Human Anatomy and Physiology Exam Review
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive exploration of the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing both anatomy (the study of form) and physiology (the study of function). Students will examine major body systems including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems highlighting how these systems interrelate to maintain overall health. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and hands-on activities, learners will gain practical knowledge of the body's organization from the cellular level to integrated organ systems, preparing them for advanced study in health sciences and allied fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
4487 Verified Questions
4487 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process that occurs when a cell, tissue, organ, or organ system adjusts in response to some environmental change is
A) negative feedback.
B) positive feedback.
C) homeostatic equilibrium.
D) dynamic equilibrium.
E) autoregulation.
Answer: E
Q2) While standing in the anatomical position,
A) front refers to anterior.
B) front refers to ventral.
C) back refers to posterior.
D) back refers to dorsal.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs, heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, major blood vessels connected to the heart
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a function of steroids?
A) They are a significant energy reserve for the body.
B) They are structural components of the plasm membrane.
C) They are involved in regulation of sexual function.
D) They regulate tissue metabolism and mineral balance.
E) They are required for normal processing of dietary fats.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements about water is false?
A) It is composed of polar molecules.
B) It is responsible for much of the mass of the human body.
C) It has a relatively low heat capacity.
D) It can dissolve many substances.
E) It contains hydrogen bonds.
Answer: C
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
Q4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the A) ribosomes.
B) rough ER.
C) smooth ER.
D) Golgi apparatus.
E) mitochondria.
Answer: C
Q2) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane may be influenced by all of the following except
A) the availability of ATP.
B) the presence of membrane channels for the substance.
C) its charge of the substance.
D) its concentration gradient.
E) its lipid solubility.
Answer: A
Q3) Differentiate between transcription and translation.
Answer: In transcription, RNA polymerase uses the nucleotide sequence on DNA to construct a complementary strand of mRNA. In translation, ribosomes use information carried by the mRNA strand and tRNA to synthesize the corresponding polypeptide.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about tissues is correct?
A) Tissues are always in the form of sheets of cells.
B) All the organs of an organ system are composed of a single tissue type.
C) A tissue is composed of a single type of cell.
D) An organ combines several different tissues.
E) Tissues are microscopic, and invisible to the naked eye.
Q2) Voluntary movements are carried out by the contraction of
A) nonstriated muscle.
B) all types of muscle.
C) smooth muscle.
D) skeletal muscle.
E) cardiac muscle.
Q3) ________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells.
A) Nurse cells
B) Neuroglia
C) Neurons
D) Nurturons
E) Nutrient cells
Q4) Which is likely to heal faster, a bone injury or a cartilage injury? Why?
Q5) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
Q2) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
Q3) What types of glands are found in the skin? (Figure 5-1)
A) salivary glands and submucosal glands
B) endocrine glands and salivary glands
C) mucus glands and submucosal glands
D) sebaceous glands and sweat glands
E) cerumen glands and endocrine glands
Q4) A deficiency disease that illustrates the effect of integumentary system function on the structure of the skeletal system is
A) osteoporosis.
B) seborrheic dermatitis.
C) decubitus ulcers.
D) rickets.
E) beriberi.
Q5) Explain how skin helps to thermally regulate body temperature.
Q6) Vanessa's 80-year-old grandmother sets her thermostat at 26°C (80°F) and wears a sweater on balmy springdays. When asked why, the grandmother says she feels cold. What is a possible cause for her feeling cold?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that secrete protein fibers in bone are called
A) osteolytic cells.
B) osteoclasts.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteocytes.
E) osteogenic cells.
Q2) In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of
A) osteoid matrix.
B) calcium carbonate.
C) hydroxyapatite.
D) calcitriol.
E) proteolytic enzymes.
Q3) A rib is an example of a ________ bone.
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) sutural
E) sesamoid
Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
Q5) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex except the ________ bone.
A) lacrimal
B) nasal
C) sphenoid
D) ethmoid
E) frontal
Q2) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone.
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) ethmoid
D) occipital
E) temporal
Q3) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and the A) transverse spinous processes.
B) dorsal spinous processes.
C) laminae.
D) costal facets.
E) intervertebral disc.
Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lower leg bone does not carry any body weight?
A) talus
B) tibia
C) navicular
D) fibula
E) calcaneus
Q2) Identify the incorrect descriptor of congenital talipes equinovarus (club foot).
A) due to inappropriately developed arches
B) may involve one or both feet
C) may affect the tibia, ankle, and foot
D) feet are turned laterally and everted
E) may be treated with casts or supports in infancy
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the four proximal carpal bones?
A) scaphoid
B) lunate
C) pisiform
D) hamate
E) triquetrum
Q4) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoralgirdle?
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and maintain the alignment of thefemoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments.
A) cruciate
B) fibular collateral
C) patellar
D) popliteal
E) tibial collateral
Q2) A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, called A) eversion.
B) protraction.
C) dorsiflexion.
D) plantar flexion.
E) inversion.
Q3) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
Q4) Explain how the structure of synovial fluid allows it to function as a lubricant in a joint.
Q5) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?
Q6) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The repeating unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the A) sarcolemma.
B) sarcomere.
C) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D) myofibril.
E) myofilament.
Q2) A patient takes a medication that blocks ACh receptors of skeletal muscle fibers. What is this drug's effect on skeletal muscle contraction?
A) increases tone in the muscle
B) causes a strong contraction similar to a "charlie horse" cramp
C) increases the muscle's excitability
D) produces a strong, continuous state of contraction
E) reduces the muscle's ability for contraction
Q3) The ability of smooth muscle to function over a wide range of lengths is called A) elasticity.
B) contractility.
C) extensibility.
D) plasticity.
E) variability.
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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152 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to
A) flex the forearm.
B) extend the forearm.
C) abduct the forearm.
D) adduct the forearm.
E) extend the carpals.
Q2) Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression?
A) buccinator
B) depressor labii
C) risorius
D) masseter
E) mentalis
Q3) The muscle that raises the corners of the mouth as when smiling is the ________ muscle.
A) orbicularis oculi
B) zygomaticus major
C) orbicularis oris
D) masseter
E) buccinator
Q4) How do first-, second-, and third-class levers differ?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of nerve fiber possesses the fastest speed of impulse propagation?
A) type A
B) type B
C) type C
D) type D
E) type E
Q2) In which area of the graph do you see a sudden rush of sodium ions into the neuron?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called
A) neurillema.
B) nodes of Ranvier.
C) axolemma.
D) terminals.
E) vesicles.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preganglionic fibers that connect a spinal nerve with an autonomic ganglion in the thoracic and lumbarregion of the spinal cord and carries visceral motor fibers that are myelinated form the
A) white rami communicantes.
B) gray rami communicantes.
C) posterior ramus.
D) anterior ramus.
E) dermatomes.
Q2) A motor neuron typically receives input from neurons that originate in various areas of the brain. Thistype of circuit is a
A) divergent circuit.
B) convergent circuit.
C) serial processing circuit.
D) parallel processing circuit.
E) reverberating circuit.
Q3) Sometimes, when it is difficult to initiate a knee-jerk reflex by tapping the patellar tendon, a patientwill be asked to voluntarily make a fist. Then the reflex will be easily evoked. What does this illustrate about the relation between voluntary and involuntary reflex movement?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex.
A) primary sensory
B) primary motor
C) visual
D) olfactory
E) auditory
Q2) Which of the following is true about the cerebral cortex?
A) It is a deep layer of gray matter.
B) It is a superficial layer of gray matter.
C) It is a deep layer of white matter.
D) It is a superficial layer of white matter.
E) It is a deep layer of both white and gray matter.
Q3) The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue.
A) 15 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 68 percent
D) 97 percent
E) 35 percent
Q4) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "5."
A) ventral root
B) upper motor neuron
C) first-order neuron
D) second-order neuron
E) dorsal root
Q2) Which of the following is a progressive, degenerative disorder that affects upper and lower motor neurons causing skeletal muscle atrophy?
A) cerebral palsy
B) stroke
C) paralysis
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E) multiple sclerosis
Q3) Which motor pathway does not end in the spinal cord?
A) corticobulbar tract
B) corticospinal tract
C) vestibulospinal tract
D) tectospinal tract
E) rubrospinal tract
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane binds to norepinephrine, the synapse is called
A) cholinergic.
B) anergic.
C) adrenergic.
D) synergic.
E) noradrenergic.
Q2) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic region are called________ ganglia.
A) intramural
B) collateral
C) chain
D) paravertebral
E) adrenal
Q3) Parasympathetic blocking agents can be useful in treating A) heart failure.
B) high blood pressure.
C) urinary incontinence.
D) hyperactivity.
E) excessive sweating.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Light refraction takes place at the
A) cornea and lens.
B) lens only.
C) optic disc.
D) cornea and optic disc.
E) cornea only.
Q2) Robbie has been diagnosed with pigmentary glaucoma. In this type of glaucoma, pigment granules from the irisbreak off into the aqueous humor. Describe the steps of aqueous humor formation, circulation, and drainage and how glaucoma may develop.
Q3) Which structure is known as the vestibule?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
E) 11
Q4) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing?
Q5) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
Q6) How would blockage of the auditory (Eustachian) tube at its exit in the nasopharynx by lymphatic tissue ("adenoids") affect ear function and health?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone that opposes the release of FSH in both males and females is A) testosterone.
B) LH.
C) inhibin.
D) aldosterone.
E) somatostatin.
Q2) Hyposecretion of cortisol causes
A) goiter.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) Addison's disease.
E) Cushing's disease.
Q3) Which of the following hormones stimulates skeletal muscle fibers to take in glucose from the blood?
A) calcitonin
B) cortisol
C) insulin
D) glucagon
E) parathyroid hormone
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false?
A) Red cells are biconcave discs.
B) Red cells lack mitochondria.
C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter.
D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen.
E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux.
Q2) A person's blood type is determined by the
A) size of the RBCs.
B) volume of the RBCs.
C) chemical composition of the hemoglobin.
D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.
E) shape of the RBCs.
Q3) The waste product bilirubin is produced from
A) globin chains of hemoglobin.
B) heme molecules plus iron.
C) heme molecules lacking iron.
D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules.
E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.
Q4) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is not one of them?
A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size.
B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus.
C) Cardiac muscle cells branch.
D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs.
E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules.
Q2) The ________ is the difference between the resting and maximal cardiac output.
A) end-systolic volume
B) end-diastolic volume
C) cardiac reserve
D) stroke volume
E) ejection fraction
Q3) The bicuspid or mitral valve is located
A) in the opening of the aorta.
B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk.
C) where the venae cavae join the right atrium.
D) between the right atrium and right ventricle.
E) between the left atrium and left ventricle.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following except
A) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure.
B) inhibition of EPO secretion.
C) activation of ADH secretion.
D) activation of aldosterone secretion.
E) increased thirst and water intake.
Q2) The ________ vein ascends along the ulnar side of the forearm.
A) cephalic
B) basilic
C) brachial
D) median cubital
E) ulnar
Q3) Trained athletes tend to have ________ heart rates and ________ stroke volumes than nonathletes at rest.
A) higher; higher
B) lower; lower
C) higher; lower
D) lower; higher
E) similar; higher
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a(n) ________, either the immune system fails to develop normally or the immune response is blocked.
A) autoimmune disease
B) immunodeficiency disease
C) allergic response
D) cross-reaction
E) agglutination reaction
Q2) During a primary humoral response to antigens all of the following occur except A) B cells may differentiate into plasma cells immediately.
B) B cells may undergo several rounds of mitosis before producing plasma cells and memory cells.
C) antibody levels do not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure.
D) neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances.
E) the first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type.
Q3) Explain what MALT is and give a couple of examples? What role does it play in the body's defenses?
Q4) List and briefly describe the four general properties of adaptive immunity.
Q5) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphatic system.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The beating of the cilia of the respiratory passages in the direction of the pharynx forms a(n)
A) debris filter.
B) mucus escalator.
C) respiratory rhythmicity center.
D) smooth slick surface allowing particles to slide.
E) increased surface area for gas exchange.
Q2) Which is not a reason gas exchange is efficient at the blood air barrier?
A) Partial pressure differences are substantial.
B) Distance is short.
C) Surface area is large.
D) Gap junctions facilitate fast movement.
E) Gases are lipid soluble.
Q3) If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs?
A) It decreases.
B) It increases and possibly damages the lungs.
C) It increases twice the amount of the increase in volume.
D) It remains constant.
E) It increases.
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the layer labeled "3"?
A) mucosa
B) submucosa
C) muscularis externa
D) muscularis mucosae
E) serosa
Q2) Put the following layers of the digestive tract wall in order from the lumen to the deepest layer.
1) lamina propria
2) muscularis externa
3) submucosa
4) digestive (mucous) epithelium
5) serosa
6) muscularis mucosae
A) 5, 2, 3, 6, 1, 4
B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5
C) 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5
D) 5, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3
E) 1, 4, 3, 6, 2, 5
Q3) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does beta-oxidation take place? (Figure 25-7)
A) blood plasma
B) in the plasma membrane of cells
C) in the cytoplasm of cells
D) in the mitochondria
E) in the Golgi apparatus
Q2) The vitamin that is part of the coenzyme NAD is
A) thiamine.
B) riboflavin.
C) niacin.
D) folic acid (folate).
E) cobalamin.
Q3) The loss of heat energy by vaporizing water is called A) radiation.
B) conduction.
C) convection.
D) evaporation.
E) transmission.
Q4) Ketosis develops in the postabsorptive state. What is ketosis? Why does it develop? What metabolic effects does it have?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of cotransporters and countertransporters are linked to the reabsorption of what ion?
A) hydrogen
B) sodium
C) potassium
D) bicarbonate
E) chloride
Q2) Modified smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that secrete renin are called
A) macula densa cells.
B) juxtaglomerular cells.
C) extraglomerular mesangial cells.
D) podocytes.
E) principal cells.
Q3) Blood leaves the glomerulus through a blood vessel called the A) afferent arteriole.
B) efferent arteriole.
C) vasa recta.
D) interlobular arteriole.
E) renal vein.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water molecules move across cells by A) osmosis.
B) primary active transport.
C) secondary active transport.
D) activity of the sodium-potassium pump.
E) phagocytosis.
Q2) In an adult female, the body consists of about ________ percent water.
A) 60
B) 50
C) 40
D) 70
E) 80
Q3) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder metabolic alkalosis?
A) consequence of hyperventilation (for example, in fever or mental illness)
B) consequence of prolonged vomiting
C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation (for example, due to COPD)
D) consequence of tissue hypoxia (for example, in ischemic conditions)
E) consequence of strenuous exercise
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pocket formed between the uterus and the posterior wall of the bladder is the A) vestibule.
B) vesico-uterine pouch.
C) recto-uterine pouch.
D) broad ligament.
E) uterine hilum.
Q2) The cessation of menstruation after no more developing follicles remain is called
A) dysmenorrhea.
B) detumescence.
C) menopause.
D) menses.
E) amenorrhea.
Q3) What is the thickest portion of the uterine wall?
A) functional layer of the endometrium
B) basal layer of the endometrium
C) myometrium
D) perimetrium
E) epimetrium
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) What is the name and function of the outer cell layer of a blastocyst? (Figure 29-2)
A) inner cell mass; become the yolk sac
B) morula; become the amniotic fluid
C) trophoblast; provide nutrients
D) blastomere; implant into the uterine wall
E) blastocoele; form the embryo
Q2) Oxygenated blood from the placenta returns to the fetus in the A) allantois.
B) umbilical vein.
C) umbilical arteries.
D) decidua capsularis.
E) umbilical capillaries.
Q3) The goal of labor is childbirth, also termed
A) gestation.
B) development.
C) parturition.
D) abortion.
E) senescence.
Q4) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?
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