Hospitality Management
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Hospitality Management is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the key concepts, principles, and practices involved in the effective management of hospitality organizations, including hotels, restaurants, resorts, and event planning companies. Emphasizing customer service excellence, operational efficiency, and strategic planning, the course covers a range of topics such as front office operations, food and beverage management, marketing strategies, human resources, and financial controls. Students will also explore emerging trends in the industry, sustainability practices, and the impact of technology on hospitality services, preparing them to lead and innovate in a dynamic, global environment.
Recommended Textbook hospitality marketing management 5th edition by robert d. reid
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Operations Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which second-tier computer company utilized a drastic change in its operations function to become an industry leader in the late 1990s?
A)Apple
B)Compaq
C)Dell
D)IBM
E)Kozmo
Answer: C
Q2) The advent of the computer age paved the way for the development of MRP for inventory control and scheduling.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) An example of a transformation is waiting to see the doctor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The history of Operations Management reflects.
Answer: The accumulation of experience and ideas over time.
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Chapter 2: Operations Strategy and Competitiveness
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Sample Questions
Q1) When making competitive priority decisions the firm:
A)must select the correct supply chain
B)must ensure the PWP is correctly established
C)must focus on the one competitive priority at the exclusion of all others
D)must make trade-off decisions
E)must isolate the competing internal departments
Answer: D
Q2) A business strategy is like an explorer's ________________________. Answer: compass
Q3) If inputs increase by 30% and outputs increase by 15%, what is the percentage change in productivity?
A)50.00% decrease
B)88.46% increase
C)88.46% decrease
D)11.54% increase
E)11.54% decrease
Answer: E
Q4) A firm produces 6000 products using 12 workers on a nine-hour shift. What is the labor productivity per worker?
Answer: 55.6 units/hour
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Chapter 3: Product Design and Process Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When product and process design work together, much of the work is done in sequence rather than in parallel.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What is a process flowchart?
Answer: A chart showing the sequence of steps in producing the product or service.
Q3) Building a bridge over the Mississippi River for a new highway uses a
A)project process
B)batch process
C)line process
D)continuous process
E)recycle process
Answer: A
Q4) Process velocity is computed as a ratio of throughput time to output.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: E-Commerce and Supply Chain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a typical result of the bullwhip effect?
A)Absenteeism
B)Lost revenues
C)Ineffective transportation use
D)Poor customer service levels
E)Misused manufacturing capacity
Q2) According to several studies, what are the three most important criteria for selecting suppliers?
A)Price, quality, fast delivery
B)Quality, fast delivery, on-time delivery
C)Price, flexibility, on-time delivery
D)Quality, flexibility, fast delivery
E)Price, quality, on-time delivery
Q3) What is a network internal to an organization called?
A)supernet
B)internet
C)intranet
D)supranet
E)internalnet
Q4) Compare the access differences among the Internet, an intranet, and an extranet.
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Chapter 5: Total Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chart showing the number of defects that result from different causes would be used in:
A)Pareto analysis
B)Flowcharts
C)Cause-and-effect diagrams
D)Benchmarking
E)Control charts
Q2) The most important factor in the success or failure of TQM efforts is the genuineness of the organization's commitment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Malcolm Baldrige Award criteria category that includes continuous improvement programs, employee training, and functioning of teams is
A)Leadership
B)Strategic planning
C)Information and analysis
D)Human resource development and management
E)Business results
Q4) What are the common causes of TQM failure?
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Chapter 6: Statistical Quality Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) In six-sigma programs, individuals are given academic titles that reflect their skills in the six-sigma process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An x-bar chart is an example of what?
A)Traditional statistical tools
B)Fishbone diagramming
C)Acceptance sampling
D)Experimental design
E)Statistical process control
Q3) A process can be considered in a state of control even if one observation is 1.75 standard deviations above the mean.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the formula for the sample standard deviation of a variable measured as a fraction or probability?
Q5) Consumers willingly accept defects if ________________________.
Q6) The computed AOQ provides a sense of the ______________ of the product
Q7) What is the formula for the basic capability index?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Just-In-Time and Lean Systems
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Q1) Undercapacity scheduling is the term that describes working with a schedule of seven hours of production and one hour of problem solving with teams.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The manufacturing process in JIT starts with the final assembly schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to JIT, workers should perform
A)system specification development
B)as directed by the supervisor
C)routine preventive maintenance activities
D)poka-yoke designs
E)quality program development
Q4) The manufacturing process in JIT starts with the
A)final assembly schedule
B)schedules for individual machines
C)vendor deliveries
D)prioritization of lots
E)forward scheduling
Q5) What are three reasons that respect for people is important in JIT?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Forecasting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike MAD and MSE, the tracking signal's numerator allows positive and negative forecast errors to _____________.
Q2) Multiple regression is a(n)___________ of linear regression.
Q3) Exponential smoothing forecasting methods requires a small amount of historical data.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the two categories of quantitative models?
Q5) Economics relies on forecasting to predict the duration of economic turning points. A)True
B)False
Q6) Which of the following is not a feature common to all forecasting models?
A)This period's forecast error is needed to compute next period's forecast.
B)Forecasts are rarely perfect.
C)Forecasts are more accurate for groups of items rather than for individual items.
D)Forecasts are more accurate for shorter rather than for longer time horizons.
E)All of the answer choices are correct.
Q7) Developing a single forecast from several methods is called
and
Chapter 9: Capacity Planning and Facility Location
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has the least to do with location analysis?
A)sources of transportation
B)reduction in trade barriers
C)information technology reducing need for proximity
D)retail stores locating near each other
E)automation of factories
Q2) According to the textbook, one of the fastest-growing trends today is
A)Leveraging technology
B)PWP
C)focused plants
D)developing a large network of subcontractors
E)developing a large focused distribution chain
Q3) Decision trees are useful when the alternatives are __________ and involve
A)local, senior management
B)in parallel, certainty
C)in sequence, uncertainty
D)in sequence, certainty
Q4) Schools, colleges, and universities consider the size of the classrooms carefully because _____________________.
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Chapter 10: Facility Layout
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Sample Questions
Q1) A single-model line is __________ to produce only __________ version of a product.
Q2) A single-line cafeteria is an example of which layout type?
A)inverted
B)disjointed
C)process
D)fixed position
E)product
Q3) The number of trips or products moved between pairs of departments is recorded in a ____________________.
Q4) Intermittent operations are seen in organizations that produce:
A)a small variety of different products
B)high volumes of a few standard products
C)a large variety of different products
D)a large volume of many standardized products
E)assembly line manufacturing
Q5) In general, scheduling resources is less challenging under a process layout than it would be under a product layout.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Work System Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Advantages of the alternative workplace include all except which of the following?
A)eliminating offices that people do not need
B)reducing overhead expenses
C)offers more flexibility to balance work and family
D)increased cohesiveness among employees
E)employees devote more time to customers and/or meaningful work activities
Q2) Methods analysis eliminates unnecessary tasks and improves the process for completing tasks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To determine whether the alternative workplace is right for your organization, which of the following questions should be positively answered?
A)are you out of space?
B)does your organization have an open culture?
C)does your organization allow the employee to set their own expectations?
D)does your organization subscribe to the 'new' work force program?
E)does the organization plan office parties?
Q4) What are the steps involved in doing a time study?
Q5) What are the approaches to eliminating employee boredom? Briefly describe each.
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Chapter 12: Independent Demand Inventory Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the costs (S and H)and demands (D)are the same, which of the following is not true with regard to the EPQ model as compared to the EOQ model?
A)The EPQ model produces a lower total annual cost.
B)The maximum inventory level is lower under the EPQ model than under the EOQ model.
C)Both models use the same formula to compute annual ordering cost.
D)The inventory depletion rate is not the same for both models.
E)The two models use different formulas to compute annual holding cost.
Q2) What inventory function protects against supply shortages?
Q3) When order quantities are higher, average transportation inventory is higher.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The two major decisions to be made when using the periodic review system are the target inventory level and the order quantity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the basic EOQ for a product whose annual demand is 48000 with setup cost $15 and holding cost $5?
Q6) What are the three major categories of holding costs?
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Chapter 13: Aggregate Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evaluating an aggregate plan in terms of employment stability is using what perspective?
A)cost
B)customer service
C)quality
D)operations
E)human resources
Q2) In a level production plan, if you do not allow backorders, you will need to ensure the _____ is sufficient to meet the average demand.
Q3) The aggregate plan helps manufacturing with all of the following except:
A)whom to employ
B)how much work to subcontract
C)how much inventory can be held
D)when to add/subtract employees
E)when to use overtime
Q4) In the level production plan you do not add ______, _____ or ______ to meet peak demand.
Q5) Demand-based options include two reactive options and two proactive options.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Resource Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gross requirements of a given component part are determined from
A)scheduled receipts plus projected available
B)gross requirements of the parent
C)planned orders of the parent
D)projected available of the end item
E)planned orders of the end item
Q2) Which ERP module includes investment management?
A)finance and accounting
B)information systems
C)sales and marketing
D)production and materials management
E)human resources
Q3) Items that are sold as complete or repair parts are called ______________________.
Q4) Gross requirements for finished products are taken from the order entry file.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how Dell Computer has become able to implement mass customization.
Q6) List the major users of ERP systems.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Gantt chart is a basic scheduling tool for low-volume systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If using critical ratio (CR)as the scheduling rule, the job with the smallest ratio of time remaining until due date to the processing time remaining has the lowest priority.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a feature of job-shop operations?
A)a process layout
B)highly skilled employees
C)special-purpose equipment and tooling
D)highly customized products
E)low volume production
Q4) What does "negative lateness" mean?
A)The job is finished after its due date.
B)The job is finished on its due date.
C)The job is finished before its due date.
D)The job is not finished.
E)The job has not started.
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Chapter 16: Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase in the project life cycle involves analyzing the project risk?
A)conception
B)feasibility analysis or study
C)planning
D)execution
E)termination
Q2) An activity in a network diagram has an optimistic time estimate of five days, a most likely time estimate of seven days, and a pessimistic time estimate of 15 days. Its expected time is eight days.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The longest connected route through the path network is the
A)planning matrix
B)final deliverable
C)crash path
D)connector
E)critical path
Q4) Name and describe the three ways to waste safety time in the critical chain approach.
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Chapter 16: Spreadsheet Modeling: an Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Excel, what are the three arguments that an INDEX function takes?
A)Lookup_value, Match_type, and Lookup_array
B)Lookup_value, Match_type, and Array
C)Lookup_value, Column_num, and Lookup_array
D)Array, Row_num, and Column_num
E)Lookup_array, Row_num, and Column_num
Q2) In the custom footer box, which of the following is the command to insert the worksheet name?
A)&[worksheet]
B)&[tab]
C)&[work]
D)&[sheet]
E)&[page]
Q3) In Excel, the command to print Cell Comments is selected under which menu/submenu?
A)Print
B)Page Setup
C)Tools
D)View
E)Insert
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Chapter 17: Spreadsheet Modeling: an Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Constrained optimization models can be used to either ____________ or ___________ some quantity based on a set of constraints
Q2) In Solver, the __________ is the cell that you want to maximize or minimize.
Q3) The advantage of formal optimization modeling is that it can simultaneously consider the effects of alternate decisions to produce the best overall decision according to the objective.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In Linear Programming, users have control over quantities called parameters. A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss how the Solver Sensitivity Report is fundamentally different than the other reports.
Q6) The optimal solution to an optimization problem is the feasible solution with the largest (for a "min" problem)objective function value.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the primary advantage of optimization modeling.
Q8) Explain what differentiates a Linear Program from a Nonlinear Program.
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Chapter 18: Waiting Line Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an assumption of the waiting line models presented in the textbook?
A)the customers are patient
B)customers come from an infinite population
C)customer arrival rate is described by a Poisson distribution
D)service times are described by a Normal distribution
E)the waiting line priority rule is first-come, first-served
Q2) First-come, first-served is an unbiased priority rule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) 5<sup>0</sup> = ________?
A)5
B)0
C)undefined
D)1
E)1/5
Q4) Customers typically consider a multiple-line service system to be fairer than a single-line service system.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Master Scheduling and Rough-Cut Capacity Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Master Production Schedule is often stated in:
A)dollars
B)rubles
C)product specifications
D)labor
E)material requirements
Q2) Discuss why a negative number in the available-to-promise row is always a problem.
Q3) The MPS is said to be ________________________ between the current time and the time needed for final assembly.
Q4) What data are added to create an extended MPS record that allows the firm to compute available-to-promise units?
A)time period (e.g. weeks)
B)forecast
C)customer orders
D)projected available
E)MPS
Q5) The MPS is said to be ________________________ between final assembly and cumulative manufacturing lead times.
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