Hospital Pharmacy Practice
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Hospital Pharmacy Practice provides students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills required for the effective operation of pharmacy services within hospital settings. The course covers the roles and responsibilities of hospital pharmacists, including medication order review, compounding, sterile preparations, drug information services, formulary management, and patient counseling. Emphasis is placed on interdisciplinary collaboration, safe medication practices, regulatory compliance, and the application of clinical guidelines to optimize patient outcomes. Through case studies and simulated scenarios, students gain hands-on experience in addressing the unique challenges of hospital-based pharmaceutical care.
Recommended Textbook
Mosbys Pharmacy Technician Principles and Practice 4th Edition by Elsevier
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28 Chapters
895 Verified Questions
895 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Medicine and Pharmacy
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the Civil War, many soldiers died from ______________.
A)Common diseases
B)Battle wounds
C)Postsurgical infections
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) In early American history, many people died of mercury poisoning, since mercury was used to treat:
A)Diphtheria
B)Dysentery
C)Malaria
D)Syphilis
Answer: D
Q3) What term refers to a set of standards or guidelines within which a facility functions?
A)Laws
B)Ethics
C)Dogma
D)Protocol
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacy Law, Ethics, and Regulatory Agencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who can sign Form 222 to order schedule C-II narcotics?
A)Pharmacist who signed Form 224 or the person who has been the legally designated Power of Attorney by that pharmacist
B)Pharmacist on duty
C)Store manager
D)Pharmacy technician
Answer: A
Q2) Which one of the following product recalls is the most serious?
A)Class 1
B)Class 2
C)Class 3
D)Class 4
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following would be a correct DEA number for Dylan Brown, MD?
A)MB1234563
B)BB1234564
C)AB1234563
D)MD1234563
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Competencies, Associations, and Settings for Technicians
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Sample Questions
Q1) A CE course with the letter "T" and the number "05" next to the course means the course is:
A)Designed for technicians
B)Worth five CE credits
C)Concerns patient safety
D)Both A and C
Answer: D
Q2) Which one of the following tasks is not considered a nondiscretionary duty for a pharmacy technician?
A)Managing the inventory
B)Counseling patients
C)Billing
D)Stocking shelves
Answer: B
Q3) What do the initials ACPE mean?
A)Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education
B)American Council for Pharmacy Education
C)American Continuing Pharmacy Education
D)Approved Continuing Pharmacy Education
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Communication and Role of the Technician
With the Customerpatient
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Q1) The skill of dealing with others without causing bad feelings is called:
A)Compassion
B)Diplomacy
C)Etiquette
D)Communication
Q2) How can pharmacies deal with non-English-speaking customers?
A)Employ bilingual staff members
B)Use translating software programs
C)Use pictograms
D)All of the above
Q3) Communication channels include:
A)Written messages
B)Spoken words
C)Body language
D)All of the above
Q4) When answering a telephone call, the technician should:
A)Identify his or her name and title.
B)Carefully listen to the caller.
C)Decide whether to forward the call to a pharmacist.
D)All of the above should be performed.
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Chapter 5: Dosage Forms and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) HFA:
A)Is the abbreviation for hydrofluoroalkane.
B)Replaced chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in inhalers in 2009.
C)Is more expensive than CFC.
D)All of the above statements are true.
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration have 100% bioavailability?
A)Intramuscular (IM)
B)IV
C)SUBCUT
D)B and C
Q3) Creams, lotions, ointments, powders, gelatins, suppositories, and inhalant powders are considered:
A)Solids
B)Semisolids
C)Liquids
D)Topical
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Chapter 6: Conversions and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pharmacy buys $2300 worth of inventory in the month of September. If the invoice is paid before October 10th, a 7.5% discount is applied to the total. How many dollars would the pharmacy save after the discount is applied?
A)$17.25
B)$172.50
C)$2127.50
D)$2282.75
Q2) The pharmacy purchases 1000 tablets for $99.99. The pharmacist wants to mark up a prescription of 30 tablets by 60%. What is the cost for the patient?
A)$2.40
B)$4.80
C)$24.00
D)$48.00
Q3) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding a drop factor?
A)Drop factor is the size of drops coming through the tubing.
B)It is measured in drops per milliliter.
C)Drop factor is specific to the tubing used.
D)It is measured in drops per minute (gtt/min).
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Chapter 7: Drug Information References
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Sample Questions
Q1) NDC stands for:
A)Normal Drug Classification
B)Natural Drug Classification
C)National Drug Code
D)National Drug Classification
Q2) Why should technicians join a professional organization?
A)Many provide continuing education courses.
B)Professional organizations provide opportunities for technicians to network with other technicians.
C)These organizations provide technicians the opportunity to stay current on new information.
D)All of the above statements are true.
Q3) The United States Pharmacopoeia-National Formulary (USP-NF) provides access to the official standards of the:
A)Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR)
B)United States Pharmacists Pharmacopoeia
C)U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D)American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)
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Chapter 8: Community Pharmacy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) The second set of numbers in the National Drug Code (NDC) number identifies:
A)Drug manufacturer
B)Specific product information
C)Drug packaging
D)All of the above
Q2) What beyond-use date should be assigned to a newly filled prescription of furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg #30?
A)Same date as the expiration date on the stock bottle
B)One year from the date it was repackaged
C)Six months from the date it was filled or the manufacturer's expiration date, whichever is earlier
D)One year from the date it was filled or the manufacturer's expiration date, whichever is earlier
Q3) Which dispense as written (DAW) code indicates that the pharmacist may freely substitute a generic product?
A)DAW 0
B)DAW 1
C)DAW 2
D)DAW 3
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Institutional Pharmacy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stat orders should be filled within _____ minutes.
A)5
B)10
C)15
D)20
Q2) Supplies of medication on hand in certain units of a hospital are called ____________ stock.
A)Nursing
B)Unit
C)Floor
D)Patient
Q3) Which of the following is considered to be a closed system?
A)Horizontal flow hood
B)Vertical flow hood
C)Glove box
D)Biological safety cabinet (BSC)
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Chapter 10: Additional Pharmacy Practice Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiopharmaceuticals can be administered by:
A)Mouth
B)Injection
C)Installation in the bladder
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following universities offer nuclear pharmacy training for technicians?
A)University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences
B)Purdue University
C)Ohio State University
D)All of the above
Q3) What is medication reconciliation?
A)Ensuring all of the prescriptions are correctly filled
B)Ensuring all of the ordered prescriptions are filled
C)Comparing patients' medication orders with the medications they were taking before admission to the hospital
D)All of the above
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Chapter 11: Bulk Repackaging and Non-Sterile
Compounding
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Sample Questions
Q1) GMP means:
A)Good mixing process
B)Good manufacturing process
C)Good manufacturing procedure
D)Good manufacturing practice
Q2) USP <795> sets the standards for all of the following dosage forms except:
A)Creams
B)Elixirs
C)Popsicles
D)Intravenous (IV) medications
Q3) Which of the following ingredients is(are) considered hydrophobic?
A)Ointment
B)Cream
C)Oleaginous base
D)A and B
Q4) Compounding includes:
A)Mixing
B)Reconstituting
C)Packaging
D)All of the above
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Chapter 12: Aseptic Technique and Sterile Compounding
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Sample Questions
Q1) An area exposed to air or touch, such as a vial, needle, or ampule, is called a:
A)Critical site
B)Clean site
C)Sterile site
D)First-air site
Q2) How long do vertical or horizontal flow hoods need to run before performing any IV preparations?
A)10 minutes
B)20 minutes
C)30 minutes
D)1 hour
Q3) The anteroom is adjacent to the:
A)Green room
B)Clean or buffer room
C)Primary engineering control room
D)Nonsterile compounding room
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14
Chapter 13: Pharmacy Billing and Inventory Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medicare Part D specifically covers:
A)Prescription medications
B)Surgery
C)Physicians' visits
D)Physical therapy
Q2) When a workers' compensation claim prescription is presented to the pharmacy, the technician should:
A)Fill it, and obtain permission from the government agency at a later time.
B)Obtain information from the patient's human resource department before filling.
C)Fill it, and collect full payment from the patient.
D)Wait until receiving payment from the insurance company before filling.
Q3) A system that automatically tracks inventory is:
A)Ordering cards
B)Automatic dispensing systems (ADS)
C)Handheld inventory computers
D)Bar coding
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Chapter 14: Medication Safety and Error Prevention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bar codes provide which of the following forms of drug identification?
A)National Drug Code (NDC) number
B)Lot number
C)Expiration date
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following systems contribute to decreased errors?
A)Computerized physician order entry (CPOE)
B)ADS machines, coupled with bar coding
C)Medication error-reporting programs
D)All of the above
Q3) A patient with diabetes is ordered intravenous (IV) cefazolin in 5% dextrose in water (D W) every 8 hours (q8h). What possible problem may exist with this order?
A)A patient with diabetes cannot be given cefazolin because of a possible drug interaction.
B)Cefazolin can only be given subcutaneously.
C)The dose should always be given every 12 hours.
D)D5W may be the wrong solution because the patient has diabetes.
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Chapter 15: Therapeutic Agents for the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is(are) not an anxiety disorder?
A)Phobias
B)Posttraumatic stress disorder (PSTD)
C)Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
D)Schizophrenia
Q2) Which of the following is not a primary function of the nervous system?
A)Relaying impulses to and from the central nervous system (CNS)
B)Coordinating of the nervous system activities
C)Detecting sensory changes
D)Transporting nutrients
Q3) Injectable immune modifiers such as interferons share what common storage requirement?
A)Keep frozen until use.
B)Protect from light.
C)Refrigerate.
D)A and B are requirements.
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Chapter 16: Therapeutic Agents for the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of Graves disease except:
A)Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder.
B)Common symptoms of Graves disease are goiter and exophthalmos.
C)Although rare, Graves disease is more common in women than men.
D)Graves disease can be treated with thyroid hormone replacement therapy.
Q2) Which agent(s) can be used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
A)Propylthiouracil
B)Methimazole
C)Desiccated thyroid
D)A and B
Q3) Which medication(s) contain(s) the generic ingredient levothyroxine?
A)Synthroid
B)Levoxyl
C)Armour Thyroid
D)A and B
Q4) Which one of the following is primarily considered a mineralocorticoid?
A)Methylprednisolone
B)Hydrocortisone
C)Prednisone
D)Fludrocortisone acetate
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Chapter 17: Therapeutic Agents for the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Baclofen (Lioresal) belongs to what classification of medication?
A)Skeletal muscle relaxants
B)NSAIDs
C)Osteoporosis agents
D)Analgesics
Q2) The maximum recommended daily dose of acetaminophen for healthy adults is _________ milligrams.
A)1000
B)2000
C)3000
D)4000
Q3) What is the most severe side effect of opioid medications?
A)Gastrointestinal (GI) upset
B)Respiratory depression
C)Drowsiness
D)Constipation
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Chapter 18: Therapeutic Agents for the Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Requirements for dispensing NTG sublingual (NTG SL) tablets include:
A)Placing the label on the original container to dispense
B)Protecting the tablets from heat and light
C)Placing the original container inside a plastic prescription vial, without a safety cap, and labeling this vial
D)B and C
Q2) Which of the following is not a form of angina?
A)Variant
B)Respiratory
C)Classic
D)Unstable
Q3) The vessel(s) responsible for supplying oxygen to the heart muscle is(are) called:
A)Aorta
B)Coronary arteries
C)Pulmonary arteries
D)Vena cavae
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Chapter 19: Therapeutic Agents for the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albuterol is classified as a(an):
A)Inhaled corticosteroid
B)Inhaled anticholinergic
C)Short-acting beta-agonist
D)Long-acting beta-agonist
Q2) Which of the following agents can be used as an expectorant?
A)Guaifenesin
B)Pseudoephedrine
C)Water
D)A and C
Q3) The purpose of the epiglottis is to:
A)Moisten and warm air as it enters the lungs.
B)Catch and trap air.
C)Prevent anything but air from going down the airway.
D)Produce sound.
Q4) When should an antiviral medication for the treatment of influenza be started?
A)Within 48 hours of the first symptoms
B)One week after exposure to someone with influenza
C)After getting the vaccine
D)None of the above
21
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Chapter 20: Therapeutic Agents for the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One difference between Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis is:
A)Crohn disease involves inflammation.
B)Crohn disease can affect the entire GI system.
C)Symptoms of Crohn disease include cramping and diarrhea.
D)Crohn disease may require dietary changes.
Q2) OTC antiemetics that do not affect the chemoreceptor trigger zone are commonly used for:
A)Chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting
B)Postoperative nausea and vomiting
C)Motion sickness
D)All of the above
Q3) What is the primary danger of untreated diarrhea?
A)Feeling uncomfortable
B)Developing an infection
C)Dehydration from fluid and electrolyte loss
D)Giving it to someone else
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Chapter 21: Therapeutic Agents for the Renal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following treatments for an overactive bladder (OAB) is available in an OTC patch?
A)oxybutynin
B)tolterodine
C)trospium chloride
D)darifenacin
Q2) The most common cause of UTIs is:
A)Chlamydia
B)Escherichia coli
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is indicated for the prevention of:
A)Kidney stones
B)Gout
C)UTIs
D)A and B
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Chapter 22: Therapeutic Agents for the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements is not true regarding the application of the contraceptive patch Ortho Evra?
A)The Ortho Evra patch can be applied to the upper arm, back, abdomen, or buttocks.
B)One patch is used for a period of 3 weeks.
C)The fourth week should be patch free.
D)A new patch should be applied at the beginning of each of the first 3 weeks.
Q2) Cigarette smokers who take oral contraceptives have an increased risk of:
A)Breakthrough bleeding
B)STDs
C)Getting pregnant
D)Serious cardiovascular events
Q3) The principle medications used as treatments for the female reproductive system are:
A)Hormones
B)Diuretics
C)Antibiotics
D)A and C
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Therapeutic Agents for the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true regarding adaptive immunity?
A)Adaptive immunity involves cells that rapidly respond to infection.
B)Lymphocytes are the key cells involved with adaptive immunity.
C)Adaptive immunity involves the production of antibodies specific to an individual antigen.
D)T cells and B cells are involved with adaptive immunity.
Q2) Which of the following is(are) autoimmune disorders?
A)Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B)Psoriasis
C)Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following would not be considered an antigen?
A)Virus
B)Foreign substance that causes a disease
C)Foreign substance that causes no reaction
D)Foreign substance that causes an allergy
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25
Chapter 24: Therapeutic Agents for the Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the abbreviation for ointment?
A)O
B)Ung
C)Ungu
D)Oin
Q2) The tympanic membrane is also known as the:
A)Cornea
B)Cochlear membrane
C)Retina
D)Eardrum
Q3) Which of the following products is a prescription indicated for the treatment of severe dry eyes?
A)Artificial tears
B)cyclosporine (Restasis)
C)bimatoprost (Lumigan)
D)timolol (Timoptic)
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Chapter 25: Therapeutic Agents for the Dermatologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a customer complains of head lice, then he or she can be advised to:
A)Visit a physician to be given a prescription.
B)Wash his or her hair in really hot water with a regular shampoo.
C)Talk to a pharmacist about one of the OTC treatments.
D)Use diphenhydramine for the itching.
Q2) All of the following are antibacterial treatments except:
A)Bacitracin
B)Neomycin
C)Polymyxin B sulfate
D)Ketoconazole
Q3) OTC treatments for Tinea pedis are available in:
A)Creams
B)Powders
C)Sprays
D)All of the above
Q4) The epidermis:
A)Contains nerves, glands, and blood vessels.
B)Consists of two layers.
C)Contains melanin.
D)Contains fat cells.
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Chapter 26: Therapeutic Agents for the Hematologic System
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Q1) In which form of anemia do RBCs take on an abnormal shape?
A)Folate-deficiency anemia
B)Iron-deficiency anemia
C)Pernicious anemia
D)Sickle cell anemia
Q2) Stage _____ of cancer is the most advanced form.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q3) What element is necessary for the production of hemoglobin?
A)Sodium
B)Potassium
C)Iron
D)Zinc
Q4) Which one of the following generics is not an antibiotic used in chemotherapy?
A)Bleomycin
B)Cyclophosphamide
C)Mitomycin
D)Daunorubicin
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Chapter 27: Over-The Counter OTC Medications
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Q1) What is the term for a food or a naturally occurring supplement thought to have a beneficial effect on human health?
A)Organic
B)Naturemed
C)Nutraceutical
D)Natural
Q2) Which of the following medications is not available in an OTC formulation?
A)Allegra
B)Prilosec
C)Lasix
D)MiraLAX
Q3) What concern do pharmacists have about OTC drug use?
A)The OTC treatment may mask a more serious health issue.
B)The use of OTC medications will put pharmacists out of business.
C)Multiple OTC medications contain the same generic ingredients.
D)Both A and C are concerns.
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Chapter 28: Complementary and Alternative Medicine
Cam
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Q1) The method of manipulative and body-based CAM practice that focuses on helping patients alter involuntary body functions such as heartbeat is:
A)Ayurveda
B)Biofeedback
C)Homeopathy
D)Traditional Chinese medicine
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a form of CAM?
A)Yoga
B)Meditation
C)Weight lifting
D)Acupuncture and acupressure
Q3) All of the following are natural products except:
A)Herbs
B)Vitamins and minerals
C)Acetaminophen
D)Probiotics
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