Human Anatomy and Physiology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology is a comprehensive course that explores the structure and function of the human body at both the microscopic and macroscopic levels. It covers the major organ systems, including the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will examine how these systems work independently and together to maintain homeostasis and overall health. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and interactive activities, the course emphasizes anatomical terminology, physiological mechanisms, and the integration of concepts fundamental to understanding the human body's complexity and adaptability.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology Lab Manual Main Version 2nd Edition by Stephen N. Sarikas
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640 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Body Organization and Terminology
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Q1) The knee is ________ to the ankle.
A) proximal
B) ipsilateral
C) distal
D) lateral
Answer: A
Q2) The ________ system defends against disease and infection.
A) muscular
B) lymphatic
C) skeletal
D) integumentary
Answer: B
Q3) As compared to a midsagittal plane,a parasagittal plane divides the body into
A) unequal left and right portions
B) anterior and posterior portions
C) equal left and right portions
D) superior and inferior portions
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Care and Use of the Compound Light Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability to distinguish close objects as separate and distinct is known as
A) working distance
B) field of view
C) resolving power
D) depth of field
Answer: C
Q2) As the resolving power of the objective lens increases,the working distance
A) increases
B) decreases
C) increases by a factor of 10
D) remains the same
Answer: B
Q3) All microscope lenses should be cleaned with ________.
A) lens paper
B) tissue paper
C) paper
D) paper towels
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Cell Division
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Q1) The ________ is usually the largest organelle in a eukaryotic cell.It contains the genetic material of the cell,which directs cellular activity.
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) lysosome
D) Golgi apparatus
Answer: A
Q2) The ________ produces ribosomes.
A) Golgi apparatus
B) nucleolus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) nucleus
Answer: B
Q3) The plasma membrane contains ________.
A) cholesterol
B) phospholipids
C) phospholipids and cholesterol
D) phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Membrane Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Substances tend to move from areas of ________ concentration to areas of ________ concentration.
A) similar; higher
B) higher; lower
C) lower; higher
D) similar; lower
Q2) Which of the following statements explains the observation that dye diffuses more quickly as temperature increases?
A) Random motion of particles decreases as temperature increases.
B) Random motion of particles increases as temperature decreases.
C) Random motion of particles decreases as temperature decreases.
D) Random motion of particles increases as temperature increases.
Q3) At which temperature would the rate of diffusion of dye molecules be the lowest?
A) 25 degrees C
B) 10 degrees C
C) 95 degrees C
D) 5 degrees C
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6
Chapter 5: Tissues
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Q1) The epidermis of the skin is formed by multiple layers of flattened,irregularly shaped cells.The most superficial of these layers is filled with keratin.This type of epithelial tissue is classified as ________.
A) stratified cuboidal epithelium
B) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
C) simple squamous epithelium
D) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Q2) The basal lamina of ________ tissue attaches its cells to connective tissue.
A) epithelial
B) connective
C) reticular
D) adipose
Q3) ________ tissue delivers electrical impulses to target organs and facilitates the maintenance of homeostasis.
A) Muscle
B) Nervous
C) Connective
D) Epithelial
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) The two regions of the skin are the ________.
A) epidermis and dermis
B) stratum basale and epidermis
C) epidermis and hypodermis
D) dermis and hypodermis
Q2) Which of the following explains why tattoos are permanent?
A) Tattoo ink is deposited into the epidermis. These skin cells shed over time.
B) Tattoo ink is deposited into the hypodermis. Unlike the epidermis, cells in this region do not shed over time.
C) Tattoo ink is deposited into the epidermis. Unlike the dermis, cells in this region do not shed over time.
D) Tattoo ink is deposited into the dermis. Unlike the epidermis, cells in this region do not shed over time.
Q3) The production of melanin is dependent on environmental exposure.Which of the following activities would trigger the production of melanin?
A) sunbathing while on vacation in the Caribbean
B) walking outside on a rainy, overcast day
C) hanging out with friends while watching movies
D) swimming in an indoor pool
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Introduction to the Skeletal System and the Axial
Skeleton
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Q1) The interconnecting bony struts of spongy bone are known as ________.
A) Haversian canals
B) perforating canals
C) lacunae
D) trabeculae
Q2) Which of the following bones is a component of the hard palate?
A) ethmoid
B) maxilla
C) vomer
D) sella turcica
Q3) Which of the following bones contains the carotid canal?
A) sphenoid
B) palatine
C) temporal
D) occipital
Q4) Which of the following bones contains a diaphysis?
A) patella
B) carpal
C) sternum
D) tibia
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) What part of the pelvic girdle articulates with the head of the femur?
A) ilium
B) ischium
C) obturator foramen
D) acetabulum
Q2) Which of the following bones is located in the pectoral girdle?
A) humerus
B) sternum
C) ulna
D) scapula
Q3) Which of the following metatarsal bones articulates with the cuboid?
A) talus
B) metatarsal V
C) navicular
D) medial cuneiform
Q4) Which of the following carpal bones articulates with a metacarpal bone?
A) pisiform
B) trapezium
C) lunate
D) scaphoid
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Q1) Which of the following joints is representative of a gomphosis?
A) distal tibiofibular
B) joint between maxillae and upper teeth
C) squamous suture
D) coracoclavicular
Q2) What is the anatomical term for moving your mandible anteriorly?
A) elevation
B) protraction
C) depression
D) retraction
Q3) What is the anatomical term for when your palm is facing superiorly?
A) dorsiflexion
B) opposition
C) supination
D) pronation
Q4) What is the anatomical name for the knuckle joints?
A) intercarpal
B) radioulnar
C) metacarpophalangeal
D) intertarsal
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Skeletal Muscle
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Q1) Which of the following is a globular protein that binds to calcium?
A) tropomyosin
B) troponin
C) actin
D) myosin
Q2) What is the name for the region of the sarcomere that contains only thick filaments?
A) Z line
B) A band
C) H band
D) I band
Q3) What would most likely happen if there were a decrease in the number of acetylcholine receptors in an NMJ?
A) decreased neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft
B) increased sodium ion influx at the motor endplate
C) decreased action potential generation at the motor endplate
D) increased action potential generation at the motor endplate
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Chapter 11: Muscles of the Head, Neck, and Trunk
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Q1) During a focused breathing exercise,you feel your ribs elevate as you inhale.Which muscle or muscle group is responsible for this action?
A) internal intercostal muscles
B) external intercostal muscles
C) the transversus thoracis muscle
D) the diaphragm
Q2) Contraction of muscle results in movement because ________.
A) at a joint, the bone acts as a pulley and the joint serves as a lever
B) at a joint, the bone acts as a lever, the joint serves as a fulcrum, and effort is generated by muscle attached to bone
C) at a joint, the bone acts as a fulcrum and the joint serves as a pulley
D) at a joint, the bone acts as a fulcrum and the joint serves as a lever
Q3) Muscles of the head ________.
A) play an important role in breathing
B) facilitate movement of the facial features and promote mastication
C) allow voluntary eye movements
D) extend, laterally flex, and rotate the head
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Muscles of the Upper and Lower Limbs
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Q1) The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as an agonist for ________.
A) dorsiflexion at the ankle
B) flexion of the toe joints
C) eversion of the foot
D) plantar flexion at the ankle
Q2) Which of the following terms might be found in the name of a muscle that decreases the angle at a joint?
A) abductor
B) adductor
C) extensor
D) flexor
Q3) The latissimus dorsi ________.
A) extends, adducts, and medially rotates the shoulder
B) depresses and protracts the shoulder
C) extends, flexes, abducts, and medially and laterally rotates the shoulder
D) protracts the shoulder and rotates the scapula
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) Lifting a 25-lb barbell by flexing your forearm requires ________.
A) the biceps brachii to contract concentrically and the triceps brachii to contract eccentrically
B) eccentric contraction of both the biceps brachii and triceps brachii
C) the biceps brachii to contract eccentrically and the triceps brachii to contract concentrically
D) Isometric contraction of the biceps brachii and concentric contraction of the triceps brachii
Q2) Of the activities listed below,which relies primarily on isometric contractions?
A) answering the telephone
B) bending down to pick up a textbook
C) throwing a ball
D) sitting in an upright position
Q3) Production and accumulation of ________ in muscle cells leads to muscle fatigue.
A) lactic acid
B) ATP
C) glucose
D) glycogen
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15
Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) ________ neurons possess one axon and one dendrite.
A) Bipolar
B) Multipolar
C) Unipolar
D) Anaxonic
Q2) Complete the following statement: The posterior horn of the gray matter of the spinal cord ________.
A) contains the cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons in thoracic and lumbar spinal cord levels
B) contains the cell bodies of multipolar neurons that contribute motor fibers to spinal nerves
C) contains axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons
D) is a narrow band of tissue that connects the gray matter on each side of the spinal cord
Q3) The ________ is the layer of connective tissue that surrounds a nerve.
A) fascicle
B) perineurium
C) epineurium
D) axon
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following cranial nerves is associated with the sense of smell?
A) olfactory nerve (CN I)
B) oculomotor nerve (CN III)
C) vagus nerve (CN X)
D) optic nerve (CN II)
Q2) The ________ separates the two cerebral hemispheres.
A) longitudinal fissure
B) lateral sulcus
C) central sulcus
D) transverse cerebral fissure
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid produced in the lateral ventricles flows next to the ________.
A) third ventricle
B) choroid plexus
C) fourth ventricle
D) cerebral aqueduct of the midbrain
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Chapter 16: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) ________ is an area on the body monitored by a single sensory neuron.
A) The filum terminale
B) A receptive field
C) The conus medullaris
D) A dermatome
Q2) In the spinal cord,the grey matter is ________ to the white matter.
A) superficial
B) deep
C) superior
D) inferior
Q3) What is the role of the adipose tissue in the epidural space?
A) The adipose tissue conducts nerve impulses.
B) The adipose tissue in the epidural cushions dura mater and protects the nerves and blood vessels that it surrounds.
C) The adipose tissue of the epidural space produces myelin.
D) There is no known function of the adipose tissue in the epidural space.
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18
Chapter 17: Human Reflex Physiology
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Q1) Proprioception plays an important role in the ability to ________.
A) climb a rope
B) maintain balance while under the influence of alcohol or drugs
C) maintain hand-eye coordination
D) navigate through a dark home
Q2) Which element of a reflex arc is responsible for carrying out an action in response to a stimulus?
A) motor neuron
B) effector organ
C) sensory receptor
D) sensory neuron
Q3) What would be the clinical significance of a positive Babinski sign in an adult?
A) damage to the descending (motor) tracts in the spinal cord, indicating possible spinal cord damage
B) muscle spindle damage
C) incomplete myelination
D) sensory neuron damage in the spinal cord
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19
Chapter 18: Special Senses
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Q1) The sense of smell is also known as ________.
A) vision
B) olfaction
C) gustation
D) equilibrium
Q2) The sensory receptors for gustation are called ________.
A) papillae
B) taste buds
C) transitional cells
D) basal cells
Q3) According to a recent test using a Snellen chart,your roommate's vision is 20/70.What does this mean?
A) The results indicate that your roommate's eyesight is better than normal.
B) The results are consistent with normal visual ability.
C) The results indicate that objects that your roommate can see clearly at 20 feet can be seen clearly at 70 feet by a person with normal vision.
D) The results indicate that objects that your roommate can see clearly at 70 feet can be seen clearly at 20 feet by a person with normal vision.
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Chapter 19: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Which type of pancreatic cell produces somatostatin?
A) beta cells
B) F cells
C) alpha cells
D) delta cells
Q2) What structure secretes melatonin?
A) pineal gland
B) posterior pituitary
C) anterior pituitary
D) hypothalamus
Q3) Which of the following hormones is produced in the zona fasciculata?
A) glucocorticoids
B) mineralocorticoids
C) estrogens
D) androgens
Q4) Which cells of the pancreatic islets produce glucagon?
A) delta cells
B) F cells
C) beta cells
D) alpha cells
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Blood Cells
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Q1) A 22-year-old man has arrived in the emergency room following a motorcycle accident and needs a blood transfusion.He is wearing a medical bracelet that shows he is blood type B negative.Which of the following blood types could be transfused without complication?
A) O negative and B negative
B) B positive
C) O positive
D) AB negative
Q2) A young woman has been tired recently and went to see her physician.A blood test revealed a reduction in the oxygen-carrying capacity of her blood.What is the name of this condition?
A) leukemia
B) diapedesis
C) hemoglobin concentration
D) anemia
Q3) Which of the following cells do NOT contain a nucleus?
A) neutrophils
B) red blood cells
C) eosinophils
D) monocytes
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Chapter 21: Gross Anatomy of the Heart
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Q1) A blockage of the anastomoses of which vein would have the largest effect on the right ventricle?
A) posterior cardiac vein
B) middle cardiac vein
C) anterior cardiac vein
D) great cardiac vein
Q2) Which vessels open into the left atrium?
A) aorta
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary vein
D) superior vena cava
Q3) Which of the following structures is the opening that connects the atria in the fetal heart?
A) trabeculae carneae
B) conus arteriosus
C) foramen ovale
D) aortic vestibule
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Anatomy of Blood Vessels
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Q1) Which vein drains blood from the distal half of the large intestine?
A) superior mesenteric
B) splenic
C) inferior mesenteric
D) gastric
Q2) Blockage of which of the following arteries would most likely result in the greatest amount of brain damage?
A) anterior cerebral
B) internal carotid
C) middle cerebral
D) external carotid
Q3) A patient has shortness of breath,is experiencing severe chest pain,and is coughing up bloody sputum.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) varicose veins
B) atherosclerosis
C) venipuncture
D) pulmonary embolism
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following statements accurately describes the pressure in the atria and ventricles at the beginning of the cardiac cycle?
A) Pressure is highest in the atria and lowest in the ventricles.
B) Pressure is lowest in the atria and highest in the ventricles.
C) Pressure is equal in the chambers of the heart.
D) We're unsure of the pressure in the beginning of the cardiac cycle.
Q2) The artery at the pulse point found at the popliteal fossa is the ________.
A) popliteal artery
B) common carotid artery
C) superficial temporal artery
D) radial artery
Q3) The term ________ means "relaxation," and the term ________ means "contraction."
A) diastole; systole
B) systole; diastole
C) systole; conduction
D) diastole; conduction
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Chapter 24: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the appendix?
A) The appendix is vestigial and serves no use whatsoever.
B) The appendix is an extension of the last segment of the small intestine.
C) The appendix's main role is absorbing fats.
D) The appendix contains lymphoid nodules similar to tonsils.
Q2) The ________ are lymphoid tissues located in and around the pharynx.
A) ducts
B) tonsils
C) lymphatic vessels
D) lymph nodes
Q3) The role of the tonsils is to ________.
A) protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infections
B) produce new lymphocytes
C) secrete thymosins
D) filter lymph before it is returned to the venous circulation
Q4) ________ are the primary cell type involved in the defense against pathogens.
A) Osteocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Fibroblasts
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Chapter 25: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Identify the airway type based on this description:The airway type is lined with squamous epithelium,cartilage is absent,goblet cells are absent,and ciliated cells are absent.
A) bronchiole
B) alveoli
C) trachea
D) primary bronchus
Q2) Of the cartilages associated with the larynx,which serve as attachment sites for muscles that regulate tension of the vocal cords during speech?
A) corniculate cartilages
B) cuneiform cartilages
C) cricoid cartilage
D) arytenoid cartilages
Q3) The vocal cords are located in the ________.
A) trachea
B) esophagus
C) larynx
D) pharynx
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Physiology
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Q1) The ________ is the primary inspiratory muscle in the body.
A) serratus anterior
B) rectus abdominis
C) diaphragm
D) internal oblique
Q2) The amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during one cycle of normal inhalation and exhalation is called the ________.
A) inspiratory capacity
B) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
C) vital capacity (VC)
D) tidal volume (VT)
Q3) What respiratory event occurs when intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure?
A) ventilation
B) exhalation
C) inhalation
D) Air movement does not occur.
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28
Chapter 27: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following is a retroperitoneal organ?
A) jejunum
B) liver
C) stomach
D) pancreas
Q2) Pepsinogen is released by which of the following gastric cell types?
A) mucous cells
B) G cells
C) chief cells
D) parietal cells
Q3) Which of the following structures cause a slow spiraling movement of chyme?
A) plicae circulares
B) teniae coli
C) rugae
D) haustra
Q4) Which of the following is the largest salivary gland?
A) sublingual
B) parotid
C) gastric glands
D) submandibular
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Chapter 28: Actions of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) What is a substance that increases the rate at which a chemical reaction will occur?
A) substrate
B) catalyst
C) polysaccharide
D) amylose
Q2) The breakdown of amylopectin in the presence of amylase and maltase will result in which of the following products?
A) galactose
B) glucose
C) sucrose
D) fructose
Q3) Which of the following can be broken down chemically by amylase?
A) lactose
B) glucose
C) amylopectin
D) sucrose
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Chapter 29: Anatomy of the Urinary System
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Q1) Which artery or arteriole exits the glomerulus?
A) vasa recta
B) efferent arteriole
C) cortical radiate artery
D) afferent arteriole
Q2) What type of epithelium is found lining the renal tubules and collecting ducts?
A) pseudostratified columnar epithelium
B) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) transitional epithelium
D) stratified squamous epithelium
Q3) What type of epithelium is found in the urethra near the junction with the urinary bladder?
A) transitional epithelium
B) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) stratified squamous epithelium
D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium
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Chapter 30: Urinary Physiology
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Q1) A patient's urine tests positive for large blood proteins and red blood cells.Which of the following conditions might the person have?
A) glomerulonephritis
B) ketonuria
C) diabetes mellitus
D) bilirubinuria
Q2) In patients with diabetes mellitus,which of the following components is most likely to be found in a urine sample?
A) ketone bodies
B) red blood cells
C) nitrites
D) bilirubin
Q3) Which of the following conditions is most likely to be seen during pregnancy?
A) ketonuria
B) hematuria
C) albuminuria
D) glucosuria
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Chapter 31: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The ________ both transports urine outside the body during urination and transports semen to the female reproductive tract during intercourse.
A) penis
B) ureter
C) ductus deferens
D) epididymis
Q2) The ________ is a fibrous capsule that covers each testis.
A) scrotal cavity
B) rete testis
C) tunica albuginea
D) serous membrane
Q3) What are the three regions of the urethra?
A) the penile urethra, the membranous urethra, and the prostatic urethra
B) the penile urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the deferens urethra
C) the ejaculatory urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the deferens urethra
D) the penile urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the prostatic urethra
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Chapter 32: The Female Reproductive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44912
Sample Questions
Q1) The perimetrium,myometrium,and endometrium are layers of the ________ wall.
A) ovarian
B) fallopian
C) vaginal
D) uterine
Q2) The clitoris and penis both become erect upon sexual arousal.What accounts for this similarity?
A) The clitoris and penis are both partially shrouded by a prepuce.
B) The clitoris and penis develop from the same embryonic tissue.
C) The clitoris and penis are homologous structures. Both have columns of erectile tissue.
D) The clitoris and penis are avascular, cylindrical structures.
Q3) Which phase of the uterine cycle is characterized by degradation of the functional zone?
A) uterine phase
B) menstrual phase
C) proliferative phase
D) secretory phase
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