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Human Anatomy and Physiology Exam Questions - 1618 Verified Questions

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Human Anatomy and Physiology

Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Human Anatomy and Physiology provides a comprehensive exploration of the structure and function of the human body. The course examines the organization of the major organ systems including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, reproductive, endocrine, and integumentary systems and explains how they interact to maintain homeostasis. Emphasis is placed on the physiological mechanisms underlying health and disease, as well as the anatomical features that enable human life. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and clinical correlations, students gain a foundational understanding essential for further study in health, medicine, and biological sciences.

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Biology of Humans Concepts Applications and Issues 4th Edition by Judith Goodenough

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Chapter 1: Humans in the World of Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A scientist discovers an unidentified organism composed of multiple cells.Of the choices listed,the most likely classification would be ________.

A)Archaea

B)bacteria

C)fungi

D)Any of the above could be correct.

Answer: C

Q2) ________ are traits that enable an organism to survive and reproduce in its natural environment.

Answer: Adaptive traits

Q3) Cells that possess a nucleus and are complex due to a membrane system that establishes internal compartments belong in which of the following groups?

A)eukaryotic

B)virus

C)Archaea

D)bacteria

Answer: A

Q4) A(n)________ is a group of similar cells that perform the same function. Answer: tissue

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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes to Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) An element with more or fewer neutrons than the same element as it appears on the periodic table is known as which of the following terms?

A)ion

B)buffer

C)isotope

D)isomer

Answer: C

Q2) A(n)________ is a polymer that forms muscle,bone,hair,and other structural components of the body.

Answer: protein

Q3) Oxygen,with an atomic number of 8,is a neutral atom and would have ________ electrons in the first electron shell and ________ electrons in the second electron shell.

A)1; 7

B)5; 3

C)4; 4

D)2; 6

E)3; 5

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: The Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) They serve as the working parts of cilia and flagella.

A)Microtubules

B)ATP

C)Glycolysis

D)Electron transport chain

E)Plasma membrane

F)Flagella

G)Cristae

H)Citric acid cycle

Answer: A

Q2) Why might the lungs of smokers look dirtier than those of nonsmokers,assuming all other things in their lives are similar? What organelle is involved?

Answer: The cilia in cells lining respiratory passages normally sweep debris from those tubes; however,in cigarette smokers,the cilia are immobilized.Therefore,the lungs of smokers would logically accumulate more airborne contaminants.

Q3) The organelle known as the ________ makes phospholipids.

Answer: smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Q4) ________ are membrane proteins that aid adjoining cells to stick to each other.

Answer: CAMs (cellular adhesion molecules)

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Chapter 4: Body Organization and Homeostasis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Glands that lack ducts and secrete hormones are called ________.

A)exocrine

B)endocrine

C)scent

D)mammary

Q2) ________ is the pigment produced by melanocytes that gives skin its color.

Q3) Which of the following cavities has the highest density of cardiac muscle tissue?

A)pleural cavity

B)abdominal cavity

C)thoracic cavity

D)cranial cavity

Q4) Nutrients reach cells in the epidermis by ________.

A)moving out of dermal blood vessels and diffusing through tissue fluid to the epidermis

B)moving out of blood vessels in the epidermis

C)moving out of blood vessels that originate in the hypodermis and extend into the epidermis

D)All of the above are true.

Q5) A tendon or ligament is made up principally of ________ tissue.

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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System

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Q1) Vertebrae in the neck are classified as ________ vertebrae.

Q2) Two small bones found at the corner of the eyes that have a duct system that drains tears from the eyes into the nasal chambers are ________.

A)lacrimal

B)frontal

C)occipital

D)temporal

Q3) The number of bones in a newborn exceeds the number of bones in an adult.Why would the number of bones decrease over time?

A)Some bones are lost due to replacement, like the loss of baby teeth.

B)As some bones grow larger others do not and are no longer needed.

C)The bones of a baby are more fragile than an adult, so more are needed to support the weight of the body.

D)Some of the bones of babies will eventually fuse together to become one larger bone.

Q4) Why would a tall woman be at less risk of osteoporosis than a short woman,yet both would be at higher risk than a man?

Q5) Briefly explain the formation of bone in the human body.

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Chapter 6: The Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a muscle is stimulated prior to full relaxation of a previous contraction and the second stimuli is added to the first contraction,it is referred to as ________.

A)tetanus

B)twitch

C)fatigue

D)summation

Q2) During muscle contraction the heads of myosin filaments pull actin filaments toward the center of a ________.

Q3) Compare and contrast the physiological effects of steroid use to increase and improve performance in both genders.

Q4) Overuse,misuse,and age are some of the factors that contribute to excessive stress on a tendon,causing inflammation known as ________.

A)bursitis

B)tetanus

C)tendinitis

D)spasms

Q5) A(n)________ is a motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates.

Q6) A muscle will ________ if levels of calcium and potassium decrease in the blood.

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Chapter 7: Neurons: the Matter of the Mind

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some nerves are myelinated,others are not.Myelinated nerves send signals faster than unmyelinated neurons.Draw two neurons of equal length and wrap segments of myelin along one.Be careful to leave spaces for the nodes of Ranvier.Now,measure the exposed axons of each and total up the distance.Describe why the myelinated neurons send signals faster.

Q2) Where are neurotransmitters stored in a neuron?

A)axon

B)synaptic knob

C)dendrites

D)cell body

Q3) Which neurotransmitter appears to be associated with an energizing "good" feeling and is essential in hunger,thirst,and sex drive?

A)dopamine

B)serotonin

C)norepinephrine

D)synapse

Q4) Explain the anatomy of a typical neuron.

Q5) ________ are numerous short,branching projections from the neuron that create a huge surface for receiving signals from other cells.

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Chapter 8: The Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Shawfiq must have a benign tumor removed from his brain.The surgeon tells him that only local anesthesia will be administered as she cuts through Shawfiq's scalp,and that he will remain conscious the whole time.Shawfiq is really nervous about this because the brain seems to be a very sensitive area to have surgery on,particularly while he is wide awake.Explain to him why he shouldn't be so nervous.

Q2) Arnold was involved in a major traffic accident and some of his spinal nerves were cut.What are his chances for a full recovery? Please explain your answer.

Q3) The thin outer layer (1- to 2-mm thick)of each hemisphere of the brain that serves to increase the surface area by being arranged in a folded manner is called the ________.

Q4) While driving down the Interstate at rush hour,you get cut off by an 18-wheeler and have to slam on the brakes.In addition to a major case of road rage,you also develop a rapid heart rate and breathing rate.What caused this increase? (Indicate branch of the nervous system and neurotransmitters.)What is happening to your digestion at this point?

Q5) When you feel a mosquito on your arm,you are consciously aware of it in the ________ in the cerebrum.

Q6) ________ memory stores large amounts of information for hours,days,or years.

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Chapter 9: Sensory Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) When pressure builds in this area,the blood vessels supplying the rods and cones may collapse.The area where the pressure may rise is called the ________.

A)vitreous humor

B)posterior chamber

C)anterior chamber

D)tear glands

Q2) When you look at a picture of a dog and then correctly identify it,what have you done in your conscious mind?

A)proprioception

B)perception

C)photoreception

D)podsolization

Q3) The ________ helps you to know the position of your head with respect to gravity when you are not moving.

Q4) Hearing loss results from prolonged exposure to sound over ________

A)85 dB

B)100 dB

C)60 dB

D)This has not yet been determined.

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Chapter 10: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The connection between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary is ________.

A)circulatory

B)neural

C)via special ducts

D)There is no connection.

Q2) ________,from the pancreatic islets,causes the liver to increase the breakdown of glycogen.

Q3) Govingee,35 years old,has recently become lethargic and his skin feels very cool but puffy to the touch.When you take his pulse,you note that it seems abnormally low.What condition might Govingee have?

A)low thyroid hormone

B)excess calcitonin

C)accumulating aldosterone

D)low growth hormone

Q4) Lian,at 12 years old,was barely 3 feet tall.What hormone might she take to grow taller?

A)growth hormone

B)estrogen

C)aldosterone

D)calcitonin

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Chapter 11: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) The granulocytes are white blood cells that include ________,________,and

Q2) Which protein transports oxygen in the blood stream?

A)plasminogen

B)hemoglobin

C)erythropoietin

D)thrombin

Q3) ________ is the process whereby cells engulf pathogens and foreign substances.

Q4) Leukocytes that contain granules in the cytoplasm that function to destroy invading bacteria or other pathogens.

A)White blood cells

B)Basophils

C)Formed elements

D)Red blood cells

E)Plasma

F)Plasmin

G)Stem cells

H)Granulocytes

I)Platelets

J)Agranulocytes

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Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which sequence is correct?

A)right ventricle > aorta > renal vein

B)left ventricle > aorta > coronary artery

C)left atrium > superior vena cava > renal artery

D)right atrium > superior vena cava > coronary artery

Q2) A heart ________ is an indication of disturbed blood flow due to a damaged heart valve.

Q3) This simple practice will reduce your chance of heart disease and stroke.

A)Veins

B)Thymus

C)Tonsils

D)Jugular veins

E)Circulatory

F)Aorta

G)Capillaries

H)Exercise

I)Pulmonary veins

J)Spleen

Q4) Because the sinoatrial node sends out impulses that initiate each heartbeat,it is often referred to as the ________ of the heart.

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Chapter 13: Body Defense Mechanisms

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Sample Questions

Q1) These occur when the immune system fails to properly identify self from non-self,which results in an attack on the tissues or organs.

A)Eosinophils

B)Autoimmune disorders

C)Third line of defense

D)Neutrophils

E)Plasma cells

F)Second line of defense

G)Cytotoxic T cells

H)First line of defense

I)Mast cells

Q2) ________ are organisms capable of invading the body and causing disease.

Q3) The ________ occurs when body tissues are injured or damaged,and includes redness,heat,and swelling.

Q4) One type of bacteria,called gram-negative bacteria,has a pyrogen molecule that is part of its membrane structure.This endogenous pyrogen is released when the cell is destroyed by the immune system.Why would a severe gram-negative bacterial infection be particularly dangerous to a patient?

Q5) ________ are lymphocytes that mature in the thymus.

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Chapter 14: The Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the intercostal muscles contract,pulling the rib cage upward and outward and causing the lungs to inflate,it is called ________.

A)inspiration

B)expiration

C)exhalation

D)deflation

Q2) Cockroach feces and shed skins can cause a severe inflammatory response in the bronchioles and muscle spasms in the bronchiole smooth muscles.When this happens,we say the person has ________.

A)laryngitis

B)emphysema

C)asthma

D)TB

Q3) People who fight forest fires for a living might have trouble blowing out the candles on their birthday cake because their ________ is reduced.

A)tidal volume

B)expiratory reserve volume

C)residual volume

D)vision

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Chapter 15: The Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Carlotta developed indigestion and pain under her navel over the weekend.As the workweek progressed,the pain worsened and moved to a point in the lower right abdomen and she started to vomit and experience nausea and fever.You suspect that she is suffering from ________.

A)peptic ulcer

B)heartburn

C)colorectal cancer

D)appendicitis

Q2) Three pairs of glands that secrete fluids,moisten and lubricate food,and contain digestive enzymes that hydrolyze starches.

A)Gallbladder

B)Appendix

C)Stomach

D)Rectum

E)Esophageal cancer

F)Large intestine

G)Mouth

H)Cirrhosis

I)Small intestine

J)Salivary glands

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Page 17

Chapter 16: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 45-year-old diabetic has entered the hospital.Routine blood work shows that his blood pH is dropping and is currently at 7.3 (normal blood pH is about 7.4).Explain something that could be going on in the kidneys to cause a drop in blood pH.If the acidosis cannot be reversed quickly,what type of immediate treatment might the patient need to restore kidney function? There are two types of this treatment.How do they differ from each other? What sorts of complications might be expected?

Q2) The system that eliminates nitrogenous wastes,excess water,salts,and excess ions from the body.

A)Respiratory

B)Urinalysis

C)Urinary

D)Kidneys

E)Tubular secretion

F)Nephrons

G)Digestive

H)Urinary bladder

I)Urethra

J)Ureters

Q3) Compare and contrast hemodialysis and CAPD.

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Chapter 17: Reproductive Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The opening of the uterus that extends into the vagina.

A)Prostate gland

B)Oviduct

C)Penis

D)Glans penis

E)Ovaries

F)Endometrium

G)Vas deferens

H)Cervix

I)Uterus

J)Seminal vesicle

K)Vagina

L)Testis

Q2) The hormones FSH and LH are produced by the ________.

Q3) The external genitalia or ________ are the reproductive structures that lie outside the vagina.

Q4) ________ stimulates the production of testosterone by the interstitial cells of the testis.

Q5) Cells that are located between the seminiferous tubules of the testis and whose function is to produce androgens are called ________.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Development Throughout Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) The development of organ systems in the embryo is prioritized based on when the system is needed.One of the first organ systems to develop in the embryo is the ________ system,while one of the last systems to develop is the ________ system.

A)nervous; circulatory

B)digestive; reproductive

C)nervous; respiratory

D)excretory; respiratory

Q2) Compare and contrast breast-feeding with bottle-feeding infants.

Q3) A(n)________ occurs when the blastocyst implants outside the uterus.

Q4) What are some of the possible factors associated with aging?

Q5) ________ are blocks of mesoderm that eventually form skeletal muscles of the neck and trunk,connective tissue,and vertebrae.

Q6) A baby is born with spina bifida,which is a neural tube defect.This problem most likely initiated at which time in development?

A)the pre-embryonic period

B)the embryonic period

C)early in the fetal period

D)late in the fetal period

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Chapter 19: Chromosomes and Cell Division

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Q1) Which of the following phases of mitosis is not matched with the appropriate activities that occur during that phase?

A)anaphase: homologous pairs separate

B)telophase: new nuclear envelope forms and the mitotic spindle disassembles

C)prophase: nuclear membrane disappears

D)metaphase: chromosomes line up in the center of the cell

Q2) A process in which a sister chromatid inherited from the mother and a sister chromatid inherited from the father pair up and form tetrads and exchange DNA to form genetically diverse gametes is called ________.

A)cell cycle

B)prophase

C)cytokinesis

D)crossing over

Q3) The arrangement of an individual's chromosomes by size and centromere location is called the ________.

Q4) Suppose that mitosis was used to produce our gametes.What unique problems would be encountered?

Q5) Compare and contrast the processes of oogenesis and spermatogenesis.

Q6) The ________ cells are those body cells of humans that contain 23 chromosomes. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 20: Genetics and Human Inheritance

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Q1) ________ are genes that exist in more than two allelic forms.The genes responsible for the human ABO blood types are an example of this phenomenon.

Q2) Individuals that carry different alleles for a given gene are considered ________ for those alleles.

Q3) Albinism is an example of ________.

A)codominance

B)complete dominance

C)incomplete dominance

D)sex-influenced trait

Q4) When one gene causes multiple effects,it is called ________.

A)incomplete dominance

B)multiple alleles

C)codominance

D)pleiotropy

Q5) If two chromosomes have the same genes,they are said to be ________.

A)autosomal

B)polypeptides

C)homologues

D)traits

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Chapter 21: Dna and Biotechnology

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Q1) The ________ is used to convert the linear sequences of bases in DNA to the sequence of amino acids in proteins.

Q2) RNA usually is ________ stranded

Q3) An enzyme that binds with the promoter on DNA and then synthesizes mRNA.

A)Genome

B)DNA polymerases

C)Gene therapy

D)Guanine

E)Thymine

F)RNA polymerase

G)Codons

H)Biotechnology

I)Epigenetics

Q4) Genetically modified (GM)salmon have now been approved for sale in the United States.What concerns do you think people may have?

Q5) ________ are small pieces of DNA separate from the bacterial chromosome.

Q6) Why is DNA replication semi-conservative?

Q7) The manipulation of genetic material for human purposes,the practice of ________,began almost as soon as we began to understand the language of DNA.

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Chapter 22: Evolution and Our Heritage

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hominin thought to have displayed facultative bipedalism.

A)Latin binomial

B)Homo erectus

C)Chimpanzees

D)Neanderthals

E)Australopithecus africanus

F)Astragalus

G)Convergent evolution

H)Ardipithecus ramidus

I)Founder effect

J)Homo habilis

Q2) Which suggests that life evolved from chemicals slowly increasing in complexity over a period of millions of years?

A)natural selection

B)creationism

C)gradualism

D)chemical evolution

Q3) One result of natural selection is that populations become better suited to their particular environment by a process called ________.

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Chapter 23: Ecology, the Environment, and Us

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Q1) ________ describes the number of individuals at each trophic level multiplied by their dry weight.

Q2) How has human activity added to eutrophication of freshwater lakes?

Q3) Park officials needed to repair the old mill dam in a state park and so had to drain the pond behind,killing all the animals and many of the plants in the water.After the pond reformed and many years passed,a certain species of fish established itself in the pond and remained there for more than 400 years.Which most directly describes the role of that type of fish?

A)climax species

B)pioneer

C)producers

D)invaders

Q4) If a plant could not get enough phosphorus then it could not make ________.

A)fat

B)vitamin A

C)ATP

D)proteins

Q5) Why is it wiser to eat a diet with more plants in it than one with more meat?

Q6) What are the differences between primary and secondary succession?

Q7) A(n)________ is a diagram in which blocks represent each trophic level.

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Chapter

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Q1) Age classes grouped into pre-reproductive,reproductive,and post-reproductive categories.

A)Death rate

B)Carrying capacity

C)Ozone

D)Desertification

E)Density-dependent

F)Skin cancer

G)Emigration

H)Carbon footprint

I)Chlorofluorocarbons

J)Age structure

Q2) Which of the following is an example of direct water usage?

A)home drinking water

B)agricultural irrigation

C)steam generation

D)power plant cooling

Q3) Doubling time will increase with a(n)________ average age of first birth in women.

Q4) Irrigating land can lead to a buildup of salt in the soil called ________.

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Chapter 25: Food Safety and Defense

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Q1) Explain three things you can do at home to prevent foodborne illness.

Q2) Your friend has developed some gastrointestinal symptoms that appear to be related to something she ate.She wants to let them run their course without seeing a doctor.However,her symptoms seem to be getting worse.For which of the following would you recommend that she visit her health care provider?

A)blood in her stool

B)diarrhea lasting more than 3 days

C)a temperature of 102 F

D)All of the above are signs your friend should see a doctor.

Q3) The most appropriate way to kill bacteria on food is to ________.

A)refrigerate the food

B)freeze the food

C)cook the food

D)All of the above are true.

Q4) John had a cookout last week.He served chicken that he had grilled outdoors and that was fully cooked.However,some of his guests developed a Salmonella infection.Even though the chicken was completely cooked,what might John have done that could have potentially allowed for his guests to develop a Salmonella infection?

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Drugs and the Mind

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Q1) Mattie thinks she should use nicotine patches because they are safe.How can you convince her otherwise given the information in this chapter?

Q2) While examining her patient's nose,Dr.Carlita Gonzales,an allergy specialist,noted a hole in the partition between the nasal cavities.The doctor suspects her patient is snorting which drug?

A)alcohol

B)marijuana

C)mescaline

D)cocaine

Q3) Which are synthetically produced stimulants that resemble the brain's natural neurotransmitters?

A)caffeine

B)amphetamines

C)marijuana

D)opium

Q4) Angie wants to go with her boyfriend to a bar and consume some alcohol but she does not want to become intoxicated because she needs to drive them both home after 2 hours.She weighs 120 pounds.What advice can you give her based on the information in the textbook?

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Chapter 27: Diabetes Mellitus

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Q1) Susan Littlehorse (28 years old,obese,and pregnant)complains of burning urine to you,her physician at the Indian Health Service.Blood tests show hemoglobin A1c concentrations over 9%.What is your initial diagnosis? How do you test your idea? How should her condition be treated? What are some potential problems she may experience in the future?

Q2) Summarize the origins and functions of insulin in the body.

Q3) You are worried about your friend Mary,a type 1 diabetic.She is nauseous,short of breath,tired,and confused.She says not to worry because she just has a case of the flu.What diagnostic test should you urge her to perform to make sure that there is nothing more serious going on?

A)blood bilirubin

B)urinary ketones

C)blood pressure

D)stress test for the heart

Q4) Which of the following is recommended for diabetes mellitus patients?

A)smoking

B)binge drinking

C)inactivity

D)controlling stress

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Chapter 28: a Cardiovascular Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a leg vein is grafted to provide an alternate route around a point of obstruction between the aorta and a clogged coronary artery,the procedure is called ________.

A)angioplasty

B)stent

C)coronary bypass

D)coronary infarction

Q2) Heart attacks can be caused by a blood clot blocking a coronary artery; this condition is called a (an)________.

A)coronary thrombosis

B)coronary bypass

C)stent

D)angioplasty

Q3) What are some ways that hypertension can kill?

Q4) Which of the following might be an indicator of atherosclerosis?

A)inflammatory chemicals in the blood

B)high HDL levels in the blood stream

C)quiet lifestyle

D)low blood pressure

Q5) How could lipids lead to a myocardial infarction?

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Chapter 29: a Special Topic: Infectious Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ are disease-causing organisms that invade a person's body.

Q2) A camping party got lost in the wilderness for several days.They had sufficient food but misplaced their matches and could only drink the water from the clear lakes and streams in the area without boiling it.Very quickly everyone developed diarrhea that lasted the entire 8 days until they were rescued.Which type of pathogen was probably responsible?

A)protozoan

B)fungus

C)prion

D)vector

Q3) Bacteria that normally live on or in the body and prevent other bacteria from becoming too numerous are referred to as ________.

A)bacterial toxins

B)beneficial bacteria

C)pathogens

D)parasitic

Q4) Infectious proteins that are heat-resistant and that cannot be destroyed by ultraviolet light or most chemicals are known as ________.

Q5) A (n)________ is a global outbreak of disease.

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Chapter 30: a Nutrition and Weight Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to this chapter,what should a person take to promote proper bone development?

Q2) Which of the following statements is correct?

A)There is no healthy minimum level of HDLs.

B)It is not possible to add extra hydrogen atoms to a polyunsaturated fat.

C)We need about 8 tablespoons of fat per day.

D)A blood cholesterol level of less than 200 mg/dl is recommended.

Q3) What are some specific health benefits of indigestible carbohydrates and where can a person find them?

Q4) Which of the following substances has the lowest glycemic index?

A)fiber

B)glucose

C)white bread

D)white rice

Q5) A 21-year-old,otherwise healthy person should be physically active about how many minutes per day to sustain weight loss?

A)30 - 45 minutes

B)120 minutes

C)20 - 30 minutes

D)60 - 90 minutes

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Chapter 31: Sexually Transmitted Diseases and Aids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is the most reliable method for preventing both pregnancy and contraction of a sexually transmitted disease?

A)a condom

B)abstinence

C)sterilization

D)a diaphragm

Q2) Your former roommate went through a fairly promiscuous stage during her freshman year.Now she feels certain that she has an STD,possibly more than one STD.Too embarrassed to go to the doctor,she wants to take antibiotics that you had left over from a case of strep throat.She tells you that antibiotics will wipe out whatever she has.Which of the following STDs would your antibiotics definitely not eliminate?

A)gonorrhea

B)chlamydia

C)syphilis

D)HPV infection

Q3) Why are treatable diseases like chlamydia so widespread in the world?

Q4) Why is a male more likely than a female to seek treatment for chlamydia and gonorrhea?

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Chapter 32: Autism Spectrum Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain the two main types of studies that showed the genetic basis of ASDs.

Q2) What therapies can be used for those with ASDs?

Q3) Hypotheses for the cause of autism include or have included in the past ________.

A)vaccinations

B)aberrant parenting

C)genetics

D)all the above

Q4) Describe some of the environmental risk factors associated with ASDs.

Q5) Explain the diagnostic criteria and symptoms used to distinguish between autism and Asperger syndrome.

Q6) Which of these statements concerning autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)is false?

A)ASDs affect girls more frequently than boys.

B)Symptoms typically appear by 1-3 years old.

C)They last a lifetime.

D)They can be associated with other medical conditions.

Q7) Explain how neuroimaging brought new results to the study of ASDs,and why it is not yet recommended for use in the diagnosis of ASDs.

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Chapter 33: Stem Cells a Repair Kit for the Body

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Q1) Which statement best describes the difference between therapeutic and reproductive cloning?

A)Therapeutic cloning involves producing medications, while reproductive cloning is used for in vitro fertilization procedures.

B)Therapeutic cloning produces cells that are not genetically identical to their source, while reproductive cloning produces cells that are genetically identical to their source.

C)Therapeutic cloning is used to produce stem cells that can be coerced into differentiating into a specific cell type, while reproductive cloning is used to produce organisms identical to what they were cloned from.

D)There really aren't any differences between therapeutic and reproductive cloning.

Q2) Which of the following areas is not known to contain stem cells?

A)the skin

B)bone marrow

C)the umbilical cord

D)muscle

Q3) How is a stem cell different from a "normal" cell? (Use a liver cell as an example.)

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Chapter 34: Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) An oncologist (a physician that specializes in cancer)compares two biopsy samples by looking at the percentage of cells in mitosis.Sample #1 has 15% of cells in mitosis and Sample #2 has 8% of cells in mitosis.These samples are of the same tissue type.Which sample is likely to be cancerous and why? Why is it important that the two samples being compared came from the same tissue type?

Q2) Explain why malignant tumors are more dangerous than benign tumors.

Q3) Describe the cancer stem cell hypothesis.How might this explain the inability of traditional cancer treatments such as radiation and chemotherapy to completely eradicate tumors?

Q4) An allele known as BRCA1 is often found in women with breast and ovarian cancer.However,some women develop these cancers and do not have the BRCA1 allele.In addition,some women who have BRCA1 never develop breast or ovarian cancer.How can this be explained?

A)This must be an example of pleiotropy.

B)These types of cancers are in no way associated with specific alleles.

C)Something other than the gene must factor into whether cancer develops.

D)The BRCA1 allele must be dominant.

Q5) ________ can be detected through a blood test that detects a specific antigen called PSA.

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