Human Anatomy and Physiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology explores the structure and function of the human body, providing a comprehensive understanding of how organ systems work both independently and together to maintain life. The course examines anatomical terminology, cellular and tissue organization, and the major systems including skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, reproductive, and endocrine systems. Students will learn how these systems contribute to homeostasis, interpret the relationship between form and function, and apply foundational knowledge in practical contexts such as health, disease, and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry R. Martin
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Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final step in the scientific method is data analysis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) According to the hypothesis you tested in this experiment, the ratio of a person's upper limb length to body height is approximately 50%.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which step of the scientific method involves forming a tentative explanation of information?
A)Hypothesis
B)Observations
C)Conclusion
D)Experiment
E)Data analysis
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The double-layered serous membrane that surrounds the organs of the abdominopelvic cavity is called the pericardium.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The eye is further from the midline of the body than the nose; therefore, the eye is ________ to the nose.
A)medial
B)proximal
C)lateral
D)distal
E)caudal
Answer: C
Q3) The inguinal region is found in the ________ area.
A)anterior knee
B)shoulder
C)forearm
D)groin
E)hip
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution that has a high concentration of hydroxide (OH-)ions
A)has a low pH.
B)has a high concentration of hydrogen (H+)ions too.
C)is a basic (alkaline)solution.
D)is a neutral solution.
E)is an acidic solution.
Answer: C
Q2) Acids have a pH of <7.0, and they contain a higher concentration of H+ ions than OHions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) All of the following are true of lipids, except
A)amino acids are a type of lipid.
B)some lipids are used for cellular structure.
C)triglycerides are also called fats.
D)lipids provide some cellular energy.
E)phospholipids are a type of lipid.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greatest magnification on the compound light microscope can be achieved by using the high power objective lens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the proper way to carry a microscope?
A)Wrap one hand around the arm of the microscope.
B)Carry it with both hands supporting the stage.
C)Use one hand on the arm of the microscope, and the other hand supporting the base.
D)Carry it with one hand on each side of the base.
E)Carry it with one hand on the body tube, and the other hand under the base.
Q3) Which part of the microscope is responsible for making small changes in focus when using the high-power objective lens?
A)Fine adjustment knob
B)Iris diaphragm lever
C)Rotating nosepiece
D)Coarse adjustment knob
E)Substage illuminator
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6
Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference in function between the smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?
A)The rough ER produces ATP, while the smooth ER does not.
B)The rough ER helps with cellular movements, while the smooth ER does not.
C)The rough ER conducts lipid synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts protein synthesis.
D)The rough ER breaks down lipids, while the smooth ER breaks down proteins and debris.
E)The rough ER conducts protein synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts lipid synthesis.
Q2) All of the following structures are involved in motility, except A)microvilli.
B)cilia.
C)microtubules.
D)microfilaments.
E)flagella.
Q3) The plasma membrane of a cell can also be called the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Passive transport processes, such as diffusion, are also called physiological processes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the filtration experiment, which substances passed through the filter paper because of their small molecular size?
A)Water, glucose, starch, and charcoal
B)Water, glucose, and starch
C)Water and glucose
D)Starch and charcoal
E)Water, starch, and charcoal
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true of diffusion?
A)It is considered to be a type of passive transport.
B)It moves substances from higher to lower concentration.
C)It occurs due to random molecular motion.
D)It requires the energy of ATP.
E)It is a type of physical transport process.
Q4) Cells placed in a hypotonic solution will shrink.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct sequence of the phases of interphase?
A)G , G , G
B)G , S, G
C)S, G , G
D)G ,G , G , S
E)G , G , S
Q2) The phase directly after the G phase in the cell cycle is ________.
A)the S phase
B)telophase
C)interphase
D)prophase
E)anaphase
Q3) During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA duplicated?
A)The S phase of interphase
B)Cytokinesis
C)The G phase of interphase
D)Prophase
E)The G phase of interphase
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are major types of tissues, except
A)muscle
B)connective
C)epithelial
D)bone
E)nervous
Q2) Glandular epithelium makes up glands such as sweat glands; it is always multicellular.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of epithelial tissue provides protection against respiratory infections, due to the presence of mucus and cilia?
A)Simple squamous
B)Pseudostratified columnar
C)Stratified columnar
D)Simple cuboidal
E)Stratified squamous
Q4) A group of cells that are alike in function and appearance is called a tissue. A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of blood?
A)It helps to defend the body against disease.
B)It is identical to lymph.
C)It is a liquid connective tissue.
D)It transports substances that conduct clotting.
E)All of these are true of blood.
Q2) Which type of connective tissue is specialized for calcium storage in the body?
A)Elastic connective tissue
B)Blood
C)Fibrocartilage
D)Bone
E)Areolar connective tissue
Q3) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of fibers and a ground substance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In your observations of microscopic slides of cartilage and bone, you can see that chondrocytes and osteocytes are both encased in lacunae.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac muscle is found in the walls of the heart and blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Muscle cells are also called muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is/are the function(s)of the gap junctions found between cardiac muscle cells?
A)They provide routes for electrical impulses to be passed from one cell to another.
B)They prevent adjacent cells from coming apart.
C)They initiate the heart beats.
D)They are routes of delivery for oxygen and nutrients to the cardiac muscle cells.
E)They stop electrical impulses from being passed from cell to cell.
Q4) Both neurons and neuroglia are able to generate and conduct nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reticular region of the dermis consists of ________ tissue.
A)areolar connective
B)dense regular connective
C)dense irregular connective
D)adipose
E)stratified squamous epithelial
Q2) Which structure of the hair follicle supplies the capillaries that provide the growing hair with oxygen and nutrients?
A)Hair papilla
B)Hair root
C)Hair shaft
D)Hair matrix
E)Hair bulb
Q3) All of the following structures are considered parts of the integumentary system, except
A)the skin.
B)skin glands.
C)hair.
D)nails.
E)All of these are parts of the integumentary system.
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Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bone is considered to be a tissue of the skeletal system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each bone consists of either compact or spongy bone, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q3) By the time a person reaches adulthood, all of his/her red bone marrow has been converted to yellow bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some of the large cranial bones, which have wide surfaces, and are sometimes curved, are classified as ________ bones.
A)short
B)long
C)irregular
D)flat
E)sesamoid
Q5) Osteons are only found in compact bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) A depression in a bone, shaped like a narrow groove, is called a ________.
A)fissure
B)sulcus
C)sanal
D)tubercle
E)fossa
Q2) The number of carpals in the wrists is equal to the number of tarsals in the ankles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A cavity in a bone, especially in a bone of the skull, is called a ________.
A)fissure
B)tuberosity
C)meatus
D)foramen
E)sinus
Q4) The bones that connect the upper and lower limbs to the axial skeleton are those of the pectoral and pelvic girdles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Skull
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Sample Questions
Q1) The coronoid process, mental foramen, and ramus are all found on the A)maxilla.
B)mandible.
C)ethmoid bone.
D)sphenoid bone.
E)parietal bone.
Q2) The supraorbital foramen is found on the ________, while the infraorbital foramen is found on the ________.
A)maxilla; frontal bone
B)maxilla; mandible
C)zygomatic bone; lacrimal bone
D)frontal bone; maxilla
E)nasal bone; mandible
Q3) The skull consists of 8 cranial bones and 14 facial bones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae are all found on the ethmoid bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of tissue are intervertebral discs composed of?
A)Elastic connective tissue
B)Fibrocartilage
C)Hyaline cartilage
D)Elastic cartilage
E)Areolar connective tissue
Q2) What unique feature do thoracic vertebrae contain?
A)Spinous processes
B)Transverse foramina
C)Vertebral foramina
D)Rib facets
E)Transverse processes
Q3) The vertebral column extends from the first cervical vertebra (C1)to the fifth lumbar vertebra (L5).
A)True
B)False
Q4) The thoracic cage and vertebral column are part of the axial skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intertubercular sulcus of the humerus is a passageway for a tendon of the Biceps brachii muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The heads of the radius and ulna are found on the proximal end of their respective bones.
A)True B)False
Q3) All of the following are in the proximal row of carpals except the A)triquetrum.
B)scaphoid.
C)pisiform.
D)trapezoid.
E)lunate.
Q4) The trochlear notch of the ulna articulates with the ________ of the humerus.
A)olecranon fossa
B)trochlea
C)head
D)capitulum
E)intertubercular sulcus
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Q1) Which of the following structures is NOT found on the femur?
A)Fovea capitis
B)Linea aspera
C)Gluteal tuberosity
D)Lesser trochanter
E)Obturator foramen
Q2) The area that the baby's head passes through during the birth process is the ________.
A)acetabulum
B)pubic symphysis
C)median sacral crest
D)obturator foramen
E)pelvic inlet
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an alternate name for the hip bone?
A)Os coxa
B)Pelvic bone
C)Innominate bone
D)Coxal bone
E)All of these are alternate names for the hip bone.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following fontanels are paired, occurring in 2 different places on the fetal skull?
A)Anterior and posterior
B)Anterior and sphenoidal
C)Mastoid and sphenoidal
D)Mastoid and posterior
E)All of the fontanels are paired in the fetal skull.
Q2) All of the following are fontanels in the fetal skull except the ________ fontanel.
A)ethmoid
B)sphenoidal
C)anterior
D)mastoid
E)posterior
Q3) Intramembranous bones develop by replacement of a hyaline cartilage model with bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Q1) A freely movable joint is classified as a A)diarthrosis.
B)fibrous joint.
C)synarthrosis.
D)synovial joint.
E)amphiarthrosis.
Q2) Sutures and gomphoses consist of dense connective tissue, and are immovable; therefore they can be classified as A)cartilaginous synarthroses.
B)fibrous amphiarthroses.
C)synovial diarthroses.
D)cartilaginous amphiarthroses.
E)fibrous synarthroses.
Q3) Inversion and eversion are special movements of the A)forearm and hand.
B)mandible.
C)sole of the foot at the ankle joint.
D)thumb toward or away from the other fingers.
E)the knee joint.
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Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Q1) The connective tissue layer that surrounds each bundle of muscle fibers is called the A)endomysium.
B)fascicle.
C)perimysium.
D)fascia.
E)epimysium.
Q2) The synaptic knob of a neuromuscular junction is the portion of the muscle fiber that contains receptor sites for neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the role of tropomyosin in a sarcomere?
A)It is the main protein component of thin myofilaments.
B)It blocks the active sites on actin filaments in relaxed muscle fibers.
C)It is the main component of elastic filaments.
D)It is the main protein component in thick myofilaments.
E)It binds to calcium to initiate muscle contraction.
Q4) A muscle fiber is identical to a muscle cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of a tetanic muscle contraction?
A)A tetanic contraction only occurs if a person has been infected with the disease called tetanus.
B)It occurs when a muscle fiber is stimulated in very rapid succession.
C)During a tetanic contraction, the muscle fiber does not relax at all between stimuli.
D)A much greater amount of muscle tension can be achieved during a tetanic contraction than during a single muscle twitch.
E)All of these are true of a tetanic muscle contraction.
Q2) Muscle fatigue can be induced by sustaining maximum clench force on an object for several seconds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A twitch is the response of an entire skeletal muscle to stimulation by motor neurons. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Q1) Which of the following muscles of facial expression inserts on the orbicularis oris, and compresses the cheeks when blowing air?
A)Buccinator
B)Mentalis
C)Platyma
D)Risorius
E)Zygomaticus major
Q2) Which of the following muscles of facial expression is the only one that closes the eye when blinking?
A)Nasalis
B)Orbicularis oris
C)Risorius
D)Mentalis
E)Orbicularis oculi
Q3) All of the muscles that move the hyoid bone and larynx are innervated by the facial nerve.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Q1) A muscle that runs down the arm, and inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna, would cause
A)extension of the elbow.
B)abduction of the arm.
C)extension of the fingers.
D)flexion of the elbow.
E)flexion of the fingers.
Q2) Which of the following muscles is located on the anterior side of the scapula?
A)Supraspinatus
B)Teres major
C)Subscapularis
D)Teres minor
E)Infraspinatus
Q3) Due to its name and position in the forearm (posterior medial side of the forearm), the actions of the extensor carpi ulnaris are most likely to
A)flex the wrist and abduct the thumb.
B)flex the wrist and adduct the hand.
C)flex the wrist and abduct the hand.
D)extend the wrist and abduct the hand.
E)extend the wrist and adduct the hand.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Muscles of the Vertebral Column, Abdominal
and Pelvic Floor
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscles of the pelvic floor are almost entirely innervated by the pudendal nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the pelvic floor muscles inserts only on the coccyx?
A)Ischiocavernosus
B)Coccygeus
C)Levator ani
D)Bulbospongiosus
E)Superficial transverse perineal muscle
Q3) Which of the following muscles associated with the vertebral column is the most superior?
A)Semispinalis thoracis
B)Multifidus
C)Quadratus lumborum
D)Serratus posterior superior
E)Splenius capitis
Q4) The linea alba is a muscle of the pelvic floor.
A)True
B)False
Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Q1) The quadriceps femoris group of muscles is innervated by the ________ nerve.
A)common fibular
B)tibial
C)superior gluteal
D)obturator
E)femoral
Q2) The muscles of the lower limb have a more limited range of motion than those of the upper limb.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some of the muscles of the hip and lower limb cross more than one joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus muscles all have the same action (extension of the thigh at the hip).
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compared to the forearm, the leg has a greater number of muscles.
A)True
B)False
27
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Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Q1) The temporomandibular joint can best be palpated on the A)posterior side of the neck.
B)lateral side of the head.
C)lateral side of the neck.
D)posterior side of the head.
E)anterior side of the neck.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an anterior surface feature?
A)Tibial tuberosity
B)Xiphoid process
C)Pectoralis major
D)Thenar eminence
E)All of these are anterior surface features.
Q3) Soft tissue features do not include bone or cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q4) External landmarks (surface anatomy)on the body not only allow for examination of surface features, but also offer an opportunity to locate certain internal structures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) What is the function of ependymal cells?
A)They are the phagocytes of the brain.
B)They produce cerebrospinal fluid, and circulate it around the brain and spinal cord.
C)They produce the myelin sheath around axons of the peripheral nervous system.
D)They support the cell bodies of neurons in peripheral ganglia.
E)They produce the myelin sheath around axons of the central nervous system.
Q2) The rarest structural type of neuron is a bipolar neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cranial and spinal nerves are part of the central nervous system (CNS).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of neuroglia forms the myelin sheath around some axons of the PNS (peripheral nervous system)?
A)Schwann cells
B)Astrocytes
C)Satellite cells
D)Oligodendrocytes
E)Ependymal cells
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Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) The filum terminale anchors the inferior end of the spinal cord to the A)L1 vertebra.
B)sacrum.
C)L2 vertebra.
D)S5 vertebra.
E)coccyx.
Q2) On the dermatome map, the sacral nerves generally innervate the genital, buttock, anal, and posterior lower limb regions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the brachial plexus?
A)Its nerves control the shoulder and upper limb muscles.
B)It gives rise to the musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median and ulnar nerves.
C)It is mainly derived from spinal nerves C5-C8, and T1.
D)It contains the phrenic nerve and the ansa cervicalis.
E)All of these are true of the brachial plexus.
Q4) The lumbar plexus is considered to be the most complex of the nerve plexuses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) What is the role of an inhibitory interneuron in a stretch reflex?
A)It is used to inhibit the antagonistic muscles from contracting at the same time as the effectors of the reflex.
B)It is used to ensure that the effectors do not contract excessively.
C)It sends inhibitory commands to the opposite limb, so it will not respond.
D)It ensures that the reflex does not damage the effectors.
E)Inhibitory interneurons are not involved in stretch reflexes.
Q2) Reflexes involving skeletal muscles are called ________ reflexes.
A)autonomic
B)spinal
C)somatic
D)skeletal
E)subconscious
Q3) Which of the following represents the correct order of components in a reflex arc?
A)Effector, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, receptor
B)Receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector
C)Sensory neuron, receptor, integration center, motor neuron, effector
D)Receptor, motor neuron, integration center, sensory receptor, effector
E)Integration center, receptor, sensory neuron, effector, motor neuron
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which portion of the cerebellum is the deep branching pattern of white matter?
A)Thalamus
B)Arbor vitae
C)Falx cerebelli
D)Cerebellar cortex
E)Vermis
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the cranial nerves?
A)There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
B)They are part of the CNS.
C)Most arise from the brainstem.
D)Most, but not all, are mixed nerves.
E)All of these are true of the cranial nerves.
Q3) The cranial nerves are basically numbered from superior to inferior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cerebral cortex is the part of the brain used for conscious awareness and decision making.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following represents the correct order of components in an involuntary spinal reflex arc?
A)Effector, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, sensory receptor
B)Sensory neuron, interneuron, sensory receptor, motor neuron, effector
C)Sensory receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
D)Interneuron, sensory receptor, sensory neuron, effector, motor neuron
E)Sensory receptor, motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron, effector
Q2) In a spinal reflex arc, the interneuron, if present, is found in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of involuntary reflex responses?
A)They require the stimulation of specific receptors.
B)They occur more slowly than voluntary responses.
C)They require the transmission of nerve impulses.
D)They do not require input from the cerebral cortex.
E)They involve fewer neurons than voluntary responses.
Q4) All reflex arcs contain an interneuron.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the bipolar method of recording the EEG?
A)The 2 main electrodes are placed on opposite sides of the head.
B)The electrical potential difference is measured between the 2 main recording electrodes.
C)The ground electrode is used as a reference point for the body's baseline voltage.
D)The 2 main recording electrodes detect the movement of ions in the extracellular fluid of the cerebral cortex.
E)All of these are true of the bipolar method of recording the EEG.
Q2) All 4 types of brain waves can usually be observed in the EEG of a normal adult.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following can NOT be assessed by an EEG?
A)Helps establish brain death
B)Helps determine whether an awake person is concentrating or drowsy
C)Helps assess the state of muscle contraction when a person is lifting objects of various weights
D)Helps to diagnose certain brain disorders
E)All of these can be assessed using an EEG.
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34
Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) Which layer of the meninges is thick and opaque?
A)Arachnoid mater
B)Infundibulum
C)Dura mater
D)Mammillary body
E)Pia mater
Q2) Which ventricles are separated by the septum pellucidum?
A)The lateral ventricles and the third ventricle
B)The 2 medial ventricles
C)The third ventricle and the fourth ventricle
D)The fourth ventricle and the fifth ventricle
E)The 2 lateral ventricles
Q3) Which of the following structures separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres of the sheep brain?
A)Central sulcus
B)Coronal fissure
C)Lateral sulcus
D)Longitudinal fissure
E)Transverse fissure
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Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a stimulus for various mechanoreceptors?
A)Stretch
B)Cold temperature
C)Deep pressure
D)Vibration
E)Light touch
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of sensory adaptation?
A)Thermoreceptors commonly undergo sensory adaptation.
B)It involves a fading of sensation upon continuous receptor stimulation.
C)It occurs when a person adjusts to a strong smell in the environment.
D)It commonly occurs in pain receptors.
E)All of these are true of sensory adaptation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of Meissner's corpuscles?
A)They are also called tactile corpuscles.
B)They are numerous in the hands, feet, joints, and external genital organs.
C)They are most abundant in the hypodermis.
D)They are stimulated by light touch.
E)All of these are true of Meissner's corpuscles.
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) Alkaloids produce the ________ taste sensation.
A)sour
B)sweet
C)umami
D)salty
E)bitter
Q2) The smell and taste of foods are influenced by all of the following except
A)the appearance of the food.
B)the texture of the food.
C)the temperature of the food.
D)a person's mood.
E)all of these influence the smell and taste of foods.
Q3) Olfactory receptors cells send their action potentials through openings in the ethmoid bone, and synapse with neurons in the
A)olfactory cortex.
B)olfactory foramina.
C)cribriform plate.
D)thalamus.
E)olfactory bulbs.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of cones?
A)They provide for color vision.
B)Only cones are found in the fovea centralis.
C)Cones are much more numerous than rods in the peripheral portions of the retina.
D)Cones are responsible for sharp vision.
E)All of these are true of cones.
Q2) In a sandstorm, which of the following muscles would protect the eyes, by closing the eyelids?
A)Levator palpebrae superioris
B)Orbicularis oculi
C)Superior rectus and inferior rectus
D)Lateral rectus and medial rectus
E)Superior oblique and inferior oblique
Q3) The innermost (most anterior)layer of the retina consists of A)rods and cones.
B)bipolar neurons.
C)the pigmented epithelium.
D)nerve fibers of the ganglion cells.
E)amacrine cells.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) In the blind spot demonstration, when staring at the + sign with your right eye, and moving the figure closer to your face, the dot in the figure suddenly disappears when it is focused on the
A)fovea centralis.
B)optic disc.
C)ciliary body.
D)macula lutea.
E)peripheral retina.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of colorblindness?
A)It is a hereditary trait carried on the X chromosome.
B)Protanopia involves a lack of or a decrease in sensitivity to the blue-sensitive cones.
C)Males and females can be colorblind, but the condition is more common in males.
D)Deuteranopia involves a lack of or a decreased sensitivity to green-sensitive cones.
E)All of these are true of colorblindness.
Q3) The near point of accommodation increases with age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) Which chamber of the inner ear receives sound waves directly from the oval window?
A)Cochlear duct
B)Scala media
C)Scala tympani
D)Vestibule
E)Scala vestibuli
Q2) The membranous labyrinth is the only portion of the inner ear that contains endolymph.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The S-shaped tube of the ear is called the
A)auditory tube.
B)membranous labyrinth.
C)external acoustic meatus.
D)bony labyrinth.
E)tympanic cavity.
Q4) The inner ear contains the organs for both hearing and equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) Both the crista ampullaris and the macula contain otoliths.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the Barany test, what is the expected response of the eyes to rotation in a chair when the head is tilted 90 degrees onto the shoulder?
A)Side to side nystagmus
B)Up and down nystagmus
C)Random eye movements
D)Rotary nystagmus
E)No eye movement
Q3) The organs of static and dynamic equilibrium both contain hair cells, with stereocilia embedded in a gelatinous mass.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The crista ampullaris projects into the lumen of the bony labyrinth of the semicircular canal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) If you were suddenly in a dangerous situation, which of your major endocrine glands would you expect to be activated to secrete hormones?
A)Adrenal gland
B)Thyroid gland
C)Pituitary gland
D)Hypothalamus
E)All of these endocrine glands would likely be activated during a dangerous situation.
Q2) Exocrine glands secrete substances directly into the interstitial fluids of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following glands are both endocrine and exocrine except A)the testes.
B)the pancreas.
C)the adrenal glands.
D)the ovaries.
E)All of these glands are both endocrine and exocrine.
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Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) Diabetes insipidus is a form of diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Normal or even higher than normal levels of insulin can be found in a person with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the pancreas?
A)Glucagon
B)Pancreatic polypeptide
C)Insulin
D)Somatostatin
E)All of these hormones are secreted by the pancreas.
Q4) The primary source of cellular energy (fuel)is glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Insulin shock can occur when a person with type 1 diabetes mellitus eats a high-carbohydrate meal, but forgets to take insulin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) The smallest type of white blood cell (only slightly larger than a red blood cell)is a
A)basophil.
B)monocyte.
C)eosinophil.
D)lymphocyte.
E)neutrophil.
Q2) In a blood smear, the vast majority of formed elements are
A)white blood cells
B)neutrophils
C)platelets
D)leukocytes
E)red blood cells
Q3) Besides bacterial infections, stress can be a cause of elevated neutrophils in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood is a type of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) According to the oxygen dissociation curve for temperature, the higher the temperature, the higher the percent saturation of hemoglobin for any partial pressure of oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of cholesterol?
A)For the best health, it is recommended that the LDL and HDL levels in the blood should be as low as possible.
B)A cholesterol level of greater than 200 mg/dl is associated with an increase in the likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease.
C)LDLs are molecules that transport cholesterol to the tissues for use by the cells.
D)HDLs are molecules that are transported to the liver for decomposition and removal from the body.
E)All of these are true of cholesterol.
Q3) On the average, males have a slightly higher hematocrit than females.
A)True
B)False
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45
Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) Anti-D serum can be mixed with a person's blood to check for the presence of A)anti-A antibodies.
B)Rh antigens.
C)anti-B antibodies.
D)B antigens.
E)anti-Rh antibodies.
Q2) There are many different antigens found on red blood cell membranes, but only antigens A and B, and the Rh antigens are likely to cause agglutination reactions when transplanted into a person that lacks them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person with type AB blood contains ________ antigens on his/her red blood cells, and ________ antibodies in his/her blood plasma.
A)B; anti-A
B)neither A nor B; anti-A and anti-B
C)A and B; Anti-A and Anti-B
D)A; anti-B
E)A and B; neither anti-A nor anti-B
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) The pulmonary trunk is ________ to the aorta as they emerge from the heart.
A)posterior
B)lateral
C)anterior
D)distal
E)superior
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the pulmonary trunk?
A)It splits to become the right and left pulmonary arteries.
B)It emerges from the right ventricle of the heart.
C)It transports oxygen-rich blood.
D)It transports blood away from the heart.
E)All of these are true of the pulmonary trunk.
Q3) What is the function of the auricles?
A)They are the upper chambers of the heart.
B)They supply oxygen-rich blood to the walls of the heart.
C)They are the lower chambers of the heart, which pump blood to the systemic and pulmonary circuits.
D)They form the serous membrane around the heart.
E)They allow the atria to expand while they are filling with blood.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) In the ECG pattern, the P wave is soon followed by the P-Q segment, which represents
A)atrial systole.
B)ventricular diastole.
C)atrial repolarization.
D)atrial diastole.
E)ventricular systole.
Q2) During the cardiac cycle, the semilunar valves close during ventricular diastole.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sounds associated with the mitral valve can best be heard by listening with a stethoscope in the
A)second intercostal space, to the right of the sternum.
B)fifth intercostal space, just to the right of the sternum.
C)directly over the middle of the sternum.
D)second intercostal space, to the left of the sternum.
E)fifth intercostal space, to the left of the sternum, along the nipple line.
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Typically, ventricular diastole has a longer duration than ventricular systole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Typically, the heart rate increases during inspiration, and decreases during expiration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the components of the cardiac conduction system briefly delays the signal from the pacemaker, so that the atria have time to fill the ventricles with blood, before the ventricles begin to contract?
A)AV bundle
B)SA node
C)Purkinje fibers
D)Left and right bundle branches
E)AV node
Q4) The ECG is a recording of an action potential of a single cardiac muscle cell. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) Which of the following arteries connects the popliteal artery to the dorsalis pedis artery?
A)Femoral artery
B)Posterior tibial artery
C)Patellar artery
D)Crural artery
E)Anterior tibial artery
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the tunica interna?
A)It contains an epithelial layer of stratified squamous epithelium.
B)It is the innermost layer of an artery or vein.
C)It provides a smooth lining adjacent to the lumen of the blood vessel.
D)It contains a basement membrane in both arteries and veins.
E)All of these are true of the tunica interna.
Q3) Which artery transports blood from the brachial vein to the subclavian vein?
A)Axillary vein
B)Basilic vein
C)Cephalic vein
D)Median cubital vein
E)Thyrocervical vein
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) When the left ventricle is at the end of its filling cycle, the ________ pressure is reached.
A)pulse
B)diastolic
C)cardiac
D)systolic
E)mean arterial
Q2) When a person who is lying down suddenly stands up, the pulse rate decreases, due to the effects of gravity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In order to be palpated to obtain the pulse, an artery must be
A)at least 1/2 inch in diameter.
B)close to the heart.
C)above the knee.
D)superficial and above the knee.
E)superficial, with firm tissue beneath it.
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) In the spleen, the white pulp contains ________ and the red pulp contains
A)red blood cells; neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils
B)neutrophils; monocytes
C)mostly macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
D)mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
E)mainly lymphocytes; mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages
Q2) The thymus is the largest lymphatic organ in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which lymphatic trunks merge to form the cisterna chyli?
A)Subclavian and bronchomediastinal
B)Lumbar and intestinal
C)Inguinal and lumbar
D)Intestinal and subclavian
E)Intestinal and pelvic
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) In the bronchial tree, the lobar bronchi branch directly into
A)terminal bronchioles.
B)secondary bronchi.
C)primary bronchi.
D)bronchioles.
E)segmental bronchi.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the pleura?
A)Surfactant in the pleural cavity prevents the parietal and visceral pleurae from sticking together.
B)The parietal pleura covers the inner surface of the thoracic wall and the superior surface of the diaphragm.
C)The pleural cavity contains serous fluid, which is a lubricant for the movements associated with breathing.
D)The visceral pleura covers the outer surface of each lung.
E)All of these are true of the pleura.
Q3) External respiration is the same as pulmonary ventilation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) The respiratory division is the portion of the respiratory passageway that A)performs gas exchange.
B)is located superior to the trachea.
C)is located within the thorax.
D)provides for airflow, but not gas exchange.
E)is located inferior to the trachea.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of inspiration?
A)Inspiratory reserve volume is much lower than expiratory reserve volume.
B)Inspiration results from contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles.
C)Enlargement of the thoracic cavity reduces the pressure in the lungs, leading to air entering the thoracic cavity.
D)The anatomic dead space is about 30% of the inhaled tidal volume.
E)All of these are true of inspiration.
Q3) The volume of inhaled air that never reaches the alveoli is called the A)functional residual capacity.
B)tidal volume.
C)anatomic dead space.
D)inspiratory reserve volume.
E)alveolar dead space.
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) If you exhaled normally into the environment, and then blew all of the air that you could into a balloon, the volume of air in the balloon would represent the A)functional residual capacity (FRC).
B)expiratory capacity (EC).
C)inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
D)vital capacity (VC).
E)expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
Q2) In the experimental analysis, the difference in amplitude between the peak of a normal inspiration and the peak of the maximal inspiration would represent the
A)inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
B)tidal volume (TV).
C)inspiratory capacity (IC).
D)expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
E)functional residual capacity (FRC).
Q3) A respiratory capacity is the sum of two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of respiratory alkalosis?
A)It exists when the blood pH is >7.45.
B)It can result from an increase in the CO level in the blood.
C)It can result in death, if the blood pH reaches 8.0 or above.
D)It causes vasoconstriction of the cerebral blood vessels, which decreases oxygen delivery to the brain.
E)All of these are true of respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) During inspiration, the expiratory neurons of the ventral respiratory group (VRG)are being inhibited.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would not result in acidosis?
A)Rebreathing air from a paper bag
B)Hypoventilation
C)Breath holding
D)Hyperventilation
E)All of these could result in acidosis.
Q4) During normal, quiet breathing, inspirations last longer than expirations.
A)True
B)False
Page 56
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Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) Which of the following are the minor lobes of the liver?
A)Right and left lobes
B)Quadrate and caudate lobes
C)Left and caudate lobes
D)Right and quadrate lobes
E)Left and quadrate lobes
Q2) All of the following are components of pancreatic juice except
A)enzymes that digest carbohydrates.
B)bicarbonate ions.
C)enzymes that digest proteins.
D)enzymes that digest fats.
E)bile.
Q3) Which substance(s)pass(es)through the hepatopancreatic sphincter?
A)Gastric juice only
B)Bile only
C)Bile and gastric juice
D)Bile and pancreatic juice
E)Pancreatic juice only
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Which digestive organ produces the enzyme maltase?
A)Small intestine
B)Pancreas
C)Salivary glands
D)Stomach
E)Liver
Q2) Enzymes can be proteins, lipids, or carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of enzymes?
A)They are considered to be biological catalysts.
B)Enzymes are relatively non-specific, and able to catalyze several chemical reactions in the body.
C)Enzyme activity is temperature-dependent.
D)Denaturation destroys the ability of an enzyme to function.
E)All of these are true of enzymes.
Q4) Denaturation does not alter the primary structure of an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) Metabolism is the sum of all of the chemical reactions within cells that release energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a product of aerobic food catabolism?
A)Carbon dioxide
B)ATP
C)Water
D)Heat
E)All of these are products of aerobic food catabolism.
Q3) A direct calorimeter measures heat produced in units of
A)kcal/L of oxygen.
B)kcal/g of body weight.
C)kcal/min.
D)kcal/L of carbon dioxide.
E)kcal/body weight/hour.
Q4) Anabolic reactions release energy, while catabolic reactions use energy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Q1) As tubular fluid flows through the nephron, fluid from the proximal convoluted tubule flows directly into the
A)distal convoluted tubule.
B)glomerular capsule.
C)nephron loop.
D)glomerulus.
E)minor calyx.
Q2) When observing a slide of the renal medulla, it an be seen that most of the medulla consists of
A)renal corpuscles.
B)glomeruli.
C)cross sections of proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
D)longitudinal sections of nephron loops and collecting ducts.
E)a mixture of all of these structures.
Q3) Cone-shaped structures that make up the renal medulla of the kidney are called A)renal sinuses.
B)renal pyramids.
C)minor calyces.
D)renal papillae.
E)renal columns.
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Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not cause an increase in the protein content of urine?
A)Kidney disease involving glomerular damage
B)Hypotension (low blood pressure)
C)Very strenuous exercise
D)Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
E)All of these would cause an increase in the protein content of the urine.
Q2) All of the following are evaluated as "physical characteristics" in a urinalysis except A)volume of the urine.
B)sediment analysis.
C)transparency.
D)odor.
E)color.
Q3) Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity of a urine sample.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glucosuria can have either a pathological or a nonpathological cause.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ejaculatory duct forms from the merging of the ________ and the ________.
A)bulbourethral gland; urethra
B)ductus deferens; seminal vesicle
C)ductus deferens; bulbourethral gland
D)epididymis; ductus deferens
E)prostate gland; urethra
Q2) Spermatogenesis occurs through the process of meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The corpus spongiosum lies dorsal to the corpora cavernosa in the penis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which male reproductive organ is responsible for the maturation and storage of sperm?
A)The prostate gland
B)The epididymis
C)The corpus spongiosum
D)The testis
E)The seminal vesicle
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which cells of the ovary convert androgens to estrogens, under the control of follicle stimulating hormone?
A)Theca folliculi cells
B)Granulosa cells
C)Primary oocytes
D)Simple squamous epithelial cells
E)Secondary oocytes
Q2) Areolar glands of the breast produce milk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Implantation of an embryo occurs in the A)cervix.
B)perimetrium.
C)myometrium.
D)endometrium.
E)ampulla.
Q4) The perimetrium is the outer layer of the uterine wall, and it is also called the serosa.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Q1) The decidua basalis of the endometrium and the chorionic villi of the fetus grow together to form the A)placenta.
B)blastocyst.
C)amnion.
D)ectoderm.
E)morula.
Q2) Which of the following primary germ layers develops into the linings of the digestive, respiratory, and urinary organs?
A)Periderm
B)Endoderm
C)Mesoderm
D)Exoderm
E)Ectoderm
Q3) All secondary oocytes complete the process of meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Meiosis occurs only during gametogenesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 63: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In sex-linked traits, the cells of all offspring contain two copies of the genes for these traits.
A)True B)False
Q2) In complete dominance, a dominant gene will be expressed if the person is either homozygous or heterozygous for that trait.
A)True B)False
Q3) In familial hypercholesterolemia, homozygous people with the abnormal gene have extremely high cholesterol, while heterozygous people have somewhat high cholesterol. This type of inheritance is called A)complete dominance.
B)incomplete dominance. C)multiple alleles.
D)codominance.
E)sex-linked inheritance.
Q4) Carriers of a recessive trait are always heterozygous for that trait.
A)True B)False
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