Human Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology offers a comprehensive exploration of the structure and function of the human body. The course covers fundamental concepts such as cellular organization, tissues, and the major organ systems, including the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on the integration and regulation of physiological processes that sustain life and maintain homeostasis. Through lectures, hands-on laboratory experiences, and interactive learning, students gain a foundational understanding of how the bodys components work together, preparing them for further study or professional practice in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kidneys are part of the lymphatic system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The term "physiology" is related to
A)the Latin for "physical shape."
B)the structure of internal organs.
C)the Greek for "cutting up."
D)the Greek for "relationship to nature."
Answer: D
Q3) Living organisms use oxygen to ________.
A)reduce heat production
B)donate electrons for cellular metabolism
C)release energy stored in the molecules of food
D)remove metabolic wastes
Answer: C
Q4) Individuals who live more than 100 years are called ________.
Answer: centenarians
Q5) The chemicals secreted by endocrine glands are called ________.
Answer: hormones
3
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isotopes of an element have
A)the same atomic number and same atomic weight.
B)the same atomic number but different atomic weights.
C)different atomic numbers but the same atomic weight.
D)different atomic numbers and different atomic weights.
Answer: B
Q2) A ribosome exists as an association between different ribosomal protein subunits. The entire structure of the ribosome with its associations between subunits is considered the
A)primary structure.
B)secondary structure.
C)tertiary structure.
D)quaternary structure.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of these is not a monosaccharide?
A)Glucose
B)Ribose
C)6-carbon sugar
D)Sucrose
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vesicles are formed from the
A)lysosomal membrane.
B)nuclear membrane.
C)cell membrane.
D)mitochondrial membrane.
Answer: C
Q2) Stem cells taken from a person to be used to treat a disease in that same person come from
A)embryos or fetuses.
B)the person or a blood relative.
C)existing cell populations or reprogrammed cells.
D)two different cell types.
Answer: C
Q3) The nucleolus contains A)DNA only.
B)RNA and protein.
C)DNA and protein.
D)RNA only.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which DNA sequence can encode the amino acid sequence ile-asp-ser-cys-his-tyr?
A)TAGCTGTCAACAGTGATA
B)TAACTGTCGACGGTGATG
C)TAACTAAGTACGGTGATG
D)All of the answer choices are correct
Q2) One reason why protein synthesis is important is
A)enzymes are proteins and enzymes are essential to metabolism.
B)proteins release energy for metabolic reactions.
C)proteins encode DNA sequences.
D)the diet does not provide the building blocks of protein.
Q3) Adenine and guanine are ________ and cytosine and thymine are ________.
Q4) Oxidation forms chemical bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Arsenic poisoning harms the body by
A)unraveling the DNA double helix.
B)interfering with cellular extraction of energy from glucose.
C)forming more sulfur bonds in proteins.
D)rotting the teeth.
Q6) The molecule that an enzyme affects is its ________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures would be affected the most by a deficiency in collagen?
A)The liver and spleen
B)The epidermis of the skin
C)The lining of the small intestine
D)The bones
Q2) Tissues are groups of cells that have a common overall function, yet are distinctive in their characteristic cell types and the molecules that the cells produce.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of cell produces connective tissue fibers?
A)Macrophages
B)Mast cells
C)Fibroblasts
D)Osteoclasts
Q4) A skeletal muscle fiber contains many nuclei.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A single layer of flattened epithelium forms a tissue called ________.
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the dermal papillae were completely flat, this would result in the fingerprints becoming even more prominent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Apocrine sweat glands are most abundant on or in the A)forehead.
B)axilla.
C)neck.
D)palms of the hands.
Q3) Epidermis is ________, whereas dermis is ________.
A)the innermost layer of the skin; under the epidermis
B)largely composed of dense connective tissue; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue
C)the outermost layer of the skin; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue
D)composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of connective tissue, smooth muscle, and nerve cell processes
Q4) The deepest cells of the epidermis make up the stratum ________.
Q5) The pigment produced by melanocytes is ________.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood cell formation is called ________.
Q2) The parietal bones meet each other along the sagittal suture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the sacrum were to develop without its primary curve, it would be concave.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A bone thickens
A)as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
B)due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
C)as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
D)as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
Q5) Kyphosis is an excess curvature in the thoracic part of the vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are
A)fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
B)chondrocytes and osteocytes.
C)osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
D)osteoclasts and phagocytes.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most joints of the skeletal system are ________.
Q2) In a push-up, the elbow joint flexes as the person lowers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An athlete, after years of pitching, requires surgery to repair his glenohumeral ligaments. Which joint has been injured?
A)Shoulder
B)Elbow
C)Hip
D)Knee
Q4) A patient is experiencing joint inflammation and pain. They undergo an arthrocentesis and their physician discovers cloudy, pus-filled synovial fluid. Which of these conditions is most likely occurring?
A)Osteoarthritis
B)A sprain
C)Bacterial joint infection
D)Gout
Q5) Straightening the leg at the knee is an example of a type of movement called
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The linea alba is
A)a muscle extending from the ischial spine to the coccyx and sacrum.
B)a curved, broad muscle on the side of the chest.
C)a muscle beneath the skull.
D)a band of tough connective tissue to which abdominal wall muscles attach.
Q2) A sign of aging of the muscular system is
A)expansion of muscle fiber diameters.
B)decreased supplies of myoglobin.
C)excess ATP.
D)increased creatine phosphate.
Q3) In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the
A)refractory period.
B)relaxation period.
C)latent period.
D)contraction period.
Q4) The ________ at the ends of cardiac muscle cells help to join cells.
Q5) Endomysium separates individual muscle fibers from each other.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following neuroglia are not part of the CNS?
A)Ependymal cells
B)Astrocytes
C)Satellite cells
D)Microglia
Q2) The types of neurons that are organized into neuronal pools are
A)interneurons.
B)intraneurons.
C)Schwann cells.
D)astrocytes.
Q3) A nerve is a single neuron that transmits impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Myelin is rich in ________.
A)nucleic acids
B)carbohydrates
C)lipids
D)salts
Q5) A(n)________ is the junction between neurons.
Q6) Muscles and glands that respond to nervous stimulation are called ________.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Divisions of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most cerebrospinal fluid is secreted from the choroid plexuses in the A)lateral ventricles.
B)third ventricle.
C)fourth ventricle.
D)cerebral aqueduct.
Q2) The central nervous system (CNS)consists of A)spinal and cranial nerves.
B)the brain and spinal cord.
C)the brain and cranial nerves.
D)nerves in the upper and lower limbs.
Q3) A woman injures her C5-region spinal nerves. Considering the dermatome of this region, she will experience interruption in the sensation of the skin in the ________. A)back of the head
B)chest, thoracic region of the back, and stomach
C)chest around the clavicle areas and the lateral portion of the shoulder and arm
D)the neck exclusively
Q4) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system decreases heart rate to return the body to ordinary, restful conditions.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) As they extend from the retina to the brain, the nerve fibers
A)from the nasal half of each retina cross over.
B)from the temporal half of each retina cross over.
C)all cross over.
D)do not cross over.
Q2) Impulses from the spiral organ travel on the vestibulocochlear nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tears contain an enzyme that reduces the risk of eye infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Referred pain occurs when the brain projects the sensation back to the original source in the body from which the pain originated.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pain receptors
A)respond to factors that can damage tissue.
B)adapt rapidly.
C)are among the most specialized receptors.
D)are widely distributed in the brain.
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetus develops a malformation in the pituitary gland which causes it to lack melanocyte-stimulating hormone. This results in lack of skin and eye coloration, similar to albinism. The malformed portion of the pituitary gland is a structure called the
Q2) The hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla are amines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hormone that the pineal gland secretes is A)melanoma.
B)melatonin.
C)myostatin.
D)beta endorphin.
Q4) A nonsteroid hormone acts on a target cell by A)causing synthesis of a second messenger. B)stimulating cell division.
C)promoting phagocytosis.
D)directly causing protein synthesis.
Q5) The target cells of releasing hormones are in the anterior pituitary gland. A)True B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The familiar brown color of human feces comes primarily from the orange-colored product of red blood cell breakdown that has been secreted in the bile and has become brown as it travels through the intestines. Which product contributes to this color?
A)Biliverdin
B)Degraded platelets
C)Bilirubin
D)Ferritin
Q2) The most important action of plasma albumin is
A)acting as antibodies of immunity.
B)transporting lipids and fat-soluble vitamins.
C)serving as energy sources.
D)helping maintain colloid osmotic pressure.
Q3) The release of tissue thromboplastin initiates
A)the intrinsic clotting mechanism.
B)the extrinsic clotting mechanism.
C)platelet plug formation.
D)hemolysis.
Q4) Normally the most common type of leukocyte in a blood sample is the ________.
Q5) In an adult, red blood cells are produced primarily in the ________.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arteries are strong, elastic vessels that carry blood to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the systolic blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The aorta is the largest artery in the pulmonary circuit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Circulation is vital because it
A)supplies oxygen and nutrients to and removes wastes from tissues.
B)inflates the lungs.
C)delivers carbon dioxide to tissues and removes excess oxygen.
D)delivers wastes to tissues.
Q5) Blood from the face and scalp is drained by the
A)external jugular vein.
B)subclavian vein.
C)superior vena cava.
D)cephalic vein.
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
Q2) The thymus enlarges after puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Disease-causing agents such as viruses and bacteria are called ________.
Q4) Which response is slower but more specific for a pathogen?
A)Innate defenses
B)Adaptive defenses
C)Nonspecific defenses
D)Inborn defenses
Q5) A virus differs from other pathogens in that it is A)larger.
B)more dangerous.
C)not capable of reproduction outside a living cell.
D)multicellular.
Q6) ________ is accumulation of tissue fluid in the interstitial spaces.
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ pick up cholesterol from the peripheral tissues and return it to the liver.
A)VLDLs
B)LDLs
C)HDLs
D)Triglycerides
Q2) Hepatitis B can be transmitted by means of
A)contact with infected feces.
B)contaminated hypodermic needles.
C)infected food.
D)travel to developing countries.
Q3) Which is not an involuntary part of the swallowing reflex?
A)Muscles pull the pharynx upward toward the food.
B)The epiglottis closes off the top of the trachea.
C)The tongue presses against the uvula and soft palate.
D)The tongue rolls chewed food into a bolus and pushes it to the oropharynx.
Q4) Fatty foods stay in the stomach longer than protein or carbohydrate foods.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The passageway through the digestive tube is called the ________.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) The body can synthesize a provitamin from dietary cholesterol and store it in skin. With exposure to ultraviolet light, this provitamin is changed to an inactive form of vitamin ________.
Q2) The liver functions in fat metabolism to control the amounts of glucose, amino acids, and iron released into the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) BMI measures
A)weight in proportion to height.
B)the amount of body fat.
C)volume in proportion to area.
D)the basal metabolic rate.
Q4) Which is not a medical condition that affects the ability to obtain adequate nutrition?
A)Tooth decay
B)Depression
C)Periodontal disease
D)Osteomalacia
Q5) The units of heat that measure the amount of energy in food are called ________.
Q6) Proteins are digested into ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Q1) The cells of an alveolus that secrete surfactant are type ________.
Q2) The volume of air that enters the lungs during forced maximal inspiration is the A)inspiratory reserve volume.
B)expiratory reserve volume.
C)vital capacity.
D)tidal volume.
Q3) The pharynx functions as a ________, whereas the larynx functions as a
A)common passage for air and food; passageway for food only
B)passageway for air only; passageway for air and food
C)common passageway for air and food; passageway for air only
D)passageway for food only, passageway for air and food
Q4) Another word for breathing is ventilation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Gas exchange occurs across alveolar pores.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Coughing reflexes become faster with age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The triangular area on the internal floor of the urinary bladder is the ________.
Q2) Proteins of smaller molecular size may be reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the process of ________.
Q3) During development, the embryo is injected with anti-VEGF (which negates VEGF functions). Which of the following effects will occur?
A)Mesangial cells will be hyper-stimulated to specialize because VEGF is inhibited, so glomerular filtration rate will be highly decreased.
B)VEGF won't stimulate growth of the proximal convoluted tubule.
C)The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule will not be formed, as the squamous epithelium won't be attracted to VEGF.
D)Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)will be mass-produced and cause unchecked growth and development of mesangial cells.
Q4) Shigatoxin is associated with A)endemic nephropathy.
B)urinary tract infection.
C)edema.
D)hemolytic uremic syndrome.
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) One mole of the carbohydrate sucrose and two moles of the electrolyte potassium chloride (KCl)are placed in one liter of water. After dissolution of the particles, what is the osmolarity of the solution?
A)Six osmoles per liter
B)Three osmoles per liter
C)Four osmoles per liter
D)Five osmoles per liter
Q2) Transcellular fluid includes the water and electrolytes in the A)cerebrospinal fluid.
B)interstitial fluid.
C)blood vessels.
D)cytoplasm.
Q3) Chemical buffer systems act rapidly against shifts in pH, whereas physiological buffer systems function more slowly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An arterial blood pH above 7.45 is called ________.
Q5) Kidneys help to regulate acid-base balance of the blood by secreting OH .
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which of the following provides mechanical contraception?
A)The rhythm method
B)The minipill
C)Combined hormone contraceptives
D)A diaphragm
Q2) The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics is
A)LH.
B)FSH.
C)testosterone.
D)gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
Q3) Compared to males who train for endurance events, females who train for such events typically
A)maintain a lower percentage of body fat.
B)maintain a higher percentage of body fat.
C)develop a higher percentage of muscle tissue because of testosterone.
D)develop a higher percentage of muscle tissue because of estrogen.
Q4) Chromosomes align down the center of a cell undergoing meiosis in metaphase.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Repair enzymes correct
A)the degeneration of collagen and elastin.
B)mutations that occur when DNA replicates.
C)free radical build-up.
D)lipofuscin build-up.
Q2) A pregnant woman wants to know the approximate day her child was conceived. She knows the date of the start of her last menstrual period was March 4th. What does she need to do to calculate the date of conception from this point?
A)Add 38 weeks to that date
B)Add 14 days to that date
C)Add 7 days to that date
D)She can't calculate the conception date with that information, only the expected due date
Q3) During development of the hands and feet in the late embryonic stage, the fingers and toes form as extensions of muscular, nervous, and connective tissue from the limb buds. Completion of finger and toe extension triggers a process in which the webbed tissue between each digit is signaled/programmed to die. This process is known as
Q4) In the day or two before milk secretion begins, the breasts secrete ________.
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) Your family has a strong genetic predisposition to abnormal blood clotting and deep vein thrombosis. How does this affect or determine your chances of suffering from the same conditions?
A)You are guaranteed to experience blood clots and deep vein thrombosis, as the genes producing such conditions are definitely in your genome and will become active at some point.
B)You don't have to worry about these conditions because genetic predisposition doesn't at all affect your chances of developing these conditions if you exercise regularly and eat healthy foods.
C)You must expect to die from such conditions if more than 4 or 5 of your relatives have also died from them, as medicine does not yet know how to stop genetic conditions from taking their course.
D)You have a higher risk of suffering from these conditions, but you can still take preventative steps to reduce the risk if you know about the genetic predisposition. You are not absolutely guaranteed to suffer deep vein thrombosis because environmental factors can be changed.
Q2) The human genome contains millions of different genes.
A)True
B)False
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