Hospital Pharmacy Practice Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Hospital Pharmacy Practice explores the roles, responsibilities, and operations of pharmacists within a hospital setting. The course covers medication order review and processing, drug distribution systems, clinical pharmaceutical care, medication safety, and regulatory requirements. Students learn about pharmacy informatics, sterile product preparation, interprofessional collaboration, and the management of pharmacy services to ensure effective patient care. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, therapeutic drug monitoring, and strategies for addressing challenges specific to inpatient and institutional environments.
Recommended Textbook
Mosbys Pharmacy Technician Principles and Practice 4th Edition by Elsevier
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28 Chapters
895 Verified Questions
895 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History of Medicine and Pharmacy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was the first synthetic antibiotic discovered?
A)Penicillin
B)Sulfonamide
C)Tetracycline
D)Cephalosporin
Answer: B
Q2) Today, licensure for pharmacists includes:
A)Passing the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) examination and an examination covering the individual pharmacist's state pharmacy law
B)Earning a PharmD degree
C)Taking the PTCB examination
D)A and B
Answer: D
Q3) Which medication(s) come(s) from plants?
A)Opium
B)Penicillin
C)Quinine
D)A and C
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacy Law, Ethics, and Regulatory Agencies
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the abbreviation REMS mean?
A)Risk evaluation and management study
B)Risk evaluation and mitigation strategy
C)Risk examination and management study
D)Restricted evaluation and management strategy
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a U.S. government-managed entity that oversees safety in the workplace?
A)Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)
B)Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
C)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
D)Material safety data sheet (MSDS)
Answer: B
Q3) How many times can schedules C-III, C-IV, and C-V prescriptions be transferred?
A)None
B)One
C)Until the refills have expired
D)None of the above
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Competencies, Associations, and Settings for Technicians
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Sample Questions
Q1) A CE course with the letter "T" and the number "05" next to the course means the course is:
A)Designed for technicians
B)Worth five CE credits
C)Concerns patient safety
D)Both A and C
Answer: D
Q2) What is the term used for a hospital pharmacy?
A)Closed-door pharmacy
B)Inpatient pharmacy
C)Institutional pharmacy
D)Outpatient pharmacy
Answer: B
Q3) All of the following are considered nontraditional jobs for pharmacy technicians except:
A)Poison control call center operator
B)Nuclear pharmacy technician
C)Inpatient pharmacy technician
D)Director or instructor of a pharmacy technician training program
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Communication and Role of the Technician
With the Customerpatient
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can pharmacies deal with non-English-speaking customers?
A)Employ bilingual staff members
B)Use translating software programs
C)Use pictograms
D)All of the above
Q2) Which words in the following sentence should be emphasized for proper communication with a patient? "If you will wait a moment, I'll get the information you need."
A)If
B)Moment
C)Wait
D)None should be emphasized
Q3) What is an unwritten guideline or rule of behavior?
A)Moral
B)Ethic
C)Etiquette
D)Attitude
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Dosage Forms and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dosage that can be safely split in half is a(n):
A)Delayed-release tablet
B)Capsule
C)Enteric-coated tablet
D)Scored tablet
Q2) SSRI means:
A)Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
B)Sliding scale regular insulin
C)Selective serotonin regulation injection
D)A and B
Q3) Which of the following are ways a drug may be eliminated from the body?
A)Urine and feces
B)Sweat
C)Breast milk
D)All of the above
Q4) Dosage forms appropriate for children include:
A)Liquids
B)Spansules
C)Chewable tablets
D)All of the above
7
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Chapter 6: Conversions and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An order calls for 500 mL of heparin is to be administered over 18 hours. The tubing size delivers 15 drops per milliliter (gtt/mL). What is the drip rate?
A)3 gtt/min
B)7 gtt/min
C)50 gtt/min
D)125 gtt/hr
Q2) When measuring volume using the metric system, a pharmacy technician will use: A)mL
B)L
C)Fluid ounces
D)A and B
Q3) The pharmacy purchases 1000 tablets for $99.99. The pharmacist wants to mark up a prescription of 30 tablets by 60%. What is the cost for the patient?
A)$2.40
B)$4.80
C)$24.00
D)$48.00
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Chapter 7: Drug Information References
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Handbook of Nonprescription Drugs is published by:
A)American Pharmacists Association (APhA)
B)ASHP
C)FDA
D)National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)
Q2) A formulary is a list of:
A)Approved drugs to be stocked
B)Drugs covered by an insurance company
C)Drugs that can be compounded in a pharmacy
D)A and B
Q3) Which of the following reference books would a technician most likely use in a retail setting?
A)Handbook on Injectable Drugs
B)AHFS Drug Information
C)Red Book Drug Topics
D)Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences
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Chapter 8: Community Pharmacy Practice
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If nothing is indicated on the prescription for refills, then the technician should:
A)Check with the prescriber to see how many refills he or she wants.
B)Tell the pharmacist.
C)Enter the abbreviation, prn, (Latin, pro re nata) meaning as needed for refills.
D)Enter zero refills.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true regarding a pharmacy technician's role in providing immunizations through the community pharmacy?
A)A technician can become trained in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
B)A technician can draw up the correct amount of vaccine in a syringe.
C)A technician can perform the required documentation.
D)A technician can administer the vaccine.
Q3) In a community pharmacy, the prescription department is required to have a:
A)Sink with hot and cold running water
B)Microwave
C)Security system
D)A and C
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Chapter 9: Institutional Pharmacy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following criteria is(are) used to distinguish between types of hospitals?
A)Size
B)Profit or nonprofit
C)Types of services provided
D)All of the above
Q2) All of the following statements are true regarding investigational drug use except:
A)A logbook must be maintained for each investigational drug.
B)All steps must be performed by a pharmacist.
C)All medication must be returned to the sponsor upon completion of the study.
D)Investigational drugs must be separately stored from other drugs.
Q3) The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) regulates and administers:
A)Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP)
B)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
C)Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
D)A and B
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Chapter 10: Additional Pharmacy Practice Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pharmacy benefit management (PBM) companies hire pharmacy technicians to:
A)Process claims for members according to their benefits.
B)Provide benefit information to patients.
C)Prepare mail-order prescriptions.
D)Perform all of the above tasks.
Q2) The job of a pharmacy purchasing agent may include:
A)Meeting with sales representatives
B)Negotiating prices and contracts
C)Placing orders
D)All of the above
Q3) In what type of pharmacy setting are the pharmacist and technician not in direct contact with one another?
A)Nuclear pharmacy
B)Inpatient pharmacy
C)Telepharmacy
D)Retail pharmacy
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Chapter 11: Bulk Repackaging and Non-Sterile
Compounding
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weights for a class A balance should be handled with:
A)Gloved hands
B)Tweezers
C)Spatula
D)Glassine paper
Q2) Which of the following ingredients is(are) considered hydrophobic?
A)Ointment
B)Cream
C)Oleaginous base
D)A and B
Q3) What is the smallest volume that can be accurately measured with a 50-mL graduated cylinder?
A)5 mL
B)10 mL
C)20 mL
D)25 mL
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13
Chapter 12: Aseptic Technique and Sterile Compounding
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) CSP stands for:
A)Combination sterile products
B)Compounded sterile products
C)Combination sterile preparations
D)Compounded sterile preparations
Q2) Which one of the following products are considered hazardous?
A)Antibiotics
B)Anticoagulants
C)Radioactive compounds
D)Diuretics
Q3) What special consideration(s) must be addressed when preparing a nitroglycerin (NTG) IV?
A)An NTG IV must be prepared immediately before using.
B)It can only be prepared by a pharmacist.
C)An NTG IV must be placed in a glass container.
D)All of the above are considerations.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacy Billing and Inventory Management
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33 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of Medicare helps pay for physicians' services and outpatient care?
A)Medicare Part A
B)Medicare Part B
C)Medicare Part C
D)Medicare Part D
Q2) The typical drugs included in a formulary are drugs that are:
A)New
B)Generic
C)Orphan
D)Extremely expensive
Q3) What is meant by stock rotation?
A)Moving medication shelf displays around the pharmacy to ensure maximum exposure
B)Selling out an item before replacing it
C)Bringing the items with the earliest expiration dates to the front so they are used first
D)Moving items to different places on the shelves
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15
Chapter 14: Medication Safety and Error Prevention
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following distractions cannot be avoided in the workplace?
A)Excessive talking and laughing
B)Text messaging
C)Telephones ringing
D)Loud music
Q2) Which of the following patient errors are likely to be made at home?
A)Taking the wrong amount of medication
B)Taking a medication at the wrong time
C)Taking an over-the-counter (OTC) medication that interacts with his or her prescribed medication(s)
D)All of the above
Q3) Individuals older than 80 years of age will be in the fastest growing segment of the population for the next 40 years, which is due to:
A)Increased activity
B)Better diet
C)Improved health care
D)All of the above
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16
Chapter 15: Therapeutic Agents for the Nervous System
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33 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary side effects of anticholinergic drugs, such as benztropine for PD, include:
A)Constipation and urinary retention
B)Dry mouth
C)Blurred vision
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning insomnia is false?
A)Insomnia increases in prevalence with age.
B)It is more common in men than women.
C)Insomnia can be a difficulty in falling or staying asleep or an issue of awakening too early.
D)It can be related to medication use.
Q3) The main OTC drug used for insomnia is:
A)Diphenhydramine
B)Acetaminophen
C)Temazepam
D)Escitalopram
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Chapter 16: Therapeutic Agents for the Endocrine System
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33 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following insulin products is(are) long acting?
A)Humalog
B)NovoLog
C)Lantus
D)A and B
Q2) Aldosterone:
A)Is a glucocorticoid.
B)Maintains sodium and magnesium levels.
C)Stimulates the kidneys to conserve sodium and excrete potassium.
D)Is all of the above.
Q3) Pioglitazone is used to treat:
A)Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T DM)
B)Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T DM)
C)T DM and T DM
D)None of the above
Q4) Which agent(s) can be used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
A)Propylthiouracil
B)Methimazole
C)Desiccated thyroid
D)A and B
18
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Chapter 17: Therapeutic Agents for the Musculoskeletal System
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skeletal muscle relaxants require which one of the following auxiliary labels?
A)Take with a full glass of water.
B)Take on an empty stomach.
C)Avoid grapefruit juice.
D)May cause dizziness or drowsiness.Avoid alcohol.
Q2) Both depolarizing and nondepolarizing neuromuscular-blocking agents affect the neurotransmitter ______________.
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Dopamine
D)Acetylcholine
Q3) Osteoarthritis is considered to be a(an):
A)Autoimmune disease
B)Degenerative joint disease
C)Musculoskeletal disease
D)A and B
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Chapter 18: Therapeutic Agents for the Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia except:
A)Lipitor
B)Lopressor
C)Niaspan ER
D)Questran
Q2) The most prescribed antianginal agent is:
A)Nitroglycerin (NTG)
B)Digoxin
C)Furosemide
D)Diltiazem
Q3) A myocardial infarction (MI) is also known as:
A)High blood pressure
B)Elevated heart rate
C)Gas caught in the heart chambers
D)Heart attack
Q4) Treatment for hypotension could include:
A)Increased water intake
B)Fludrocortisone to increase blood volume
C)Midodrine to increase vasoconstriction
D)All of the above
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Chapter 19: Therapeutic Agents for the Respiratory System
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asthma:
A)Is a form of obstructive lung disease.
B)Symptoms include dyspnea, coughing, and wheezing.
C)Involves a narrowing of the airways.
D)All of the above apply.
Q2) Rebound congestion is when a person:
A)Becomes more congested over night
B)Becomes more congested with each illness
C)Experiences a worsening of congestion as a result of an overuse of nasal decongestants
D)None of the above
Q3) Atrovent is classified as a(n):
A)Inhaled corticosteroid
B)Inhaled anticholinergic
C)Short-acting beta-agonist
D)Long-acting beta-agonist
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Chapter 20: Therapeutic Agents for the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acidity of the stomach is an important consideration in medication administration because:
A)Acid deactivates some medications.
B)Acid-reducing medications may affect the absorption of other medications.
C)Some medications require an acidic environment for proper absorption.
D)All of the above are important considerations.
Q2) Because metoclopramide (Reglan) for nausea and vomiting antagonizes dopamine receptors, it:
A)Cannot be used in patients with Parkinson disease
B)Carries a risk of tardive dyskinesias
C)Has few side effects
D)A and B
Q3) One difference between Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis is:
A)Crohn disease involves inflammation.
B)Crohn disease can affect the entire GI system.
C)Symptoms of Crohn disease include cramping and diarrhea.
D)Crohn disease may require dietary changes.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Therapeutic Agents for the Renal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A side effect common to all diuretic medications is:
A)Hypertension
B)Urinary frequency
C)Hypokalemia
D)Hyperkalemia
Q2) Thiazide diuretics are used in the treatment of:
A)Edema associated with congestive heart failure (CHF)
B)Hypertension
C)Prevention of calcium kidney stones
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not a cause of kidney stones?
A)Genetic predisposition
B)Gout
C)Excessive dietary intake of calcium
D)Hyperparathyroidism
Q4) A commonly prescribed thiazide diuretic is:
A)Lasix
B)Aldactone
C)Dyrenium
D)Microzide
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Chapter 22: Therapeutic Agents for the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true regarding sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
A)Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa can cause STDs.
B)STDs can only be transmitted by sexual intercourse.
C)Some STDs can be spread from a mother to a child through childbirth.
D)Scabies, pubic lice, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and chlamydia are examples of STDs.
Q2) Which of the following alpha-blocker(s) target(s) prostate tissue and is(are) not used for hypertension?
A)Flomax
B)Hytrin
C)Cardura
D)A and B
Q3) The principle medications used as treatments for the female reproductive system are:
A)Hormones
B)Diuretics
C)Antibiotics
D)A and C
24
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Chapter 23: Therapeutic Agents for the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Attenuated, in reference to vaccines, means:
A)Dead
B)Weakened
C)Potent
D)Viral
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of live vaccines?
A)Live vaccines lead to the development of active acquired immunity.
B)Periodic booster shots are required.
C)Live vaccines carry no risk of infection.
D)Live vaccines are always effective.
Q3) Hematopoiesis is:
A)Blood cell production
B)Blood cell destruction
C)Ratio of white-to-red blood cells
D)Disease of the blood cells
Q4) Which of the following statements does not describe the spleen?
A)The spleen contains macrophages.
B)It is made up of red pulp and white pulp.
C)The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ.
D)It filters blood cells at the beginning of their life cycle.
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Chapter 24: Therapeutic Agents for the Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteriostatic agents:
A)Kill the bacteria.
B)Limit bacterial growth.
C)Assist the body's immune system in fighting off the bacteria.
D)Both B and C answers apply.
Q2) What is the abbreviation for ointment?
A)O
B)Ung
C)Ungu
D)Oin
Q3) What is GERD?
A)Gastric exertion reflux disease
B)Gastric esophagus reflux disorder
C)Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D)Gastroesophageal regurgitation disease
Q4) Where in the pharmacy would latanoprost (Xalatan) be found?
A)On the shelf with the ophthalmic products
B)On the shelf with the optic products
C)In the refrigerator
D)In the narcotics drawer
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Chapter 25: Therapeutic Agents for the Dermatologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents require participation in the iPLEDGE program?
A)Retin-A
B)Sotret
C)Renova
D)A and B
Q2) A drug that causes shedding of the outer layer of the skin is called a(an):
A)Emollient
B)Antiseptic
C)Keratolytic
D)Xerotic
Q3) Adalimumab, golimumab, and ustekinumab for psoriasis are all administered:
A)Orally
B)Topically
C)Subcutaneously
D)Intramuscularly
Q4) A lack of hair growth is called:
A)Alopecia
B)Hirsutism
C)Keratinitis
D)Sebaceousness
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Chapter 26: Therapeutic Agents for the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for an increase in the total cell mass of the blood?
A)Erythropoiesis
B)Hemophilia
C)Polycythemia
D)Leukopenia
Q2) Which of the following statements is(are) true of filgrastim (Neupogen)?
A)Filgrastim is administered orally.
B)It should not be shaken before administering.
C)Filgrastim is used to treat neutropenia.
D)B and C are true statements.
Q3) Which one of the following statements is true concerning leukemia?
A)Leukemia is a genetic disorder.
B)It is caused by environmental factors.
C)Both genetic and environmental factors can contribute to the development of leukemia.
D)Leukemia is contagious.
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28
Chapter 27: Over-The Counter OTC Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only time a patient receiving Medicaid benefits is counseled about an over-the-counter (OTC) purchase is when:
A)He or she checks out at a register.
B)A physician writes a prescription for an OTC drug.
C)The patient requests counseling before purchasing.
D)Both B and C occurs.
Q2) What concern do pharmacists have about OTC drug use?
A)The OTC treatment may mask a more serious health issue.
B)The use of OTC medications will put pharmacists out of business.
C)Multiple OTC medications contain the same generic ingredients.
D)Both A and C are concerns.
Q3) Which of the following OTC products can be used for constipation or diarrhea?
A)Docusate sodium
B)Psyllium
C)Bisacodyl
D)Senna
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Chapter 28: Complementary and Alternative Medicine
Cam
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Sample Questions
Q1) Black cohosh may increase the effects of:
A)Esterified estrogens
B)Diuretics
C)Antiinflammatories
D)Analgesics
Q2) Which of the following statements is(are) not true of herbs and herbal supplements?
A)Herbs and herbal supplements are considered dietary supplements.
B)They are subjected to different U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulations than drugs.
C)They are natural and therefore not harmful.
D)All of the above statements are true.
Q3) The primary use for saw palmetto is to treat:
A)Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
B)High blood pressure
C)Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
D)Depression
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