during inspiration, and decreases during expiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) Which of the following arteries connects the popliteal artery to the dorsalis pedis artery?
A)Femoral artery
B)Posterior tibial artery
C)Patellar artery
D)Crural artery
E)Anterior tibial artery
Q2) Which of the following is not a branch of the celiac trunk?
A)Splenic artery
B)Common hepatic artery
C)Renal artery
D)Left gastric artery
E)All of these are branches of the celiac trunk.
Q3) The main blood supply to the intestines is provided by the ________ arteries.
A)common iliac
B)superior and inferior mesenteric
C)common hepatic
D)internal iliac
E)celiac and lumbar
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) After blood flows through the capillaries, the blood pressure derived from the heart is insufficient to return blood to the heart through the veins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a person suddenly moves from a supine position to a standing position, the blood pressure increases.
A)True B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the effects of various factors on blood pressure?
A)An increase in cardiac output increases blood pressure.
B)An increase in peripheral resistance decreases blood pressure.
C)An increase in blood volume increases blood pressure.
D)An increase in vasoconstriction of blood vessels increases blood pressure.
E)All of these are true of the effects of various factors on the blood pressure.
Q4) When a person who is lying down suddenly stands up, the pulse rate decreases, due to the effects of gravity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) The largest vessels of the lymphatic system are the
A)lymphatic collecting vessels.
B)lymph nodes.
C)collecting ducts.
D)lymphatic capillaries.
E)lymphatic trunks.
Q2) The adenoids are also called the pharyngeal tonsils.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following lymphatic trunks drains the upper limbs?
A)Lumbar trunks
B)Jugular trunks
C)Bronchomediastinal trunks
D)Brachial trunks
E)Subclavian trunks
Q4) Most of the fluid that filters out of the blood plasma of the capillaries into the tissue spaces will become lymph.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) The narrow air passages through the nasal cavity are called A)nasal meatuses.
B)external nares.
C)nasal conchae.
D)paranasal sinuses.
E)nasal septa.
Q2) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the A)cricoid cartilage.
B)corniculate cartilage.
C)epiglottic cartilage.
D)arytenoid cartilage.
E)thyroid cartilage.
Q3) In the bronchial tree, the lobar bronchi branch directly into A)terminal bronchioles.
B)secondary bronchi.
C)primary bronchi.
D)bronchioles.
E)segmental bronchi.
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)can be calculated by subtracting the tidal volume (TV)from the vital capacity (VC).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ can be calculated by multiplying breathing rate by tidal volume.
A)alveolar ventilation rate
B)anatomic dead space
C)inspiratory reserve volume
D)minute respiratory volume
E)inspiratory capacity
Q3) Which of the following respiratory volumes or capacities is equal to the sum of the expiratory reserve volume (ERV)and the residual volume (RV)?
A)Total lung capacity (TLC)
B)Vital capacity (VC)
C)Inspiratory capacity (IC)
D)Expiratory capacity (EC)
E)Functional residual capacity (FRC)
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The expiatory reserve volume (ERV)is a much larger volume than the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following respiratory volumes and capacities has the lowest volume?
A)Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
B)Residual volume (RV)
C)Tidal volume (TV)
D)Functional residual capacity (FRC)
E)Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Q3) Total lung capacity (TLC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a correct formula for calculating total lung capacity (TLC)?
A)VC + RV
B)IC + FRC
C)IRV + TV + ERV + RV
D)IC + EC
E)All of these are correct formulae for calculating total lung capacity (TLC).
Page 55
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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of respiratory alkalosis?
A)It exists when the blood pH is >7.45.
B)It can result from an increase in the CO level in the blood.
C)It can result in death, if the blood pH reaches 8.0 or above.
D)It causes vasoconstriction of the cerebral blood vessels, which decreases oxygen delivery to the brain.
E)All of these are true of respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) What is the result of the inflation reflex?
A)An increase in the duration of inspirations
B)An increase in the duration of expirations
C)A decrease in the duration of inspirations
D)A decrease in the duration of expirations
E)An increase in the duration of inspirations and a decrease in the duration of expirations
Q3) Which of the following is not detected by the peripheral chemoreceptors?
A)An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood
B)A decrease in the level of oxygen in the blood
C)An increase in the level of hydrogen ions in the blood
D)An increase in the level of sodium ions in the blood
E)The peripheral chemoreceptors detect all of these changes.
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Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) All of the following organs are part of the alimentary canal except the A)pharynx.
B)pancreas.
C)large intestine.
D)mouth.
E)esophagus.
Q2) Which of the following is not absorbed by the large intestine?
A)Water
B)Glucose
C)Some vitamins made by colon bacteria
D)Electrolytes
E)All of these are absorbed by the large intestine.
Q3) Which substance(s)pass(es)through the hepatopancreatic sphincter?
A)Gastric juice only
B)Bile only
C)Bile and gastric juice
D)Bile and pancreatic juice
E)Pancreatic juice only
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Denaturation does not alter the primary structure of an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of enzymes?
A)They are considered to be biological catalysts.
B)Enzymes are relatively non-specific, and able to catalyze several chemical reactions in the body.
C)Enzyme activity is temperature-dependent.
D)Denaturation destroys the ability of an enzyme to function.
E)All of these are true of enzymes.
Q3) In the amylase activity experiment, the development of a blue-black color upon the addition of iodine-potassium-iodide to the test tube indicates that
A)the starch has been broken down.
B)the starch has been denatured.
C)amylase is functioning at its optimum temperature.
D)the starch has not been broken down.
E)glucose is present in the test tube.
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Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) Oxygen consumption is normally directly proportional to metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which step(s)of the catabolism of nutrients is/are oxygen directly consumed?
A)Krebs cycle
B)Oxidative phosphorylation
C)Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
D)Glycolysis
E)Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
Q3) A direct calorimeter measures heat produced in units of A)kcal/L of oxygen.
B)kcal/g of body weight.
C)kcal/min.
D)kcal/L of carbon dioxide.
E)kcal/body weight/hour.
Q4) In general, a small, thin person has a higher metabolic rate than a large, heavy person.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of urine flow through the kidney?
A)The renal pelvis narrows down to become the ureter.
B)The renal pelvis receives urine directly from the minor calyces.
C)The minor calyces receive urine directly from papillary ducts in the renal papillae.
D)Major calyces receive urine from minor calyces.
E)All of these are true of urine flow through the kidney.
Q2) As tubular fluid flows through the nephron, fluid from the proximal convoluted tubule flows directly into the
A)distal convoluted tubule.
B)glomerular capsule.
C)nephron loop.
D)glomerulus.
E)minor calyx.
Q3) What is the first process of urine formation?
A)Micturition
B)Tubular secretion
C)Active transport
D)Tubular reabsorption
E)Glomerular filtration
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Q1) What effect would diabetes insipidus have on a person's urinalysis?
A)The specific gravity would be higher than normal.
B)The pH would be abnormally high.
C)The specific gravity would be lower than normal.
D)The glucose level would be higher than normal.
E)There would be no effect on the urinalysis.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of urobilinogen?
A)It is a breakdown product of bilirubin.
B)A low level in the urine could indicate decreased bile production.
C)A high level in the urine could indicate hemolytic anemia or cirrhosis of the liver.
D)It gives urine its yellow color.
E)All of these are true of urobilinogen.
Q3) Glucosuria can have either a pathological or a nonpathological cause.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity of a urine sample.
A)True
B)False
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) As spermatogenic cells mature, they migrate from the outer edge of the seminiferous tubule toward the lumen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which male reproductive organ is responsible for the maturation and storage of sperm?
A)The prostate gland
B)The epididymis
C)The corpus spongiosum
D)The testis
E)The seminal vesicle
Q3) A portion of the ductus deferens is located within the scrotum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ejaculatory duct forms from the merging of the ________ and the ________.
A)bulbourethral gland; urethra
B)ductus deferens; seminal vesicle
C)ductus deferens; bulbourethral gland
D)epididymis; ductus deferens
E)prostate gland; urethra
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following structures is not entirely within the perineum of the female?
A)The mons pubis
B)The anus
C)The labia minora
D)The labia majora
E)The vestibule
Q2) On a microscopic slide of a uterine tube, the lumen appears very smooth, and lacks folds; these features help the ovulated oocyte to move down the uterine tube toward the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organ of the female reproductive system is similar in structure to the penis?
A)Vestibule
B)Areola
C)Fimbraie
D)Clitoris
E)Hymen
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Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the polar bodies in the female?
A)There are typically two polar bodies for each oocyte that is fertilized, but sometimes there are three.
B)The polar bodies are approximately the same size as the oocyte.
C)The polar bodies eventually degenerate.
D)The function of expelling polar bodies is to rid the oocyte of unnecessary/excess genetic material.
E)All of these are true of the polar bodies in the female.
Q2) What is the fate of the trophoblast of the blastocyst?
A)It develops into the morula.
B)It develops into the embryo.
C)It develops into the zygote.
D)It develops into the inner cell mass.
E)It develops into the extraembryonic membranes and part of the placenta.
Q3) During cleavage divisions, there is an increase in both the number and size of the cells.
A)True
B)False
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64
Chapter 63: Genetics
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Q1) What blood types could the children have, if their mother was type A (I i)and their father was type B (I i)?
A)A or B
B)O
C)A, B, AB, or O
D)AB or O
E)A, B, or AB
Q2) Sex-linked traits are
A)inherited from one of the sex chromosomes.
B)only found in males.
C)inherited from the X chromosome only.
D)only found in females.
E)inherited from the Y chromosome only,
Q3) In sex-linked traits, the cells of all offspring contain two copies of the genes for these traits.
A)True B)False
Q4) Carriers of a recessive trait are always heterozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
Page 65
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