Human Anatomy and Physiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology offers a comprehensive exploration of the structure and function of the human body. This course covers the organization of the major body systems, highlighting the relationships between anatomical structures and physiological processes. Students will learn about cells, tissues, organs, and systems such as the nervous, muscular, circulatory, respiratory, and digestive systems. Emphasis is placed on how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis and support life. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and practical applications, students develop a foundational understanding essential for advanced study in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hemoglobin level of 12g/dL is normal for an adult female,but low for an adult male.This is an example of _____.
A) cellular adaptation
B) holistic medicine
C) physiological variation
D) anatomical variation
Answer: C
Q2) All functions of the body can be interpreted as the effects of cellular activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Lou Gehrig disease is the eponym for amyotropic lateral sclerosis,made famous by the "ice bucket challege."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drastic conformational change in a protein in response to extreme heat or pH is called __________.
A) contamination
B) denaturation
C) saturation
D) sedimentation
E) deconformation
Answer: B
Q2) In the following reaction,what is(are)the product(s)? CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O ---> H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
A) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
B) CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
C) CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O and H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
Answer: A
Q3) The opposite of a dehydration synthesis reaction is a hydrolysis reaction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane.If solution A has a higher concentration of a nonpermeating solute than solution B,then __________.
A) the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B
B) the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A
C) water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B
D) water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A
E) neither the solute nor water will diffuse
Answer: D
Q2) What organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death?
A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) Nucleus
C) Centriole
D) Lysosome
E) Mitochondrion
Answer: D
Q3) The greater the concentration gradient,the faster the diffusion rate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the complementary DNA base sequence to the DNA strand TGCCAT?
A) TGCCAT
B) UGCCAU
C) ACGGTA
D) ACGGUA
E) ACCGTA
Q2) In familial hypercholesterolemia,individuals with two abnormal alleles die of heart attacks in childhood,those with only one abnormal allele typically die as young adults,and those with two normal alleles have normal life expectancies.This exemplifies
A) penetrance
B) codominance
C) pleiotropy
D) complete dominance
E) incomplete dominance
Q3) Eye color is a normal polygenic trait.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue is called _________.
A) necrosis
B) apoptosis
C) gangrene
D) regeneration
E) fibrosis
Q2) Rapid cell death caused by a complete cutting off of blood supply is called gangrene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dendrites in a neuron send outgoing signals to other cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Columnar cells lining the small intestine have a brush border of microvilli on the apical surface.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most growth in childhood is the result of hyperplasia.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells stand guard against toxins,microbes and other pathogens?
A) Keratinocytes
B) Melanocytes
C) Adipocytes
D) Dendritic cells
E) Tactile cells
Q2) Ethnic differences in skin color are primarily caused by differences in
A) UV radiation exposure
B) the quantity of hemoglobin carried in the blood
C) the quantity of melanin produced
D) the number of melanocytes
E) the number of keratinocytes
Q3) Which of the skin layers below is the most superficial?
A) Basal lamina
B) Epidermis
C) Papillary layer
D) Reticular layer
E) Hypodermis
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A break in a bone that is already weakened by some other disease is called a(n)__________ fracture.
A) greenstick
B) open
C) closed
D) pathologic
E) displaced
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton?
A) Storage of calcium and phosphate ions
B) Storage of red blood cells
C) Providing support for most muscles
D) Protecting the brain
E) Protecting the spinal cord
Q3) Blood Ca<sup>2+</sup> deficiency stimulates __________ secretion,which leads to __________.
A) calcitonin;more urinary phosphate reabsorption
B) calcitriol;more urinary phosphate excretion
C) parathyroid hormone;increased osteoclast activity
D) growth hormone;increased osteoblast activity
E) thyroid hormone;less urinary calcium excretion
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a herniated disc,the ring of fibrocartilage called the __________ ruptures and the __________ oozes out.
A) nucleus pulposus;anulus fibrosus
B) lamina;nucleus pulposus
C) anulus fibrosus;nucleus pulposus
D) anulus fibrosus;body
E) nucleus pulposus;lamina
Q2) Which of the following articualtes with the vertebral column?
A) Mandibular fossa
B) Mastoid process
C) Occipital condyle
D) Foramen magnum
E) Zygomatic arch
Q3) A hole through a bone that usually allows passage for nerves and blood vessels is called a(n)_________.
A) canal
B) alveolus
C) fissure
D) foramen
E) sinus
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) Which of the following is not a major joint category?
A) Elastic
B) Synovial
C) Cartilaginous
D) Fibrous
E) Bony
Q2) The rotator cuff tendons enclose the shoulder joint on all sides except _______________,which partly explains the nature of most shoulder dislocations.
A) anteriorly
B) posteriorly
C) superiorly
D) inferiorly
E) medially
Q3) The shoulder is the only multiaxial,ball-and-socket joint in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Symphyses are the most common type of fibrous joints.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Q1) Tennis elbow is a common term describing injury to the attachment of which of the following?
A) Extensor hallucis longus
B) Pronator quadratus
C) Extensor carpi radialis longus
D) Subscapularis
E) Flexor digitorum profundus
Q2) Which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body?
A) Transverse abdominal
B) Latissimus dorsi
C) Trapezius
D) Pectoralis major
E) External abdominal oblique
Q3) The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is the __________.
A) transverse abdominal
B) internal oblique
C) rectus abdominis
D) latissimus dorsi
E) pectoralis minor
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac muscle has very little capacity for regeneration because it lacks
A) satellite cells
B) an endomysium
C) sarcomeres
D) dense bodies
E) somatic nerve fibers
Q2) Which of the following individuals would have more mitochondria in her skeletal muscle?
A) A 50-year-old sedentary computer programmer
B) A 22-year-old soccer player
C) A long-term hospice patient
D) A model on a reduced-calorie diet
E) A newborn
Q3) Which fibers are primarily responsible for producing lactate?
A) Type I slow oxidative fibers
B) Type IIA intermediate glycolytic fibers
C) Type IIB fast glycolytic fibers
D) Type I slow-twitch fibers
E) Red fibers
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a neuron is stimulated,Na<sup>+</sup> gates open and allow Na<sup>+</sup> to exit the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Neurons move material away from the neurosoma by retrograde transport.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ependymal cells line the inner cavities of the CNS.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)are associated with which of the following?
A) Depolarization of the cell membrane
B) Repolarization of the cell membrane
C) Hyperpolarization of the cell membrane
D) No change in the cell membrane potential
E) No change of the threshold
Q5) Memories are formed by neural pathways of modified synapses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic
Reflexes
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Q1) Each portion of the spinal cord,from which a spinal nerve emerges,is called a "segment" of the cord.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A dermatome is a nerve innervating a specific region in the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood.You flinch at the pain,pulling your hand back.This is called the __________ reflex.
A) painful
B) stretch
C) flexor (withdrawal)
D) tendon
E) crossed extension
Q4) The middle layer of the meninges is called the __________.
A) gray matter
B) white matter
C) dura mater
D) arachnoid mater
E) pia mater
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following structures does not contain CSF?
A) Dural sinus
B) Lateral ventricle
C) Central canal
D) Subarachnoid space
Q2) Most gray matter of the cerebrum is located in which region?
A) Reticular formation
B) Neocortex
C) Limbic system
D) Basal nuclei
E) Substantia nigra
Q3) The blood-CSF barrier is composed of dense regular connective tissue lining the ventricles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The medulla oblongata is the most rostral part of the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscarinic receptors bind __________.
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) monoamine oxidase (MAO)
D) acetylcholinesterase
E) acetylcholine
Q2) Which of the following is more effective in producing bronchodilation?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Nicotine
C) Muscarine
D) Norepinephrine
E) Thyroxine
Q3) The solar plexus is used as a name for the __________.
A) spinal nerve route
B) carotid plexus
C) the celiac and mesenteric ganglia
D) splanchic nerves
E) sympathetic nerve route
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Q1) In a taste bud,which cell produces a receptor potential?
A) Taste hairs
B) Sensory nerve fibers
C) Supporting cells
D) Basal cells
E) Gustatory cells
Q2) Where is the primary olfactory cortex located?
A) Parietal lobe
B) Insula
C) Occipital lobe
D) Frontal lobe
E) Temporal lobe
Q3) What is the only sense in which signals can reach the cerebral cortex without passing first through the thalamus?
A) Touch
B) Olfaction
C) Gustation
D) Vision
E) Equilibrium
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A) Aldosterone
B) Cortisol
C) Testosterone
D) Calcitriol
E) Glucagon
Q2) Which of the following statements about diabetes mellitus is false?
A) The body produces autoantibodies that destroy the pancreatic beta cells in type I DM.
B) Target cells are unresponsive to insulin in type II DM.
C) Both type I and type II DM are characterized by lack of,or low levels of,insulin.
D) Diabetic neuropathy is a common long term effect of DM.
E) Type II DM is more common than type I DM.
Q3) The anterior pituitary is __________ than the posterior pituitary and has __________ connection to the hypothalamus.
A) smaller;no nervous
B) larger;a nervous
C) larger;no nervous
D) smaller;a nervous
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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Q1) A normal hematocrit is __________ of the total blood volume.
A) less than 1%
B) 47% to 63%
C) 25% to 37%
D) 42% to 45%
E) 37% to 52%
Q2) The ABO blood group is determined by __________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.
A) glycolipids
B) glycoproteins
C) antibodies
D) antigen-antibody complexes
E) agglutinins
Q3) Erythrocytes transport oxygen and __________.
A) defend the body against pathogens
B) initiate blood clotting
C) regulate erythropoiesis
D) transport nutrients
E) transport some carbon dioxide
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Q1) The chordae tendinae of the AV valves are anchored to the __________ of the ventricles.
A) papillary muscles
B) pectinate muscles
C) trabeculae carnae
D) interventricular septum
E) interatrial septum
Q2) The __________ is the pacemaker that initiates each heart beat.
A) sympathetic division of the nervous system
B) autonomic nervous system
C) sinoatrial (SA)node
D) atrioventricular (AV)node
E) cardiac conduction system
Q3) Atrial systole begins __________.
A) immediately before the P wave
B) immediately after the P wave
C) during the Q wave
D) during the S-T segment
E) immediately after the T wave
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) What is the most important force in venous flow?
A) Cardiac suction
B) The pressure generated by the heart
C) The skeletal muscle pump
D) The thoracic (respiratory)pump
E) The one way flow due to valves
Q2) Hypertension is commonly considered to be a chronic resting blood pressure higher than __________.
A) 180/90
B) 130/60
C) 120/75
D) 140/90
E) 200/90
Q3) What might account for a soldier experiencing syncope after standing at attention for a long period of time?
A) Increased respiratory rate
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Increased heart rate
D) Venous pooling
22
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus,which means they __________.
A) react against self antigens
B) develop surface antigen receptors
C) remain alive but unresponsive
D) die and macrophages phagocytize them
E) multiply and form clones of identical T cells
Q2) Cellular immunity uses B cells and humoral immunity uses antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ are found especially in the mucous membrane,standing guard against parasites and allergens.
A) Monocytes
B) Lymphocytes
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
E) Eosinophils
Q4) Adaptive immunity involves skin,NK cells,and phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Output from higher brain centers can bypass both the DRG and VRG and go directly to __________,which controls the accessory muscles of respiration.
A) the diaphragm
B) spinal integration centers
C) the cerebral cortex
D) the vagus nerve
Q2) According to the Bohr effect,a low level of oxyhemoglobin enables the blood to transport more CO<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the term for a deficiency of oxygen or the inability to utilize oxygen in a tissue?
A) Apoxia
B) Hypoxia
C) Anoxia
D) Cyanosis
E) Eupnea
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Q1) Stimulation of sympathetic fibers of the renal plexus increases renal blood flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Angiotensin-converting enzyme is found only in the kidneys and converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following induces renin secretion,constricts afferent arterioles,and reduces GFR and urine volume?
A) Aldosterone
B) Antidiuretic hormone
C) Parathyroid hormone
D) Norepinephrine
E) Angiotensin II
Q4) Cells in the cleft between the afferent and efferent arterioles and among capillaries of the glomerulus are known as mesangial cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What determines osmosis from one fluid compartment to another?
A) The temperature difference between compartments
B) The relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
C) The relative volume in each compartment
D) The relative size of each compartment
E) The blood pressure
Q4) Where is the greatest volume of water in the body found?
A) Intracellular fluid (ICF)
B) Extracellular fluid(ECF)
C) Tissue(interstitial)fluid
D) Blood plasma and lymph
E) Transcellular fluid
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) Both chemical and mechanical digestion start in the mouth and continue in the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a trigger for mass movements of the colon?
A) The gastrocolic reflex
B) The duodenocolic reflex
C) Chyme filling the duodenum
D) Chyme filling the stomach
E) The colorectal reflex
Q3) Which of the following bile components contributes to digestion?
A) Bile salts
B) Bilirubin
C) Bile pigments
D) Minerals
E) Cholesterol
Q4) Defecation is controlled by a __________.
A) myenteric reflex only
B) spinal reflex only
C) myenteric reflex and a spinal reflex
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) Which metabolic process produces ammonia?
A) Beta oxidation of -ketoglutaric acid
B) Lipolysis
C) Transamination of urea
D) Amination of keto acids
E) Deamination of glutamic acid
Q2) Hypothermia may be fatal if the core body temperature reaches 37°C or lower.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following compounds yields the most ATP per molecule?
A) Glucose
B) Pyruvate
C) Acetyl-CoA
D) Lactate
E) Glycogen
Q4) Mental state does not affect metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The __________ is the gonad and the __________ is the gamete.
A) testis;ovary
B) testis;semen
C) testis;sperm
D) sperm;semen
E) semen;sperm
Q2) Males produce sperm and females produce eggs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Testosterone stimulates development of the secondary sex characteristics,spermatogenesis,and libido.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Genetic males are XY and genetic females are XX.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Spermiogenesis is the last stage of meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) In the adult ovary,more than 90% of the follicles are found as __________.
A) Primary follicles
B) Secondary follicles
C) Tertiary follicles
D) Graafian follicles
E) Primordial follicles
Q2) What is an ovulated egg more technically referred to as?
A) A primary oocyte
B) A secondary oocyte
C) A primary follicle
D) A secondary follicle
E) A tertiary follicle
Q3) The nonpregnant uterine wall consists mostly of __________.
A) perimetrium
B) endometrium
C) dense regular connective tissue
D) dense irregular connective tissue
E) myometrium
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) The most likely outcome of nondisjunction is the production of a gamete receiving
A) no chromosomes
B) 46 chromosomes
C) 44 chromosomes
D) 23 chromosomes
E) 22 chromosomes
Q2) Twins produced when a single egg is fertilized are called __________ twins.Twins produced from two eggs ovulated at the same time are called __________ twins.
A) monozygotic;identical
B) dizygotic;nonidentical
C) monozygotic;dizygotic
D) dizygotic;monozygotic
E) nonidentical;identical
Q3) Cleavage results in daughter cells containing half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Q1) The __________ system exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide with the air,whereas the __________ system transports oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body.
A) respiratory;urinary
B) circulatory;digestive
C) respiratory;digestive
D) circulatory;urinary
E) respiratory;circulatory
Q2) The trachea is __________ to the esophagus.
A) superior
B) dorsal
C) anterior
D) posterior
E) inferior
Q3) The __________ cavity is inferior to the _____________ cavity.
A) cranial;thoracic
B) thoracic;abdominopelvic
C) pericardial;pleural
D) thoracic;peritoneal
E) thoracic;cranial
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