Human Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology is an in-depth course that explores the structure and function of the human body. It covers the fundamental concepts of anatomy, including the organization of cells, tissues, organs, and systems, as well as physiological processes that sustain life. Students will examine major body systems such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems, gaining an understanding of how these systems interact and maintain homeostasis. The course combines theoretical knowledge with practical laboratory experiences, preparing students for further studies in health and medical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The composition of this body fluid,which fills the narrow spaces between cells and tissues,directly affects the proper functioning of cells.
A)lymph
B)blood plasma
C)interstitial fluid
D)intracellular fluid
E)vitreous body
Answer: C
Q2) This is the sum of all chemical processes that occur in the body.
A)metabolism
B)anabolism
C)catabolism
D)auscultation
E)palpation
Answer: A
Q3) Describe a feedback system and list its general components.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Name the cavities of the trunk and the serous membranes that line them.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following illustrates the use of a radioisotope as a tracer?
A)monitor blood flow through the heart
B)shrink a tumor by killing tumor cells with emitted radiation
C)destroy overactive thyroid gland
D)treat prostate cancer
E)treat advanced cervical cancer
Answer: A
Q2) List three factors that increase the rate of chemical reactions.
Answer: No Answer
Q3) Which of the following chemical elements present in the body is considered a lesser element?
A)phosphorus
B)oxygen
C)nitrogen
D)aluminum
E)copper
Answer: A
Q4) Why is the human digestive system unable to digest cellulose?
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long does the G phase normally last?
A)8 to 10 hours
B)4 to 6 hours
C)2 to 4 hours
D)24 hours
E)1 to 2 days
Answer: B
Q2) A patient with normal development in their 1 year,followed by rapid aging evidenced by dry and wrinkled skin,total baldness,and birdlike facial features likely has which disease?
A)Tay-Sachs disease
B)leukemia
C)progeria
D)lymphoma
E)Werner syndrome
Answer: C
Q3) Briefly state the functions of the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Briefly describe how proteins move through the Golgi complex.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Q1) Which following types of cells are considered excitable cells because they are able to produce electrical signals?
A)neuroglial cells and myofibers
B)myofibers and connective tissue cells
C)neuroglial cells and neurons
D)neurons and epithelial cells
E)myofibers and neurons
Q2) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions.
Q3) Which of the following types of tissues contains multinucleated cells whose movements are under voluntary control?
A)skeletal muscle
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)transitional epithelium
E)areolar tissue
Q4) Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon.
Q5) Discuss the difference(s)between an endocrine and an exocrine gland.
Q6) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.
Q7) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
Q8) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.
Q2) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal.
Q3) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing.
Q4) Which of the following chemicals does NOT contribute to the color of human skin?
A)carotene
B)hemoglobin
C)pheomelanin
D)eumelanin
E)melatonin
Q5) The process of keratinization involves
A)synthesizing new pigment in the skin.
B)cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.
C)changes occurring in thin skin only.
D)both synthesizing new pigment in the skin and cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.
E)none of these answer choices are correct.
Q6) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin.
Q7) Describe how fingerprints are formed and what they are used for.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following correctly lists the order of the four zones of cartilage found within the growth plate starting at the epiphysis and extending to the diaphysis?
A)calcified cartilage,resting cartilage,proliferating cartilage,hypertrophic cartilage
B)resting cartilage,proliferating cartilage,calcified cartilage,hypertrophic cartilage
C)proliferating cartilage,resting cartilage,hypertrophic cartilage,calcified cartilage
D)resting cartilage,proliferating cartilage,hypertrophic cartilage,calcified cartilage
E)hypertrophic cartilage,calcified cartilage,proliferating cartilage,resting cartilage
Q2) Patient X has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands.Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.
Q3) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.
Q4) Describe the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis and describe the risk factors for developing osteoporosis.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly?
A)Females
B)Males
C)Both genders
D)The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender
Q2) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone?
A)Long bone
B)Short bone
C)Flat bone
D)Irregular bone
E)Sesamoid bone
Q3) The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is
A)attachment site for muscles.
B)calcium storage.
C)to support the body of the vertebrae.
D)to hold the hyoid in place.
E)to create a passageway for the spinal cord
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.
Q5) List and describe the number of bones found in all the regions of the adult vertebral column.
9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The Appendicular
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the male and female pelvis.
Q2) The ________ is found on the proximal end of the humerus.
A)capitulum
B)radial fossa
C)trochlea
D)ulna tuberosity
E)intertubercular sulcus
Q3) The route taken by the baby's head during childbirth follows the ______ as it travels through the pelvis.
A)pelvic axis
B)plane of the pelvic outlet
C)pelvic brim
D)sacral promontory
E)pectineal line
Q4) Which of the structures listed below is NOT part of the knee joint?
A)Lateral condyle of the femur
B)Medial condyle of the femur
C)Lateral malleolus of the fibula
D)Condyles of the tibia
E)Patella
10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) This ligament limits hyperextension of the knee and prevents the anterior sliding of the tibia on the femur.
A)Fibular collateral ligament
B)Anterior cruciate ligament
C)Posterior cruciate ligament
D)Patellar ligament
E)Arcuate popliteal ligament
Q2) This functional class of joints contains joints that are freely movable.?1.Synarthrosis?2.Amphiarthrosis?3.Diarthrosis
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)Both 2 and 3
E)All of these choices
Q3) The epiphyseal plate in a long bone is an example of this type of joint.
A)Gomphosis
B)Suture
C)Symphysis
D)Synovial
E)Synchondrosis
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A structural protein that is associated with thin filaments and serves to anchor the thin filament to the Z-disc is called A)nebulin.
B)titin.
C)myomesin.
D)dystrophin.
E)tropomyosin.
Q2) In an isometric contraction the muscle develops tension but does not A)lengthen.
B)widen.
C)does not expend energy.
D)conduct electrical current.
E)exhibit elasticity.
Q3) Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue.
Q4) On which of the following proteins is the enzyme ATPase located?
A)actin
B)myosin
C)titin
D)dystrophin
E)troponin
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following body regions,would you find the external anal sphincter?
A)peritoneum
B)perineum
C)pelvic cavity
D)abdominal cavity
E)thoracic cavity
Q2) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.
Q3) Which of the following is a muscle that flexes the little toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint?
A)tibialis anterior
B)adductor hallucis
C)flexor digiti minimi brevis
D)flexor digitorum brevis
E)flexor hallucis brevis
Q4) Name the three groups of muscles constituting the intrinsic muscles of the hand.Briefly describe the structure and function of each of these groups.
Q5) Name the layers,in order,that a bullet will go through if entered through the anterior abdominal wall.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an action potential,the current that flows down the axon of a neuron is generated by the movement of ______ across the membrane.
A)electrons
B)protons
C)ions
D)free radicals
E)neutrons
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a small molecule neurotransmitter?
A)Acetylcholine
B)Biogenic amines
C)Purines
D)Endorphins
E)Serotonin
Q3) The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch by A)saltatory conduction.
B)continuous conduction of graded potentials.
C)changing the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers.
D)propagation action potential in both directions.
E)modifying the length of the refractory period.
Q4) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) An ipsilateral,intersegmental,spinal somatic reflex will most likely control
A)only one flexor muscle on the same side of the body as the sensor.
B)many flexor muscles on the same side of the body as the sensor.
C)many flexor and extensor muscles on the same side of the body as the sensor.
D)many flexor muscles on the opposite side of the body as the sensor.
E)many flexor and extensor muscles on the opposite side of the body as the sensor.
Q2) In response to a muscle being stretched,a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes?1.contraction of the agonist muscle.?2.relaxation of the antagonist muscle.?3.contraction of the antagonist muscle.?4.relaxation of the agonist muscle.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)4 only
E)1 and 2
Q3) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes.
Q4) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves.
Q5) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q6) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deep indentation found along the medial plane that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres is called the A)septum pellucidum.
B)transverse fissure.
C)tentorium cerebelli.
D)corpus callosum.
E)longitudinal fissure.
Q2) Brain waves that generally appear during periods of sensory input and mental activity are called
A)alpha waves.
B)beta waves.
C)theta waves.
D)delta waves.
E)P waves.
Q3) Cranial nerve V is also known as the _______________nerve.
A)trochlear
B)oculomotor
C)trigeminal
D)vagus
E)abducens
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus?
A)Raynaud's phenomenon
B)Autonomic dysreflexia
C)Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
D)Diabetic neuropathy
E)Horner's Syndrome
Q2) Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are only found in brown adipose tissue where their activation stimulates heat production?
A) -adrenergic
B) -adrenergic
C) -adrenergic
D) -adrenergic
E) -adrenergic
Q3) Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?
A)Somatic motor neurons
B)Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
C)Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
D)Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
E)Somatosensory neurons.
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids?
A)photoreceptor
B)mechanoreceptor
C)thermoreceptor
D)chemoreceptor
E)osmoreceptor
Q2) Which of the following statements about proprioception is INCORRECT?
A)Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects.
B)Proprioceptors are slowly adapting receptors.
C)Proprioceptors are embedded in muscles and tendons
D)Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other.
E)Proprioceptive sensations are used to activate the nervous system in response to threatening situations.
Q3) A viral infection has damaged a patient's tectospinal tract.What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?
Q4) What is phantom limb sensation and describe why the patient experiences these sensations?
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Q1) Which of the following molecules is capable of detecting light rays that strike the photopigments in the retina?
A)cGMP
B)opsin portion of rhodopsin
C)cis-retinal
D)melanin
E)retinal isomerase
Q2) Which of the structures listed below converts vibrations in the endolymph into action potentials?
A)macula
B)pinna
C)tympanic membrane
D)organ of Corti
E)cupula
Q3) The axons of the ganglion neurons of the retina terminate in the
A)optic disk.
B)optic chiasm.
C)visual cortex of cerebrum.
D)lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.
E)primary somatosensory area of cerebral cortex.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Q1) When a hormone is present in excessive levels,the number of target-cell receptors may decrease.This is called
A)receptor recognition.
B)sensory adaptation.
C)paracrine regulation.
D)up-regulation.
E)down-regulation.
Q2) Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of lipid-soluble versus water-soluble hormones.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of hormone that is secreted from an endocrine gland in response to a chemical change in the blood?
A)Parathyroid hormone release from the parathyroid gland.
B)Insulin release from the pancreas.
C)Glucagon release from the pancreas.
D)ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland.
E)All the answer selections are correct.
Q4) Compare the metabolic changes that occur during starvation with those that occur in diabetes mellitus.
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
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Q1) A megakaryoblast will develop into
A)a red blood cell.
B)a white blood cell.
C)a platelet.
D)either a white blood cell or a platelet.
E)none of these choices.
Q2) Reduced vitamin B absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called A)hemorrhagic anemia.
B)aplastic anemia.
C)megaloblastic anemia.
D)pernicious anemia.
E)iron deficiency anemia.
Q3) Ferritin is a protein used to A)transport iron in the blood.
B)store iron in the liver.
C)oxidize iron in the peroxisomes.
D)synthesize iron.
E)absorb iron across intestinal cells.
Q4) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Q1) This layer of the heart wall consists of mesothelium and connective tissue.
A)Epicardium
B)Myocardium
C)Endocardium
D)Fibrous pericardium
E)None of the answer selections are correct
Q2) Through which structure does blood pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle?
A)Bicuspid valve
B)Interventricular septum
C)Tricuspid valve
D)Mitral valve
E)Ascending aorta
Q3) Cardiac muscle fibers are electrically connected to neighboring fibers by A)desmosomes.
B)tight junctions.
C)gap junctions.
D)interneurons.
E)chordae tendinae.
Q4) Briefly describe why cardiac tissue cannot repair itself after damage?
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) In resting individuals,these vessels serve as a large blood reservoir from which blood can be quickly diverted to other vessels as needed.
A)Arteries and arterioles
B)Arterioles and capillaries
C)Venules and capillaries
D)Veins and venules
E)Aorta and veins
Q2) Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in systemic vascular resistance?
A)Decreased diameter of systemic arterioles
B)Increased blood viscosity
C)Decreased length of the systemic circulatory route
D)Increased vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles
E)Increased red blood cell count
Q3) What is the main difference between the pulmonary and systemic circulations with respect to their autoregulatory response to changes in blood O2 level?
Q4) Describe the route of an RBC traveling from the heart to the left elbow and back to the heart.
Q5) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) To become activated,which requires being bound to a foreign antigen AND simultaneous costimulation?
A)B Cell
B)T Cell
C)Interferon
D)MHC antigen
E)Antigen presenting cell
Q2) Lack of resistance is also known as:
A)Pathogenic
B)Innate
C)Specific
D)Susceptibility
E)Lymphatic
Q3) Which action makes microbes more susceptible to phagocytosis?
A)Opsonization
B)Cytolysis
C)Inflammation
D)Complement
E)Hybridoma
Q4) List the five actions of antibodies.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
Q2) Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid that functions to emulsify dietary fats?
A)Teeth
B)Salivary glands
C)Liver
D)Gallbladder
E)Pharynx
Q3) This hormone is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small intestine.
A)Pepsin
B)Secretin
C)Gastrin
D)Cholecystokinin
E)Amylase
Q4) This cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of hydrochloric acid.
A)Neck cell
B)Chief cell
C)G cell
D)Chyme cell
E)Parietal cell
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Chapter 24: Metabolism
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Q1) What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?
A)Insulin
B)Human Growth hormone
C)Epinephrine
D)Thyroid hormone
E)Cortisol
Q2) Which of the following is a factor that does NOT affect heat production?
A)Exercise
B)Hormones
C)Nervous system
D)Ingestion of food
E)Blood volume
Q3) Excess amino acids in the body are
A)Excreted in urine
B)Excreted in feces
C)Converted into glucose
D)Stored as ATP
E)Converted into proteins
Q4) Which vitamins are considered "antioxidant vitamins?" Why is this role so important?
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) This is smooth dense irregular connective tissue that is continuous with the outer coat of the ureter.
A)adipose capsule
B)renal capsule
C)renal hilus
D)renal cortex
E)renal medulla
Q2) Describe the flow of blood through the kidneys.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a way angiotensin II affects the kidneys?
A)It increases GFR
B)It can decrease GFR
C)It enhances reabsorption of certain ions
D)It stimulates the release of aldosterone
E)None of these choices
Q4) What is the normal volume of urine produced in humans?
A)1L / hr
B)2L / day
C)2L / hr
D)3L / week
E)10L / 24 hours
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) This hormone promotes the final step of spermatogenesis.
A)Relaxin
B)Testosterone
C)Inhibin
D)Estrogen
E)Aldosterone
Q2) Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the
A)Labia majora
B)Labia minor
C)Mons pubis
D)Cervical sphincter
E)Labial frenulum
Q3) Zygote is
A)the same as an ovum
B)another name for secondary oocyte
C)a diploid fertilized ovum
D)the same as polar body
E)the Graffian follicle
Q4) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Q5) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Chromosome #15 is considered
A)A sex chromosome
B)An autosome
C)The SRY chromosome
D)A linked gene
E)A transposon
Q2) This is the connection between the placenta and the embryo.
A)Amnion
B)Chorion
C)Umbilical cord
D)Placenta
E)Capillary beds
Q3) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Q4) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
Q5) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
Q6) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
Q7) Red-green color blindness is a recessive,X-linked trait represented as X .(Normal color vision is represented as X . )If a daughter has red-green color blindness,what must the genotypes of her parents be?
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