Hospital Dentistry Test
Bank
Course Introduction
Hospital Dentistry is a specialized field of dental practice focused on providing comprehensive oral health care to patients in a hospital setting. This course covers the dental management of medically complex patients, including those with chronic illnesses, disabilities, or special needs that require multidisciplinary collaboration. Students will learn about preoperative assessment, inpatient and outpatient dental procedures, management of dental emergencies, and the integration of dental care with overall medical treatment plans. Emphasis is placed on infection control, pain management, and the unique considerations involved in delivering dental services within operating rooms, intensive care units, and emergency departments.
Recommended Textbook
Little and Falaces Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient 8th Edition by James
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30 Chapters
347 Verified Questions
347 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1615 Page 2
Chapter 1: Patient Evaluation and Risk Assessment
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32075
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of a patient classified ASA III according to the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA)Physical Status Classification System?
A) Patient has mild systemic disease.
B) Patient's disease has significant impact on daily activity.
C) Patient's disease is unlikely to have impact on anesthesia and surgery.
D) Patient is moribund.
Answer: B
Q2) One consequence of chronic hepatitis (B or C)or cirrhosis of the liver is decreased ability of the body to _________ certain drugs,including local anesthetics and analgesics.
A) absorb
B) distribute
C) metabolize
D) excrete
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Infective Endocarditis
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true concerning infective endocarditis (IE)?
A) IE is always due to a bacterial infection.
B) Since the advent of antibiotics, morbidity and mortality associated with IE has been virtually eliminated.
C) IE is currently classified as acute or subacute, to reflect the rapidity of onset and duration.
D) Accumulating evidence questions the validity of antibiotic prophylaxis in an attempt to prevent IE prior to certain invasive dental procedures.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is currently the most common underlying condition predisposing to infective endocarditis (IE)?
A) aortic valve disease
B) rheumatic heart disease (RHD)
C) mitral valve prolapse (MVP)
D) tetralogy of Fallot
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Hypertension
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In prehypertension,diastolic pressure ranges from ________ mm Hg.
A) 80 to 89
B) 90 to 99
C) 100 to 109
D) 110 to 119
Answer: A
Q2) Deferral of elective dental care and referral to a physician for evaluation and treatment within 1 week are indicated for patients found to have asymptomatic blood pressure of greater than or equal to ________ mm Hg.
A) 160/90
B) 160/110
C) 180/90
D) 180/110
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cardiac condition in America?
A) congestive heart failure
B) cardiac arrhythmia
C) hypertension
D) angina
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Ischemic Heart Disease
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of unstable angina?
A) Pain is precipitated by physical effort and is relieved by cessation of the precipitating activity.
B) Pain is relieved by nitroglycerin.
C) Pain is not relieved by nitroglycerin.
D) a and b
E) a and c
Q2) Which of the following is the most important symptom of coronary atherosclerotic heart disease?
A) pitting edema
B) dysphagia
C) dyspnea
D) chest pain
Q3) Which of the following is true when planning dental treatment for a patient with stable angina or a past history of MI without ischemic symptoms?
A) Administration of nitrous oxide should be avoided.
B) NSAIDs should be avoided in patients with established cardiovascular disease.
C) Nitroglycerin should be administered prophylactically.
D) A pulse oximeter should be used.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Cardiac Arrhythmias
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a disorder of repolarization?
A) Mobitz type I (Wenckebach)
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
C) long QT syndrome
D) torsades de pointes
Q2) Which of the following dental devices has produced electromagnetic interference (EMI)with pacemakers and ICDs in studies performed in vitro?
A) battery-operated curing lights
B) electrical pulp testers and apex locators
C) handpieces
D) electric toothbrushes
Q3) Which of the following is classified as a significant arrhythmia according to the ACC/AHA guidelines?
A) pathologic Q waves
B) left bundle branch block
C) high-grade AV block
D) ST-T wave abnormalities
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Chapter 6: Heart Failure or Congestive Heart Failure
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common underlying cause of heart failure in the United States?
A) dilated cardiomyopathy
B) coronary heart disease
C) valvular heart disease
D) hypertension
Q2) Which of the following is the most common reason for decompensation of previously well-compensated heart failure during dental treatment?
A) tachycardia due to anxiety
B) failure to take medications as prescribed
C) orthopnea due to chair position
D) lack of sufficient oxygen saturation due to use of the rubber dam
Q3) Which of the following categories of drugs is considered to be first-line therapy for the treatment of heart failure?
A) digitalis glycosides
B) -adrenergic blockers
C) angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
D) angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
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8
Chapter 7: Pulmonary Disease
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the drug of choice for relief of an acute asthma attack?
A) oral anticholinergic
B) inhalation corticosteroid
C) short-acting 2-adrenergic agonist
D) inhaled cromolyn sodium
Q2) Which of the following is true of the arterial blood gas measurement for a patient with emphysema?
1.elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide
2.normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide
3.decreased partial pressure of carbon dioxide
4.decreased partial pressure of oxygen 5.normal partial pressure of oxygen
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 5
E) 2, 5
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Chapter 8: Smoking and Tobacco Use Cessation
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long does it take nicotine to reach the brain following inhalation of cigarette smoke?
A) 10 seconds
B) 60 seconds
C) 5 minutes
D) 15 minutes
Q2) How long does it take nicotine blood levels to return to baseline after smoking a cigarette?
A) 1 minute
B) 25 to 30 minutes
C) 3 to 5 hours
D) 1 day
Q3) Which of the following causes the most deaths in the United States?
A) motor vehicle crashes
B) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
C) smoking
D) alcohol abuse and illicit drug use
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Chapter 9: Sleep-Related Breathing Disorders
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of tongue-retaining devices (TRDs)used to treat patients with sleep-related breathing disorders?
A) They typically are made of acrylic resin and are composed of two pieces that cover the upper and lower dental arches.
B) Over 70 different types of TRDs have been approved by the FDA for treatment of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).
C) TRDs are capable of providing continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
D) TRDs generally are made of silicone in the shape of a bulb or cavity.
Q2) Which of the following components of a polysomnogram (PSG)is used to monitor eye movements?
A) ECG
B) EEG
C) EMG
D) EOG
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of REM sleep?
A) synchronous brain waves
B) low-voltage EEG waves
C) mental inactivity
D) physiologic stability
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Liver Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common means of transmission of hepatitis C?
A) maternal-infant
B) sexual exposure
C) injection drug use
D) needlestick accidents
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the diagnosis of acute viral hepatitis?
A) Acute viral hepatitis is marked by a prominent fibrosis observed during histologic evaluation.
B) Immunohistochemical stains for hepatitis antigens are positive during the acute disease.
C) There are reliably distinctive features in the liver that separate the five viral forms of acute hepatitis from one another.
D) Serologic tests are adequate for the diagnosis of acute viral hepatitis, so liver biopsy is not recommended unless the diagnosis remains unclear and a therapeutic decision is needed.
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Chapter 11: Gastrointestinal Disease
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms is the causative agent in 90% to 99% of cases of pseudomembranous colitis?
A) H. pylori
B) C. difficile
C) S. aureus
D) C. albicans
Q2) Which of the following is true of Crohn's disease?
A) Crohn's disease is limited to the large intestine and the rectum.
B) Crohn's disease affects men and women equally.
C) Crohn's disease occurs more often in smokers.
D) Most patients who have Crohn's disease require at least one operation for their condition.
Q3) Which is the most common location for peptic ulcers in Western populations?
A) stomach
B) duodenum
C) jejunum
D) ileum
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Chronic Kidney Disease and Dialysis
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following viruses has been reported to be transmitted nosocomially in dialysis centers in the United States?
1.hepatitis B
2.hepatitis C
3.human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1 only
Q2) Which of the following is an oral manifestation of kidney disease?
A) increased salivary flow due to decreased renal filtration
B) blue discoloration of the cheeks due to reduced hemoglobin-carrying capacity of red blood cells
C) characteristic acetone-like odor of breath
D) pallor of oral mucosa related to anemia
Q3) How do most dialysis patients in the United States receive hemodialysis?
A) continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis (CCPD)
B) chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
C) through an arteriovenous graft, usually placed in the forearm
D) through a central catheter
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Chapter 13: Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the estimated prevalence of genital herpes in the United States?
A) 5%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) 35%
Q2) Which of the following is a treponemal test for syphilis?
A) Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) slide test
B) T. pallidum particle agglutination test (TP-PA)
C) rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test
D) automated reagin test (ART)
Q3) Which of the following is true of the HPV vaccine Gardasil?
A) It is approved for use in women but not men.
B) It is used to treat genital warts but will not prevent infection with human papilloma virus types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
C) It is most beneficial if administered before the onset of sexual activity.
D) It has been shown to eliminate and cure HPV infection.
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Chapter 14: Diabetes Mellitus
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the leading cause of death in patients with type 1 diabetes?
A) stroke
B) renal failure
C) heart attack
D) hypertension
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the dental use of local anesthetic and epinephrine for the patient with diabetes?
A) For most patients with diabetes, routine use of local anesthetic with 1:100,000 epinephrine is contraindicated.
B) Epinephrine has a pharmacologic effect that is opposite of insulin.
C) In diabetic patients with hypertension, caution may be indicated with use of epinephrine.
D) a and b
E) b and c
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Adrenal Insufficiency
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the physiologic actions of cortisol?
A) insulin agonist
B) increases blood pressure
C) anti-inflammatory action
D) a and b
E) b and c
Q2) According to current recommendations,which of the following groups of patients should receive additional (supplemental)corticosteroids to prevent adrenal crisis during and after surgery?
A) Patients with either primary adrenal insufficiency or secondary adrenal insufficiency should receive additional corticosteroids.
B) Patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, but not patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency, should receive additional corticosteroids.
C) Patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency, but not patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, should receive additional corticosteroids.
D) Neither patients with primary adrenal insufficiency nor patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency should receive additional corticosteroids.
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Chapter 16: Thyroid Diseases
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32090
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following oral changes is most likely encountered in adults with acquired hypothyroidism?
A) pemphigoid
B) an enlarged tongue
C) sicca syndrome
D) leukoedema
Q2) Which of the following populations is most commonly affected by Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
A) young and middle-aged women
B) elderly men
C) children of both genders
D) adolescents
Q3) Ophthalmopathy is strongly linked to which of the following thyroid diseases?
A) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
B) multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2)
C) Graves' disease
D) myxedema
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Chapter 17: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the analgesic of choice during pregnancy?
A) aspirin
B) acetaminophen
C) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
D) codeine
Q2) Which of the following normally decreases during pregnancy?
A) blood volume
B) blood clotting factors
C) white blood cell count
D) hematocrit
Q3) Which of the following is the most common oral complication of pregnancy?
A) xerostomia
B) pyogenic granuloma
C) pregnancy gingivitis
D) dental caries
Q4) Supine hypotensive syndrome during late pregnancy is due to __________.
A) an increase in blood volume
B) compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus
C) a fall in maternal hematocrit
D) a benign systolic ejection murmur
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Chapter 18: Aids, HIV Infection, and Related Conditions
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common oral manifestation of HIV infection worldwide?
A) hairy leukoplakia
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) necrotizing stomatitis
D) candidiasis
Q2) Which of the following types of gingival erythema is associated with the HIV positive patient?
A) papillary gingivitis
B) diffuse gingivitis
C) linear gingival erythema
D) desquamative gingivitis
Q3) Which of the following should be a major consideration when planning dental treatment for the patient with HIV infection/AIDS?
A) current CD4+ lymphocyte count
B) immunosuppression level
C) level of viral load
D) all of the above
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Chapter 19: Allergy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following immunoglobulins is involved in the pathogenesis of type I hypersensitivity reactions?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q2) Most patients with asthma who react to NSAIDs also have ______.
1.nasal polyps
2.type II diabetes
3.orthostatic hypotension
4.gout
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1
D) 2
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Rheumatologic and Connective Tissue Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "gold standard" agent for treatment of patients with early rheumatoid arthritis is
A) penicillamine
B) methotrexate
C) infliximab
D) sulfasalazine
Q2) Which of the following is the most significant oral complication of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) salivary gland dysfunction (xerostomia)
B) burning tongue syndrome (glossodynia)
C) TMJ involvement
D) vesiculobullous lesions
Q3) For patients with osteoarthritis (OA)with a temporomandibular joint reducing anterior disk displacement,about a __% chance exists that no progression of the disorder will occur.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Organ and Bone Marrow Transplantation
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overimmunosuppression increases the risk for ____________,and underimmunosuppression increases the risk for ________________ during the stable posttransplantation period.
A) acute rejection; acute rejection
B) acute rejection; infection
C) infection; acute rejection
D) infection; infection
Q2) What test is performed following heart transplantation in order to check for signs of acute or chronic rejection?
A) computed tomography (CT) scan
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) right ventricular biopsy
D) stress-test electrocardiogram (ECG)
Q3) Patients with ___________ have the greatest chance of success from bone marrow transplantation (BMT).
A) aplastic anemia
B) chronic myelogenous leukemia
C) lymphoma
D) Hurler syndrome
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Disorders of Red Blood Cells
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of ________.
A) iron
B) intrinsic factor
C) the enzyme G-6-PD
D) erythropoietin
Q2) Which of the following types of food contain folate?
A) red meat
B) grains
C) leafy vegetables
D) a and b
E) b and c
Q3) Which of the following types of anemia is associated with a "hair on end" appearance in the cortical regions of a skull film?
A) aplastic anemia
B) sickle cell anemia
C) thalassemia
D) hemolytic anemia
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Chapter 23: Disorders of White Blood Cells
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common type of leukemia in adults?
A) acute lymphocytic leukemia
B) acute myelogenous leukemia
C) Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D) chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Q2) Which of the following is a malignancy of plasma cells?
A) Hodgkin lymphoma
B) non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C) multiple myeloma
D) Burkitt lymphoma
Q3) Which of the following is true of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)?
A) AML is a neoplasm of mature myeloid WBCs.
B) AML has a sudden onset.
C) The Philadelphia chromosome is present in more than 90% of cases of AML.
D) a and b
E) b and c
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Chapter 24: Acquired Bleeding and Hypercoagulable Disorders
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A platelet count is very effective for identifying patients who have ________.
A) von Willebrand disease
B) Glanzmann disease
C) thrombocytopenia
D) uremia
Q2) Which of the following is/are true of platelets?
A) Platelets have a nucleus.
B) There is a reserve of platelets in the microvasculature or spleen.
C) Platelets are derived from polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs).
D) a, b, and c
E) a and c
Q3) Which of the following screening tests is used to check the extrinsic pathway (factor VII)and the common pathway (factors V and X,prothrombin,and fibrinogen)?
A) thrombin time
B) prothrombin time
C) partial thromboplastin time
D) platelet count
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Congenital Bleeding and Hypercoagulable Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a telangiectasia?
A) a bruise
B) a focal dilation of postcapillary venules with connections to dilated arterioles
C) a vesiculobullous lesion
D) a hyperkeratotic lesion with some dystrophic changes
Q2) What percentage of adults with hemophilia A is HIV positive?
A) 15
B) 35
C) 55
D) 75
Q3) A female carrier of hemophilia A will transmit the disorder to ____ of her sons and the carrier trait to _____ of her daughters.
A) half; half
B) none; half
C) half; none
D) none; none
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Chapter 26: Cancer and Oral Care of the Cancer Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most important risk factor for breast cancer?
A) smoking
B) exposure to carcinogens
C) genetics
D) nulliparity
Q2) The overall incidence of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)in oral leukoplakia approximates __%.
A) 1
B) 10
C) 20
D) 30
Q3) What is the critical amount ("D"-diameter)in millimeters in the mnemonic ABCD for melanoma?
A) 3 mm
B) 6 mm
C) 9 mm
D) 12 mm
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Chapter 27: Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the best choice of restoration for an epileptic patient?
A) all-metal fixed prosthesis
B) all-porcelain fixed prosthesis
C) all-metal removable prosthesis
D) all-acrylic removable prosthesis
Q2) Which type of nervous tissue is affected by multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A) the dura mater of the brain
B) the white matter of the central nervous system (CNS)
C) the afferent nerves of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)
D) the efferent nerves of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)
Q3) A deferral of dental treatment is advised for ____________ when treating a patient with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA).
A) 3 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 3 months
D) 6 months
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Chapter 28: Anxiety, eating Disorders, and Behavioral
Reactions to Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a simple phobia?
A) fear of heights
B) fear of needles
C) fear of embarrassing symptoms on leaving home
D) a and b
E) b and c
Q2) Which part of the brain appears to be most closely involved in acute panic attacks?
A) corpus callosum
B) medulla oblongata
C) locus coeruleus
D) pons
Q3) Opioids used for dental sedation or pain control must be administered with caution and in decreased dosage in patients who are taking a benzodiazepine for an anxiety disorder in order to avoid _________.
A) cardiac stimulation
B) overdepression of the CNS
C) liver toxicity
D) renal failure
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Chapter 29: Psychiatric Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are true of bipolar disorder?
A) Men tend to have a greater number of manic episodes, and women, more numerous depressive episodes.
B) Diagnosis is made as soon as the patient has one manic episode and one depressive episode.
C) It is characterized by manic behavior.
D) Each affective episode lasts about one week.
Q2) Many over-the-counter (OTC)cold remedies should not be prescribed for patients taking monoamine oxidase (MAO)inhibitors because the cold remedies contain
A) phenylephrine
B) tyramine
C) allopurinol
D) epinephrine
Q3) How long will an untreated major depression last?
A) 4 months
B) 8 months
C) 4 years
D) 8 years
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Drug and Alcohol Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most commonly used illicit drug?
A) alcohol
B) marijuana
C) heroin
D) methamphetamine
Q2) How long should a dentist wait before administering dental local anesthetic containing epinephrine to a patient who is "high" on cocaine?
A) 3 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 hours
Q3) Why is disulfiram used for some patients during alcohol rehabilitation?
A) It reduces delirium tremens ("DTs") due to abrupt withdrawal of alcohol.
B) It causes nausea and vomiting when taken with alcohol.
C) It induces restful sleep patterns during withdrawal from alcohol.
D) It reduces elevated blood pressure and tachycardia.
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