Honors Organic Chemistry
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Honors Organic Chemistry is an advanced course designed for students with a strong foundation in general chemistry, focusing on the structure, properties, and reactions of organic molecules. The course emphasizes a rigorous, in-depth approach to the fundamental principles of bonding, stereochemistry, reaction mechanisms, and synthesis. Students will explore the nomenclature and reactions of key classes of organic compounds, such as alkanes, alkenes, alkynes, aromatics, alcohols, and carbonyl compounds. Through laboratory and problem-solving activities, students deepen their understanding of modern spectroscopic techniques, synthetic strategies, and the relevance of organic chemistry in biological systems and industrial applications, preparing them for further study or research in chemistry and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Organic Chemistry 4th Edition by Janice Gorzynski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Structure and Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the order of decreasing bond length for a C-C bond comprised of the following molecular orbitals? \[\begin{array} { c c c }
s p ^ { 3 } - s p ^ { 3 } & s p ^ { 2 } - s p ^ { 2 } & s p - s p \\ \text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III }
\end{array}\]
A) I > III > II
B) I > II > III
C) III > II > I
D) II > III > I
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following molecules has polar covalent bonds?
A) MgO
B) NH<sub>3</sub>
C) Cl<sub>2</sub>
D) NaBr
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Acids and Bases
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Q1) Which of the following species is the conjugate base of methanol, CH<sub>3</sub>OH?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>OH<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
B) CH<sub>3</sub>O<sup>-</sup>
C) CH<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
D) CH<sub>4</sub>
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following species cannot act as both a Brønsted-Lowry acid and base?
A) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
B) HSO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
C) HO<sup>-</sup>
D) H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following statements about Lewis bases is true?
A) Lewis bases are electron pair acceptors.
B) Lewis bases are electron pair donors.
C) Lewis bases are proton donors.
D) Lewis bases are proton acceptors.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Organic Molecules and Functional Groups
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Q1) Which of the following molecules are aliphatic hydrocarbons? \[\begin{array} { c c c c }
\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { OH } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } = \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } & \mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { OCH } _ { 3 } \\
\text { I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]
A) I, II, III
B) I and III
C) II, III, IV
D) II and IV
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the surface area of a molecule and the strength of the intermolecular forces?
A) The larger the surface area, the weaker the intermolecular force.
B) The larger the surface area, the stronger the intermolecular forces.
C) The smaller the surface area, the stronger the intermolecular forces.
D) There is no relationship between surface area and intermolecular forces.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Alkanes
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Q1) What is the hybridization of a carbon atom in an alkane?
A) sp<sup>3</sup>
B) sp<sup>2</sup>
C) sp
D) p
Q2) How many cycloalkane constitutional isomers (excluding stereoisomers) are there with molecular formula C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>10</sub>?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q3) Which of the following compounds has only primary and secondary carbon atoms?
A) Pentane
B) 2-Methylpentane
C) 2,2-Dimethylpentane
D) 2,3,3-Trimethylpentane
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Chapter 5: Stereochemistry
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Q1) How many stereoisomers can be drawn for a molecule with formula CH<sub>3</sub>CH(OH)CH(OH)CH<sub>3</sub>?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) Which of the following molecules has a plane of symmetry? \[\begin{array}{l}
\begin{array} { l l l l }
\text {\(\mathrm { CHBrClF }\)}&
\text {\(\mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { BrCl }\)}&
\text {\(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CHClBr }\)}&
\text {\(\mathrm { CH } _ { 3 } \mathrm { CH } _ { 2 } \mathrm { CHBrF }\)}\\
I&II&III&IV
\end{array}
\end{array}\]
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Understanding Organic Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Bond dissociation energies increase down a column of the periodic table.
B) When \(\Delta\)H° is positive, more energy is released in forming bonds than is needed to break bonds.
C) When \(\Delta\)H° is negative, more energy is needed to break bonds than is released in forming bonds.
D) Bond dissociation energies decrease down a column of the periodic table.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Fast reactions have small rate constants.
B) Slow reactions have large rate constants.
C) A rate equation contains concentration terms for all reactants involved in a one-step mechanism.
D) A rate equation contains concentration terms for all the reactants involved in a multi-step reaction.
Q3) Which of the following statements about bond breaking is not true?
A) Homolysis generates uncharged reactive intermediates with unpaired electrons.
B) Homolysis require energy but heterolysis does not require energy.
C) Heterolysis generates charged intermediates.
D) Heterolysis involves unequal sharing of bonding electrons by atoms.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Alkyl Halides and Nucleophilic Substitution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following alkyl halides undergoes the fastest S<sub>N</sub>2 reaction with sodium hydroxide?
A) 1-Iodobutane
B) 1-Chlorobutane
C) 1-Fluorobutane
D) 1-Bromobutane
Q2) Rank the following ions in order of increasing nucleophlicity in polar protic solvents, starting with the least nucleophilic ion. \[\begin{array} { c c c c } \mathrm { F } ^ { * } & \mathrm { Cl } ^ { - } & \mathrm { Br } ^ { - } & \mathrm { I } ^ { - } \\
\text {I } & \text { II } & \text { III } & \text { IV } \end{array}\]
A) I < II < III < IV
B) IV < III < II < I
C) I < II < IV < III
D) IV < III < I < II
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Chapter 8: Alkyl Halides and Elimination Reactions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is not true?
A) It is a two-step process and has the same first step as an S<sub>N</sub>1 mechanism.
B) It involves the formation of a carbocation from eliminating a good leaving group.
C) A common competing reaction is rearrangement of a less stable carbocation to a more stable carbocation.
D) The loss of a proton by the carbocation is a slow step.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the mechanism of an E2 reaction is true?
A) All bonds are broken and formed in multiple steps.
B) The reaction is not concerted.
C) Entropy favors the reactants of an E2 reaction.
D) Entropy favors the products of an E2 reaction.
Q3) Which of the following statements about an E1 mechanism is true?
A) The identity of the leaving group affects the rate of reaction.
B) The reaction follows second-order kinetics.
C) The reaction is slowest with tertiary substrates.
D) Polar aprotic solvents favor the E1 mechanism.
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Chapter 9: Alcohols, Ethers and Epoxides
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following reactions will provide the best yield of ether by the Williamson ether synthesis?
A) Sodium methoxide and tert-butyl bromide.
B) Sodium tert-butoxide and iodomethane.
C) Methanol and tert-butyl alcohol in the presence of KOH.
D) Iodomethane and tert-butyl bromide in the presence of KOH.
Q2) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of methyl phenyl ether with excess HBr?
A) Phenol and bromomethane
B) Phenol and methanol
C) Bromobenzene and bromomethane
D) Bromobenzene and methanol
Q3) What are the major products obtained upon treatment of tert-butyl methyl ether with excess HI?
A) tert-Butyl alcohol and iodomethane
B) tert-Butyl iodide and iodomethane
C) tert-Butyl alcohol and methanol
D) tert-Butyl iodide and methanol
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Chapter 10: Alkenes
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Q1) What type of reactive intermediate is formed in the reaction of an alkene with Br<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O to give a bromohydrin?
A) Carbanion
B) Radical
C) Carbocation
D) Cyclic bromonium ion
Q2) Rearrangements can occur in which of the following reactions?
A) Addition of Cl<sub>2</sub> to an alkene.
B) Addition of HOBr to an alkene.
C) Addition of H<sub>2</sub>O/H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> to an alkene.
D) None of the above.
Q3) Which of the following reaction conditions would result in anti-Markovnikov addition to an alkene?
A) H<sub>2</sub>O/H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>
B) HBr
C) HCl
D) [1] BH<sub>3</sub>; [2] H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>/HO<sup>-</sup>
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Alkynes
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Q1) Which of the following statements about tautomers is true?
A) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a hydrogen atom.
B) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a carbon atom.
C) Tautomers differ in the position of a double bond and a hydrogen atom.
D) Tautomers differ in the position of a single bond and a carbon atom.
Q2) How many degrees of unsaturation are introduced by a triple bond?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q3) In the addition of HBr to 1-butyne, the nucleophile in the first step of the mechanism is:
A) The Csp-H1s bond of 1-butyne.
B) The C-C triple bond of 1-butyne.
C) The H atom in HBr.
D) The Br ion.
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Chapter 12: Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) Which of the following classes of organic compounds cannot undergo reduction easily?
A) Alkanes
B) Alkenes
C) Alkynes
D) Carboxylic acids
Q2) Which of the following statements about the reduction of epoxides with LiAlH<sub>4</sub> is true?
A) The nucleophile is a hydride (H<sup>-</sup>).
B) In unsymmetrical epoxides, nucleophilic attack of H<sup>-</sup> occurs at the more substituted carbon atom.
C) The reaction follows S<sub>N</sub>1 mechanism.
D) The nucleophile, H<sup>-</sup>, is a weak nucleophile.
Q3) What happens to the carbon atom in the transformation of chloromethane to methyllithium?
CH<sub>3</sub>Cl + 2Li \(\to\) CH<sub>3</sub>Li + LiCl
A) Oxidized
B) Reduced
C) Oxidized and Reduced
D) Neither oxidized nor reduced
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Mass Spectrometry and Infrared Spectroscopy
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Q1) An alkyne C-H bond absorbs at higher wave number than an alkene C-H bond. What does this tell you about the strength of these two bonds?
A) The alkene C-H bond is stronger.
B) The alkyne C-H bond is stronger.
C) The alkene C-C bond is stronger.
D) The alkyne C-C bond is stronger.
Q2) Which of the following information is primarily obtained from an IR spectrum?
A) Conjugated \(\pi\) system present in a compound.
B) Functional groups present in a compound.
C) Molecular weight of a compound.
D) The carbon and hydrogen framework of a compound.
Q3) In electron impact mass spectrometry (EIMS), what is being detected?
A) The molecular mass of the compound
B) The molecular formula of the compound
C) The mass to charge ratio of any ionic species
D) The mass to charge ratio of any neutral species
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Chapter 14: Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic radiation?
A) All molecules absorb electromagnetic radiation at some frequency.
B) Frequency is directly proportional to wavelength.
C) NMR uses the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
D) The radio frequency region of the electromagnetic spectrum has the largest energy per photon.
E) Energy is inversely proportional to frequency.
Q2) Which of the following spectroscopy methods does not involve the interaction of organic molecules with electromagnetic radiation?
A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
B) Infrared spectroscopy
C) Mass spectroscopy
D) Ultraviolet spectroscopy
Q3) What region of the electromagnetic spectrum does nuclear magnet resonance spectroscopy use?
A) Radio frequency
B) Microwave frequency
C) Infrared frequency
D) Visible frequency
E) Ultraviolet frequency
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Chapter 15: Radical Reactions
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Q1) How many monochlorination products can be formed (constitutional isomers only) from the reaction of CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH< sub>3</sub> with Cl<sub>2</sub> and hv?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q2) Which of the following statements about radicals and radical reactions is not true?
A) Most radicals are unstable.
B) A radical contains an atom that has an octet of electrons.
C) Half-headed arrows are used to show the movement of lone electrons.
D) A radical is formed by homolysis of a covalent bond.
Q3) Which of the following statements about chlorination and bromination is true?
A) Bromination is unselective, yielding a mixture of products.
B) Chlorination is often selective, yielding one major product.
C) Chlorination is faster than bromination.
D) Bromination is faster than chlorination.
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Chapter 16: Conjugation, Resonance, and Dienes
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Q1) What is the reactive intermediate in the reaction of 1,3-diene with HBr, resulting in 1,4-addition?
A) Allylic radical
B) Cyclic bromonium ion
C) Dienophile
D) Allylic carbocation
Q2) Which of the following statements about the Diels-Alder reaction is true?
A) The diene can react only when it adopts the s-trans conformation.
B) Electron-withdrawing substituents in the diene increase reaction rate.
C) Electron-donating substituents in the dienophile increase the reaction rate.
D) The stereochemistry of the dienophile is retained in the product.
Q3) What is the definition of a resonance structure?
A) Compounds with the same molecular formula
B) Compounds with different carbon frameworks
C) Structures that differ only in the placement of pi and nonbonding electrons
D) Structures that differ only in the location of bonds
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Chapter 17: Benzene and Aromatic Compounds
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the structure of benzene is not true?
A) Benzene is planar.
B) Benzene has three short double bonds alternating with three longer single bonds.
C) The electrons in the pi bonds are delocalized around the ring.
D) Benzene has six pi electrons.
Q2) Which of the following is not a criterion for antiaromaticity?
A) The molecule must be cyclic.
B) The molecule must have (4n + 2) pi electrons.
C) The molecule must be planar.
D) The molecule must be completely conjugated.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the Hückel's criteria for aromaticity?
A) The molecule must be cyclic.
B) The molecule must be planar.
C) The molecule must be completely conjugated.
D) The molecule must have 4n pi electrons.
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19
Chapter 18: Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution
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Q1) What is the reactive intermediate formed in the elimination-addition mechanism of nucleophilic aromatic substitution?
A) Carbocation
B) Radical
C) Benzyne
D) Carbanion
Q2) Which of the following substituents are deactivators in electrophilic aromatic substitution?
A) HO -
B) CH<sub>3</sub>NH -
C) CH<sub>3</sub>O -
D) (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>N<sup>+</sup> -
Q3) What is the electrophile in aromatic nitration?
A) NO<sup>+</sup>
B) NO<sub>2</sub><sup>+</sup>
C) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>
D) NO<sub>2</sub>H
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Chapter 19: Carboxylic Acids and the Acidity of the O-H
Bond
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Q1) Which of the following is the most polar organic compound?
A) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
B) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CHO
C) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
D) CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
Q2) Which of the following bases are strong enough to significantly deprotonate ethanol, CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH (pKa = 16)?
A) NaOCH<sub>3</sub>
B) NaOH
C) NaH
D) NaOCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
Q3) What is the overall charge of the amino acid, alanine, at pH = 2?
A) + 1
B) - 1
C) No overall charge
D) + 2
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Introduction to Carbonyl Chemistry;
Organometallic Reagents; Oxidation and Reduction
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Q1) What reagent would be used to reduce an amide to an amine?
A) NaBH<sub>4</sub>
B) LiAlH(OtBu)<sub>3</sub>
C) LiAlH<sub>4</sub>
D) FeCl<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Which reagent can be used to reduce the carbonyl in methyl vinyl ketone?
A) NaBH<sub>4</sub>/CH<sub>3</sub>OH
B) H<sub>2</sub> and Pd-C
C) FeCl<sub>3</sub>
D) NaH
Q3) If a compound is reduced, what is the result?
A) Fewer C-H bonds
B) Increased number of C-H bonds
C) Fewer C-Z bonds
D) Both increased number of C-H bonds and fewer C-Z bonds
Q4) What reagent can be used to cleave a silyl ether protecting group?
A) NaOMe
B) MeMgBr
C) Bu<sub>4</sub>NF
D) Pd/C
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Chapter 21: Aldehydes and Ketones Nucleophilic Addition
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Q1) Using <sup>1</sup>H NMR spectroscopy, how can you tell the difference between an aldehyde and a ketone?
A) An aldehyde has a C-H stretch (one or two) between 2700-2830 cm<sup>-1</sup>.
B) An aldehyde has a proton signal between 9-10 ppm.
C) A ketone has signals around 2-3 ppm.
D) A ketone has a signal around 200 ppm.
Q2) What is the driving force for the Wittig reaction?
A) The formation of an alkene
B) The deprotonation of a phosphonium salt
C) The elimination of triphenylphosphine oxide
D) The formation of a phosphonium salt
Q3) Butanal (MW= 72) has a boiling point of 76 °C while butanol (MW= 74) has a boiling point of 118 °C. What accounts for this difference in boiling points?
A) Butanol is polar while butanal is not polar.
B) Butanol can exhibit dipole-dipole interactions while butanal cannot.
C) Butanol can hydrogen bond and butanal cannot hydrogen bond.
D) Butanal is less sterically hindered than butanol.
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Chapter 22: Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives
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Q1) Which of the following peaks would you see in the IR spectrum of a carboxylic acid?
A) A flat line (carboxylic acids are not IR active)
B) A sharp line at 2250 cm<sup>-1</sup>
C) A broad peak from 3800-2800 cm<sup>-1</sup>
D) A broad peak from 800-600 cm<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) An unknown compound has a sharp, medium peak at 2250 cm<sup>-1</sup>. The unknown compound is probably
A) an alkane
B) an aldehyde
C) an alkene
D) a nitrile
Q3) From the list below, pick the compound that does not react with acetyl chloride.
A) Isopropyl alcohol
B) Benzoic acid
C) Ammonia
D) Triethyl amine
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Chapter 23: Substitution Reactions of Carbonyl
Compounds at the Alpha-Carbon
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Q1) It has been found that \(\beta\)-dicarbonyl compounds have a greater concentration of the enol form over the keto form. This can be explained by:
A) The C=C of the enol is conjugated with the carbonyl group.
B) The -OH of the enol can hydrogen bond to the oxygen of the nearby carbonyl group.
C) Both A and B above are true.
D) None of the choices are true.
Q2) What are the three steps in the malonic ester synthesis?
A) Deprotonation, alkylation, hydrolysis/decarboxylation
B) Hydrogenation, alkylation, deprotonation
C) Alkylation, hydrolysis/decarboxylation. hydrogenation
D) Hydrolysis/decarboxylation, deprotonation, alkylation
Q3) If you want to form a kinetic enolate, you want to:
A) Use a strong, non-nucleophilic base such as LDA.
B) Use a protic solvent.
C) Use a low temperature.
D) Both use a strong, non-nucleophilic base such as LDA and use a low temperature.
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25
Chapter 24: Carbonyl Condensation Reactions
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Q1) Of the carbonyl compounds; (1) benzaldehyde, (2) acetophenone and (3) dicyclohexyl ketone, which compound has no \(\alpha\)-hydrogens?
A) benzaldehyde
B) acetophenone
C) acetone
D) All of these compounds contain \(\alpha\)-hydrogens
Q2) What is the general name for the reaction product formed in a Claisen reaction?
A) "\(\beta\)-hydroxy ester"
B) "\(\beta\)-keto ester"
C) "\(\alpha\)-keto ester"
D) "\(\gamma\)-hydroxy ester"
Q3) In the correct order, what are the three general steps in the mechanism of a Claisen reaction?
A) Enolate formation, elimination, nucleophilic addition.
B) Enolate formation, nucleophilic addition, elimination.
C) Elimination, enolate formation, nucleophilic addition.
D) Nucleophilic addition, enolate formation, elimination.
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Chapter 25: Amines
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Q1) Why are alkylamines more basic than arylamines?
A) The lone pair electrons are localized in alkylamines and delocalized in arylamines.
B) The lone pair electrons are delocalized in alkylamines and localized in arylamines.
C) The lone pair electrons are less readily available in alkylamines.
D) The lone pair electrons are more readily available in arylamines.
Q2) Why is direct nucleophilic substitution of an alkyl halide with NH<sub>3</sub> not a very useful method for preparing primary amines?
A) NH<sub>3</sub> is not a nucleophile.
B) Elimination will occur.
C) NH<sub>3</sub> is too bulky to act as a nucleophile.
D) Polyalkylation of the amine will result in multiple products.
Q3) What is the approximate bond angle of the substituents around a nitrogen atom in amines?
A) 90°
B) 109.5°
C) 120°
D) 180°
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Carbon-Carbon Bond Forming Reactions in Organic Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is true about the use of the Grubbs catalyst?
A) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbon-carbon coupling reactions.
B) The Grubbs catalyst is used in alkene metathesis.
C) The Grubbs catalyst is used in carbene formation.
D) The Grubbs catalyst is used with palladium as a co-catalyst.
Q2) Which of the following is not a step in the Suzuki reaction?
A) Oxidative addition of R-X to the palladium catalyst
B) Substitution of the R group to the palladium catalyst
C) Transfer of the alkyl group from the organoborane to palladium
D) Reductive elimination of R-R, forming the new C-C bond
Q3) What do the Suzuki reaction, the Heck reaction, and the organocuprate reaction all have in common when they react with an alkyl halide?
A) All reactions form new carbon-carbon bonds.
B) They all use palladium as a catalyst in one step of the reaction.
C) They are all stereospecific reactions.
D) They all require harsh conditions.
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Chapter 27: Pericyclic Reactions
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Q1) How many bonding molecular orbitals are present in 1,3,5-hexatriene?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q2) Which of the following statements about an electrocyclic ring-opening reaction is not true?
A) An electrocyclic ring-opening reaction is an intramolecular reaction.
B) An electrocyclic ring-opening reaction requires a source of energy (heat or light).
C) The product of an electrocyclic ring-opening reaction contains one fewer \(\pi\) bond than the reactant.
D) The product of an electrocyclic ring-opening reaction contains one more \(\pi\) bond than the reactant.
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of pericyclic reactions?
A) cycloadditions
B) nucleophilic reactions
C) electrocyclic reactions
D) sigmatropic rearrangements
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Chapter 28: Carbohydrates
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Q1) From the disaccharides listed below, which one will not undergo mutarotation?
A) sucrose
B) maltose
C) lactose
D) xylobiose
Q2) What is the classification of pyranose forms of monosaccharides?
A) 5-membered cyclic hemiacetals
B) 6-membered cyclic acetals
C) 5-membered cyclic acetals
D) 6-membered cyclic hemiacetals
Q3) Which of the following pairs of carbohydrates will afford the same product from a Wohl degradation?
A) xylose/glucose
B) ribose/arabinose
C) fructose/mannose
D) lyxose/threose
Q4) Does a monosaccharide prefer to exist in the open-chain or closed-ring form?
A) open
B) closed
C) Both forms exist in equal ratios.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Amino Acids and Proteins
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Q1) Which of the following is (are) fibrous protein(s)?
A) keratins
B) hormones
C) enzymes
D) antibodies
Q2) Which of the following is the major advantage of the Merrifield synthesis of peptides?
A) It allows for the formation of absolutely no by-products.
B) Impurities can be easily washed away.
C) Excess reagent can be used.
D) It prevents hydrogenation.
Q3) Which of the following amino acids does not have an L-isomer?
A) alanine
B) valine
C) glycine
D) leucine
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Chapter 30: Lipids
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Q1) What is the first key enzyme required for the synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?
A) protein Kinase C
B) synthase
C) transferase
D) COX (cyclic oxygenase)
Q2) Which of the following fatty acids has the highest melting point?
A) linoleic acid
B) oleic acid
C) arachidonic acid
D) palmitoleic acid
Q3) Which of the following correctly describes waxes?
A) long chain alcohols
B) long chain esters
C) long chain ethers
D) long chain fatty acids
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32
Chapter 31: Synthetic Polymers
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Q1) Vulcanization is the process of cross-linking polymer chains in rubber using what chemical?
A) sulfur
B) formaldehyde
C) benzoyl peroxide
D) ethylene glycol
Q2) Which of the following is (are) addition polymer(s)? I. polypropylene
II) Teflon
III) nylon
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Only III
D) Both I and II
Q3) Which of the following is (are) condensation polymer(s)? I. polypropylene II) Teflon
III) nylon
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Only III
D) Both II and III
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