Human Anatomy and Physiology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course that explores the structure and function of the human body. Students will study the major body systems including skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, endocrine, and reproductive systems emphasizing how organs and tissues interact to maintain homeostasis and health. The course combines theoretical concepts with practical applications, incorporating laboratory investigations and interactive activities to develop a comprehensive understanding of human biology and physiological processes. This knowledge provides essential groundwork for further studies in health sciences, medicine, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lexicon of standard international anatomical terms is __________.
A) called Nomina Anatomica (NA)
B) formed from thousands of French word roots
C) called Terminologia Anatomica (TA)
D) formed from thousands of English word roots
E) formed from thousands of Italian word roots
Answer: C
Q2) Known as "the father of modern anatomy," __________ was the first to publish accurate drawings of the body.
A) Vesalius
B) Maimonides
C) Harvey
D) Aristotle
E) van Leeuwenhoek
Answer: A
Q3) Homeostasis and occupying space are both unique characteristics of living things.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Oxygen has an atomic number of eight.When two oxygen atoms come together,they form a(n)__________ bond.
A) hydrogen
B) nonpolar covalent
C) polar covalent
D) ionic
E) Van der Waals
Answer: B
Q2) ATP is the body's most important form of long-term energy storage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Carbon is very versatile in forming bonds with other atoms because it has __________ valence electrons.
A) four
B) two
C) eight
D) six
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ is the process in which ____________ forces water and small solutes,such as salts,through narrow clefts between capillary cells.
A) Filtration;hydrostatic pressure
B) Osmosis;hydrostatic pressure
C) Active transport;osmotic pressure
D) Active transport;hydrostatic pressure
E) Osmosis;osmotic pressure
Answer: A
Q2) One example of pinocytosis is the uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)by endothelial cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of these brings nonspecific material into a cell?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Receptor-mediated endocytosis
C) Transcytosis
D) Pinocytosis
E) Exocytosis
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) After mitosis,each chromosome consists of two parallel filaments called sister chromatids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Germ cells have __________ unpaired chromosomes and are thus called __________ cells.
A) 23;somatic
B) 23;haploid (n)
C) 23;diploid (2n)
D) 46;somatic
E) 46;diploid (2n)
Q3) Many genes occur in alternative forms called alleles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cytokinesis overlaps with which phase of mitosis?
A) The S phase
B) Telophase
C) Metaphase
D) Prophase
E) Interphase
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma cells produce the ground substance that forms the matrix of connective tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________________ tissues respond quickly to outside stimuli by means of changes in membrane potential.
A) Excitable
B) Responsive
C) Adipose
D) Epithelial
E) Connective
Q3) Most membranes are composed of two or three tissue types.However,an example of an exception is the ___________ membrane.
A) mucous
B) serous
C) synovial
D) cutaneous
E) basement
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hair cycle consists of three developmental stages in which order?
A) Anagen,telogen,and catagen
B) Anagen,catagen,and telogen
C) Catagen,anagen,and telogen
D) Catagen,telogen,and anagen
E) Telogen,anagen,and catagen
Q2) Blood vessels in the __________ provide a hair with its sole source of nutrition.
A) bulb
B) root
C) shaft
D) dermal papilla
E) medulla
Q3) Mammary glands are modified __________ glands that develop within the female breasts.
A) merocrine
B) apocrine
C) ceruminous
D) sebaceous
E) eccrine
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thin layer of slightly denser spongy bone that separates an adult's epiphysis from the diaphysis is called the __________.
A) periosteum
B) metaphysis
C) growth plate
D) epiphyseal line
E) diaphyseal line
Q2) The __________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where,in children and adolescents,bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage.
A) metaphysis
B) primary ossification center
C) secondary ossification center
D) osteoid tissue
E) epiphyseal line
Q3) Hypercalcemia is rare,but hypocalcemia can result from a wide variety of conditions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any bony prominence is called a(n)___________.
A) epicondyle
B) tubercle
C) fossa
D) head
E) process
Q2) Which bone is a part of the skull and not just associated with it?
A) Incus
B) Malleus
C) Hyoid
D) Stapes
E) Vomer
Q3) The __________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone.
A) coronal
B) squamous
C) lambdoid
D) sagittal
E) frontal
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hinge joints,such as the tibiofemoral joint,are monoaxial.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An articulation is any point at which two bones meet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fibrocartilage pad between the medial condyle of the femur and the medial condyle of the tibia is called the __________.
A) anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B) posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
C) infrapatellar bursa
D) medial meniscus
E) lateral meniscus
Q4) The most movable joints are ___________ joints.
A) symphysis
B) synovial
C) syndesmosis
D) gomphosis
E) synchondrosis
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles of mastication would be responsible for mandibular elevation?
A) Temporalis
B) Lateral pterygoid
C) Stylohyoid
D) Zygomaticus major
E) Zygomaticus minor
Q2) Some people suffer involuntary urination due to incompetence of what muscle?
A) External urethral sphincter
B) Bulbospongiosus
C) Compressor urethrae
D) Ischiocavernosus
E) Levator ani
Q3) Which of the following muscles of facial expression is not innervated by the facial nerve?
A) Orbicularis oculi
B) Zygomaticus major
C) Corrugator supercilii
D) Levator palpebrae superioris
E) Buccinator
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deficiency of acetylcholine receptors leads to muscle paralysis in myasthenia gravis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement best describes the goal of medications used to treat myasthenia gravis?
A) To increase the number of acetylcholine receptors
B) To decrease the number of synaptic vesicles
C) To promote multiple motor unit summation
D) To inhibit Ca<sup>2+</sup> release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
E) To inhibit the function of cholinesterase
Q3) A myofilament that runs throught the core of a thick filament and anchors it to a Z disc is called a(n)__________.
A) myofibril
B) thin filament
C) T tubule
D) sarcolemma
E) elastic filament
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurotransmitter excites skeletal muscle and inhibits cardiac muscle?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Dopamine
C) Histamine
D) Acetylcholine
E) -endorphin
Q2) Oligodendrocytes serve the same purpose in the CNS that satellite cells do in the PNS.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is another name for the autonomic nervous system?
A) Visceral sensory division
B) Somatic sensory division
C) Visceral motor division
D) Somatic motor division
E) Central nervous system
Q4) In the brain,neurons are more abundant than neuroglia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic
Reflexes
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Q1) The bundle of nerve roots that occupy the vertebral canal from L2 to S5 is called the
A) medullary cone
B) cauda equina
C) lumbar enlargement
D) cervical enlargement
E) spinal cord
Q2) Tendon organs are __________.
A) chemoreceptors
B) visceral receptors
C) proprioceptors
D) pain receptors
E) nociceptors
Q3) The upper motor neurons that control skeletal muscles begin with a neurosoma in the __________.
A) posterior horn of the spinal cord
B) anterior horn of the spinal cord
C) motor association cortex of the cerebrum
D) postcentral gyrus of the cerebrum
E) precentral gyrus of the cerebrum
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Loss of equilibrium and motor coordination would most likely be related to a lesion in which structure?
A) Limbic system
B) Pons
C) Pituitary gland
D) Medulla oblongata
E) Cerebellum
Q2) The pineal gland is part of which larger region of the brain?
A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Occipital lobe
D) Midbrain
E) Epithalamus
Q3) The epidural space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both cerebrum and cerebellum have gray matter in their surface cortex and deeper nuclei,and white matter deep to the cortex.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Q1) Most autonomic efferent pathways involve one neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sympathetic nerve fibers are not associated with situations involving __________.
A) anger
B) digestion
C) exercise
D) stress
E) arousal
Q3) The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following except the
A) adrenal gland
B) smooth muscle in the walls of the aorta
C) cardiac muscle in the right atrium
D) skeletal muscle in the rectus abdominis
E) parotid salivary gland
Q4) The adrenal medulla is a modified sympathetic ganglion. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do pheromones stimulate?
A) Hair cells
B) Supporting cells
C) Taste cells
D) Olfactory cells
E) Olfactory glands
Q2) What event causes rhodopsin to go from violet to clear in color?
A) Cis-retinal straightens to become trans-retinal
B) Cis-retinal bends to become trans-retinal
C) Trans-retinal straightens to become cis-retinal
D) Trans-retinal bends to become cis-retinal
Q3) Where do most second-order somesthetic neurons synapse with third-order neurons?
A) Midbrain
B) Thalamus
C) Spinothalamic tract
D) Hypothalamus
E) Postcentral gyrus
Q4) The ossicles belong to the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
18
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Negative feedback inhibition occurs when __________.
A) thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)targets the anterior pituitary
B) thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)causes the anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)targets the thyroid gland
D) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)targets the thyroid gland
E) thyroid hormone (TH)targets the anterior pituitary
Q2) Which of the following enters a target cell's nucleus and acts directly on the genes.
A) Insulin
B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) Estrogen
D) Glucagon
E) Oxytocin (OT)
Q3) Which of the following is not secreted by the pancreas?
A) Glucagon
B) Insulin
C) Gastrin
D) Somatostatin (growth hormone-inhibiting hormone)
E) Somatotropin (growth hormone)
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Q1) The viscosity of blood is due more to the presence of __________ than to any other factor.
A) fibrin
B) albumin
C) sodium
D) erythrocytes
E) nitrogenous wastes
Q2) Incompatibility of one person's blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs' antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by __________.
A) a self-amplifying mechanism
B) an enzymatic amplification
C) a positive feedback loop
D) a negative feedback loop
E) a cascade effect
Q4) The liver stores excess iron in ferritin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Q1) The cardiac plexus and cardiac nerves dominate the innervation of the heart and contains both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Exercise causes the ventricles to hypertrophy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The __________ are the superior chambers of the heart and the _________ are the inferior chambers of the heart.
A) visceral percardia;parietal pericardia
B) ventricles;atria
C) atria;ventricles
D) left ventricles;right ventricles
E) left atria;right atria
Q4) The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) The pulmonary circuit is the only route in which arteries carry less oxygen than veins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following constitutes the principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs?
A) The branches of the celiac trunk
B) The azygos system
C) The mesenteric circulation
D) The hepatic portal system
E) The coronary and pulmonary veins
Q3) The three primary branches of the celiac trunk are the common hepatic,left gastric,and splenic veins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood flow is pulsatile in arteries and veins,but it is steady in capillaries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) One group of proteolytic enzymes secreted by natural killer (NK)cells is
A) selectins
B) cytokines
C) granzymes
D) perforins
E) interferons
Q2) Any disease causing agent is a pathogen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does(do)not belong to the second line of defense?
A) The macrophage system
B) Natural killer cells
C) Inflammation
D) The gastric juices
E) Interferon and the complement system
Q4) Most Memory B cells are found circulating in the lymph.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Mucus plays an important role in cleansing inhaled air.It is produced by __________ of the respiratory tract.
A) squamous alveolar cells
B) great alveolar cells
C) the pleurae
D) ciliated cells
E) goblet cells
Q2) The expansion of the lungs during inspiration generates a pressure gradient causing air to flow into the lungs.This is an example of Boyle's law.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The addition of CO<sub>2</sub> to the blood generates __________ ions in the RBCs,which in turn stimulates RBCs to unload more oxygen.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) nitrogen
D) hydrogen
E) chloride
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not composed of cuboidal epithelium?
A) The thin segment of the nephron loop
B) The thick segment of the nephron loop
C) The collecting duct
D) The proximal convoluted tubule
E) The distal convoluted tubule
Q2) In the thick segment of the ascending limb of the nephron loop,K<sup>+</sup> reenters the cell from the interstitial fluid via the _________.K<sup>+</sup> is then secreted into the tubular fluid.
A) Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> pump
B) countercurrent multiplier
C) countercurrent exchange
D) vasa recta
E) juxtaglomerular apparatus
Q3) Which of the following is not found in the ureter?
A) Adventitia
B) Two layers of smooth muscle
C) Three layers of smooth muscle
D) Transitional epithelium
E) Skeletal muscle
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What determines osmosis from one fluid compartment to another?
A) The temperature difference between compartments
B) The relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
C) The relative volume in each compartment
D) The relative size of each compartment
E) The blood pressure
Q4) Where is the greatest volume of water in the body found?
A) Intracellular fluid (ICF)
B) Extracellular fluid(ECF)
C) Tissue(interstitial)fluid
D) Blood plasma and lymph
E) Transcellular fluid
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) Odor,sight,and taste stimulate salivatory nuclei in the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The surface of the tongue is covered with __________ stratified squamous epithelium,and has bumps called __________,where many taste buds can be found.
A) keratinized;lingual papillae
B) keratinized;lingual frenulum
C) nonkeratinized;lingual papillae
D) nonkeratinized;tonsils
E) nonkeratinized;vallate papillae
Q3) The oral phase of swallowing is under __________ control and the pharyngo-esophageal phase is __________.
A) central nervous system;also controlled by the central nervous system
B) central nervous system;controlled by autonomic reflexes
C) autonomic nervous system;controlled by autonomic reflexes
D) voluntary;also voluntary
E) involuntary;also involuntary
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) Incomplete fatty acid oxidation produces __________,which might lead to
A) triglycerides;new triglycerides
B) ketone bodies;acidosis
C) pyruvate;acidosis
D) glycerol;alkalosis
E) acetyl-CoA;acidosis
Q2) Most of the fat in the body is stored in what form?
A) LDL
B) HDL
C) Cholesterol
D) Triglycerides
E) Fatty acids
Q3) __________ yield about 4 kcal/g when completely oxidized,whereas
__________ yield about 9 kcal/g.
A) Proteins and carbohydrates;fats
B) Proteins;fats and carbohydrates
C) Fats;carbohydrates and proteins
D) Carbohydrates;fats and proteins
E) Carbohydrates and fats;proteins
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following does not play a role in thermoregulation of the testes?
A) The bulbospongiosus muscle
B) The cremaster
C) The pampiniform plexus of veins
D) The countercurrent heat exchanger
E) The dartos muscle
Q2) The golf-ball sized structure found inferior to the urinary bladder,and surrounding the most proximal portion of the urethra,is called the __________.
A) seminal vesicle
B) urethra
C) bulbourethral gland
D) prostate
E) ejaculatory duct
Q3) In meiosis,each parent cell produces __________.
A) two haploid (n)cells
B) four haploid (n)cells
C) two diploid (2n)cells
D) four diploid (2n)cells
E) haploid (n)cells that are identical to the parent cell
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) In the premenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle,which arteries rhythmically constrict and dilate causing endometrial ischemia?
A) Uterine
B) Arcuate
C) Spiral
D) Internal iliac
E) Ovarian
Q2) When does an ovum finish meiosis?
A) During fertilization
B) During implantation
C) While in a secondary follicle
D) While in a primary follicle
E) While in a tertiary follicle
Q3) The ovary receives blood from which artery/arteries?
A) Ovarian
B) Uterine
C) Ovarian and uterine
D) Broad
E) Ovarian and broad
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) Cleavage results in daughter cells containing half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The digital rays of a fetus give rise to __________.
A) arms and legs
B) ribs and intercostal muscles
C) fingers and toes
D) extensor digitorum muscles
E) radial muscles of the iris
Q3) The __________ encloses all the rest of the membranes and the embryo.
A) chorion
B) allantois
C) yolk sac
D) amnion
E) zona pellucida
Q4) Teratogens usually do not cause congenital anomalies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Q1) The frontal plane passes vertically through the body or an organ and divides it into equal right and left portions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The appendix is typically found in the right lower quadrant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The __________ cavity is inferior to the _____________ cavity.
A) cranial;thoracic
B) thoracic;abdominopelvic
C) pericardial;pleural
D) thoracic;peritoneal
E) thoracic;cranial
Q4) The superolateral regions of the abdomen are called the _________ regions.
A) epigastric
B) inguinal
C) hypochondriac
D) hypogastric
E) lateral abdominal
32
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