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Honors General Chemistry is an advanced introduction to the fundamental concepts of chemistry, designed for students seeking a more rigorous and in-depth experience. The course covers topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, thermodynamics, kinetics, and chemical equilibria. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical understanding and analytical problem-solving skills, with laboratory experiments integrated to reinforce core concepts and develop proficiency in scientific methods. Students are encouraged to think critically about chemical phenomena and to explore the broader applications of chemistry in real-world contexts.
Recommended Textbook
General Chemistry Principles and Modern Applications 11th Edition by Ralph H. Petrucci
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Q1) How many significant figures should the answer to the following calculation have? (1.4312 - 1.1 × 10<sup>-2</sup>)÷ (1.0712 × 10<sup>-4</sup>)
A)4
B)5
C)2
D)3
Answer: A
Q2) Crude oil is an example of:
A)a compound
B)an element
C)a heterogeneous mixture
D)a homogeneous mixture
Answer: C
Q3) Gasoline is an example of:
A)a compound
B)an element
C)a heterogeneous mixture
D)a homogeneous mixture
Answer: D
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Q1) Cesium belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table.
A)alkali metal
B)alkaline earth metal
C)halogen
D)noble gas
Answer: A
Q2) Which statement below is true?
A)Metals gain electrons to have a positive charge.
B)Metals gain electrons to have a negative charge.
C)Metals lose electrons to have a positive charge.
D)Nonmetals are more likely to lose than to gain electrons.
E)Transition metals can gain 2 or more electrons to become metal ions.
Answer: C
Q3) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
A)Gamma rays are bent by magnetic fields as a ray of positive charges.
B)Protons and neutrons are found in the nucleus.
C)Protons and neutrons are close to the same mass.
D)The atomic number is the proton number.
E)The mass number is the number of protons plus neutrons.
Answer: A
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Q1) The correct chemical name for the compound SbCl<sub>3</sub> is ________.
A)tin trichloride
B)tin chloride
C)stannous trichloride
D)antimony(IV)chloride
E)antimony(III)chloride
Answer: E
Q2) An aqueous solution of H<sub>2</sub>S is named:
A)hydrosulfuric acid
B)hydrosulfurous acid
C)sulfuric acid
D)sulfurous acid
Answer: A
Q3) The correct chemical name for the compound KNO<sub>2</sub> is ________.
A)potassium nitrate
B)potassium nitrite
C)potassium nitrogen dioxide
D)potassium nitrous oxide
E)potassium hyponitrite
Answer: B
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Q1) How many grams of ZnSO<sub>4</sub> will be made from 41.0 grams each of Zn,K<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub>,and H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>?
4 Zn + K<sub>2</sub>Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub> + 7 H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> 4 ZnSO<sub>4</sub> + 2 CrSO<sub>4</sub> + K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + 7 H<sub>2</sub>O
A)67.6 g
B)38.6 g
C)101 g
D)20.6 g
E)82.5 g
Q2) If 85.6 mL of a 6.75 M solution are diluted to 6.20 L with water,what is the concentration of the final solution?
A)6.75 (6.20/85.6)M
B)6.75 (8.56/6.20)M
C)6.75 (6200/85.6)M
D)6.75 (85.6/6200)M
E)8.56 (6.20/6.75)M
Q3) There are ________ mol of bromide ions in 0.900 L of a 0.500 mol L<sup>-1</sup> solution of Al Br<sub>3</sub> (aq).
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Q1) A sample of magnesium oxide was dissolved in 50.0 mL of 0.183 M hydrochloric acid,and the excess acid was titrated to a phenolphthalein end-point by 13.4 mL of 0.105 M sodium hydroxide.What was the mass of the magnesium oxide sample?
A)312 mg
B)184 mg
C)156 mg
D)104 mg
E)77.8 mg
Q2) Which of the following compounds is an Arrhenius base?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>H
B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>
C)HNO<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
Q3) In 0.20 M NH<sub>3</sub>(aq),the concentration of NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>(aq)and OH<sup>-</sup>(aq)are approximately 0.20 M. A)True
B)False
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Q1) A sample of helium gas occupies a volume of 38 L at 780 torr and 25 °C.What volume would the gas occupy at 0 °C and 1 atm?
A)40 L
B)38 L
C)36 L
D)34 L
E)25 L
Q2) Calculate the volume of H<sub>2</sub>(g)expressed at STP,required to react with 3.00 L of CO(g)at STP in the following reaction:
3 CO(g)+ 7 H<sub>2</sub>(g) C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>(g)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
A)3.00 L
B)7.00 L
C)10.0 L
D)22.4 L
E)1.00 L
Q3) Gas densities depend strongly on gas temperature and pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The standard enthalpy for diamond and graphite are the same value.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are thermodynamic state functions?
I.heat
II.volume
III.temperature
IV.enthalpy
V.density
A)II,III,IV,V
B)I,II,IV,V
C)I,II,III,V
D)II,IV
E)I,III,V
Q3) What is the reaction for the standard enthalpy of formation for HCl(g)?
A)H<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq) HCl(g)
B)1/2 H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 1/2 Cl<sub>2</sub>(l) HCl(s)
C)NH<sub>3</sub>(g)+ Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) NH<sub>2</sub>Cl(g)+ HCl(g)
D)1/2 H<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 1/2 Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) HCl(g)
E)1/2 H<sub>2</sub>(l)+ 1/2 Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) HCl(l)
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Q1) For hydrogen,what is the wavelength of the photon emitted when an electron drops from a 4d orbital to a 2p orbital in a hydrogen atom? The Rydberg constant is 1.097 × 10<sup>-2</sup> nm<sup>-1</sup>.
A)656.3 nm
B)486.2 nm
C)364.6 nm
D)2.057 × 10<sup>-3</sup> nm
Q2) How many unpaired electrons are in the ground state electron configuration of calcium?
A)5
B)2
C)0
D)1
E)3
Q3) The condensed electron configuration of krypton,element 36,is:
A)[Kr]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>8</sup>
B)[Ar]4s<sup>4</sup>
C)[Kr]4s<sup>4</sup>3d<sup>8</sup>
D)[Ar]3d<sup>10</sup>4s<sup>2</sup>4p<sup>6</sup>
E)[Ar]4s<sup>4</sup>3d<sup>4</sup>
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Q1) List in order of increasing size: Cl<sup>-</sup>,Ar,K<sup>+</sup>,S<sup>2-</sup>,Ca<sup>2+.</sup>
A)Ca<sup>2+</sup> < K<sup>+</sup> < Ar < Cl<sup>-</sup> < S<sup>2- </sup>
B)S<sup>2-</sup> < Cl<sup>-</sup> < Ar < K<sup>+</sup> < Ca<sup>2+ </sup>
C)Ca<sup>2+</sup> < S<sup>2-</sup> < K<sup>+</sup> < Ar < Cl<sup>- </sup>
D)Cl<sup>-</sup> < Ar < K<sup>+</sup> < S<sup>2-</sup> < Ca<sup>2+ </sup>
E)K<sup>+</sup> < S<sup>2-</sup> < Ar < Cl<sup>-</sup> < Ca<sup>2+ </sup>
Q2) Which of the following has the largest radius?
A)ClS1U1P1-S1S1P0
B)Ar
C)ScS1U1P13+S1S1P0
D)KS1U1P1+ S1S1P0
E)PS1U1P13- S1S1P0
Q3) Polarizability decreases with the size of the atom.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The electron affinity is opposite to the ionization energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which 1+ ion is isoelectronic with S<sup>2-</sup>?
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Q1) Given the listed bond lengths,what would be the most reasonable estimate for the carbon-oxygen bond length in carbon dioxide?
C-C/154 pm C =C/120 pm C-O/143 pm O-O/145 pm O =O/121 pm
A)ca.120 pm
B)ca.130 pm
C)ca.140 pm
D)ca.150 pm
E)> 150 pm
Q2) Bonds between identical atoms are nonpolar bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Polar bonds are caused by the bonding pair of electrons being attracted more to one atom than the other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Of the following elements,which has the highest electronegativity?
A)S
B)Cl
C)Ti
D)Se

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Q1) The hybridization of N in NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> is ________.
A)sp
B)sp<sup>2 </sup>
C)sp<sup>3</sup><sup>d </sup>
D)sp<sup>3 </sup>
E)sp<sup>3</sup><sup>d</sup><sup>2</sup>
Q2) Using the VSEPR model,the electron-group geometry of the central atom in BF<sub>3</sub> is:
A)linear
B)trigonal planar
C)tetrahedral
D)trigonal bipyramidal
E)octahedral
Q3) Choose the INCORRECT statement about NH<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
A)There are no bonds.
B)There are two bonds.
C)N is sp<sup>3</sup> hybridization.
D)The molecule is bent.
E)There is one lone pair on N.

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Q1) A crystal and its melt readily conduct electricity.The crystal also has a luster and is easily deformed.Thus,it is:
A)a covalent network crystal
B)an ionic crystal
C)a metallic crystal
D)a molecular crystal
E)a covalent crystal
Q2) The relationship between the vapor pressure of a liquid and temperature can be expressed by the Clausius-Clapeyron equation:
Ln[P<sub>2</sub>/P<sub>1</sub>] = [ <sub>vap</sub>H/R] × [1/T<sub>1</sub>1/T<sub>2</sub>]
Ethanol (C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>5</sub>OH)has a normal boiling point of 78.3 °C and,with <sub>vap</sub>H = 39.3 kJ/mol.What is the vapor pressure of ethanol at 50.0 °C?
A)118 Torr
B)234 Torr
C)354 Torr
D)485 Torr
E)670 Torr
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Q1) Which of the listed reactions would couple with the following reaction to produce silver?
Ag<sub>2</sub>O(s) 2 Ag(s)+ 1/2 O(g) <sub>r</sub>G° = 11.2 kJ/mol
A)Ag(s)+ 1/2 Br<sub>2</sub> AgBr(s) <sub>r</sub>G° = 96.9 kJ/mol
B)C + 1/2 O<sub>2</sub> CO <sub>r</sub>G° = -137.2 kJ/mol
C)N + 1/2 O<sub>2</sub> NO <sub>r</sub>G° = 149.3 kJ/mol
D)N + O<sub>2</sub> NO<sub>2</sub> <sub>r</sub>G° = 51.3 kJ/mol
E)C + 2 S CS<sub>2</sub>(l) <sub>r</sub>G° = 65.3 kJ/mol
Q2) If G is positive for a certain reaction,then:
A)the reaction is spontaneous
B)the reverse of the reaction is spontaneous
C)the system is in equilibrium
D)one would need to know the Kelvin temperature to determine spontaneity
E)there would be no reaction possible for a negative value
Q3) The chemical potential of a substance,m,represents the ability of a substance to change the Gibbs energy of a system.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A solution component present in lesser quantity than the solvent is called
A)a diluent
B)an alloy
C)a heterogeneous solid
D)a solute
E)a mixture
Q2) Two solutions contain the same amount of water as a solvent.One solution contains 0.5 mol glucose (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>)while the other one contains 0.2 mol of CaCl<sub>2</sub> .If the freezing points of both solutions are the same,determine the van't Hoff i factor for CaCl<sub>2</sub> solution.
A)2.50
B)3
C)1.50
D)2.75
E)0.75
Q3) Gas solubility always increases with temperature.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) 4.000 mol chlorine and 2.000 mol bromine were placed in a 50.0 L container and kept at 293 K until equilibrium was achieved for the reaction: Br<sub>2</sub>(l)+ Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) BrCl(g)
At the point of equilibrium there were 82.63 g of Br<sub>2</sub>(l).Compute the value of K<sub>c</sub> for this reaction.
A)0.0699
B)1.18
C)0.849
D)3.50
E)2.36
Q2) Consider the reaction:
2 SO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 SO<sub>3</sub>(g), <sub>r</sub>H° = -196.6 kJ/mol
The equilibrium is displaced to the left if:
A)some sulfur trioxide is removed
B)the temperature is raised
C)some sulfur dioxide is added
D)the pressure is raised
E)the temperature is lowered
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Q1) List the following acids in order of increasing strength: HClO<sub>2</sub> HClO<sub>3</sub> HClO<sub>4 </sub>
A)HClO<sub>2</sub> < HClO<sub>4</sub> < HClO<sub>3 </sub> B)HClO<sub>4</sub> < HClO<sub>3</sub> < HClO<sub>2 </sub>
C)HClO<sub>4</sub> < HClO<sub>2</sub> < HClO<sub>3 </sub> D)HClO<sub>3</sub> < HClO<sub>2</sub> < HClO<sub>4 </sub> E)HClO<sub>2</sub> < HClO<sub>3</sub> < HClO<sub>4 </sub>
Q2) What is the pH of a 0.052 M aqueous solution of sodium acetate? K<sub>a</sub> (acetic acid)= 1.8 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
A)10.0
B)5.3
C)11.0
D)8.7
E)3.0
Q3) HNO<sub>3</sub> is a strong acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first ionization step is approximately 100% for H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) What is the [CH<sub>3</sub>COO<sup>-</sup>]/[CH<sub>3</sub>COOH] ratio necessary to make an aqueous buffer solution with a pH of 4.34?
K<sub>a</sub> = 1.8 × 10<sup>-5 </sup>for CH3COOH.
A)0.39:1
B)0.91:1
C)1.09:1
D)2.5:1
Q2) Ten milliliters of 0.10 M NH<sub>3</sub>(aq)(K<sub>b</sub> = 1.8 × 10<sup>-5</sup>)is mixed with 10 mL of 0.10 M NH<sub>4</sub>Cl(aq).Neglecting the differences between activities and concentrations,the resulting solution:
A)has a pH = 4.74
B)has a [H<sup>+</sup>] of approximately 10<sup>-3</sup> M
C)has a [NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>] greater than that of the NH<sub>4</sub>Cl(aq)
D)has an [OH<sup>-</sup>] of 1.8 × 10<sup>-5</sup> M
E)is acidic
Q3) The color change range of most acid-base indicators is 1 pH unit.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When 200 mL of 0.10 M BaCl<sub>2</sub>(aq)is added to 100 mL of 0.30 M Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(aq),the number of moles of BaSO<sub>4 </sub>(solubility product = 1.1 × 10<sup>-10</sup>)precipitated is ________.
A)0.020 mol
B)0.010 mol
C)0.20 mol
D)0.030 mol
E)0.10 mol
Q2) At a temperature for which the solubility product constant of calcium carbonate is 4.7 × 10<sup>-9</sup>,what mass of the salt will dissolve in 100 mL of water?
A)0.69 mg
B)0.94 mg
C)1.2 mg
D)2.4 mg
E)4.7 mg
Q3) Qualitative cation analysis has been replaced in recent years by instrumental analysis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Given the table below predict the numerical value of the standard cell potential for the reaction:
2 Cr(s)+ 3 Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq) 2 Cr<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ 3 Cu(s)
Half Reaction E° (volts)
(1)Cr<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ 3 e<sup>-</sup> Cr(s)-0.74 (2)Cr<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ e<sup>-</sup> Cr<sup>2+</sup>(aq)-0.41 (3)Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq)+ 14 H<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ 6 e<sup>-</sup> 2 Cr<sup>3+</sup>(aq)+ 7 H<sub>2</sub>O(l)1.33 (4)Cu<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ e<sup>-</sup> Cu(s)0.52 (5)Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup> Cu(s)0.34 (6)Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq)+ e<sup>-</sup> Cu<sup>+</sup>(aq)0.16
A)2.50 volts
B)0.417 volts
C)-1.08 volts
D)1.08 volts
E)-0.40 volts
Q2) In the electrolysis of water,oxygen is evolved at the cathode.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In the reaction C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>9</sub>Cl(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>9</sub>OH(aq)+ HCl(aq)the concentration of the reactant changes from 0.0562 M to 0.0431 M in 85 sec.What is the average rate of decomposition over this interval?
A)1.54 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M/s
B)1.54 × 10<sup>-4</sup> moles
C)1.54 × 10<sup>-4</sup> moles/s
D)0.0154 M
E)0.0154 M/s
Q2) The decomposition of dinitrogen pentoxide is described by the chemical equation 2 N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>(g) 4 NO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g).
If the rate of appearance of NO<sub>2</sub> is equal to 0.560 mol min<sup>-1</sup> at a particular moment,what is the rate of appearance of O<sub>2</sub> at that moment?
A)0.140 mol min<sup>-1</sup>
B)0.280 mol min<sup>-1</sup>
C)1.12 mol min<sup>-1</sup>
D)2.24 mol min<sup>-1</sup>
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Q1) Which of the following is used as a water softener?
A)lithium carbonate
B)sodium nitrate
C)sodium carbonate
D)potassium chloride
E)hydrochloric acid
Q2) Which hydroxide is significantly more soluble in 0.10 M NaOH than in pure water?
A)Mg(OH)<sub>2 </sub>
B)Be(OH)<sub>2 </sub>
C)NaOH
D)Ca(OH)<sub>2 </sub> E)CsOH
Q3) Choose the INCORRECT statement about magnesium.
A)Magnesium is valued for its light weight.
B)It has a lower density than any other structural metal.
C)Aircraft parts are made from magnesium alloys.
D)It is a good oxidizing agent.
E)It is often used as a sacrificial anode.
Q4) The acidity of the group 3 oxides ________ (increases,decreases,does not change)moving down the group.
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Q1) In the compound dinitrogen monoxide,sometimes used as a dental anesthetic,the oxidation state of nitrogen is ________.
A)+1
B)-1
C)+2
D)-2
E)0
Q2) Which of the following oxides is neither acidic nor amphoteric?
A)As<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5 </sub>
B)Bi<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3 </sub>
C)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3 </sub>
D)P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>6 </sub>
E)Sb<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3 </sub>
Q3) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
A)H<sub>2</sub>O has a high boiling point because of covalent bonding.
B)Sulfur can form S<sub>8</sub> molecules.
C)Compounds with O-O bonds are reactive.
D)H<sub>2</sub>O is a bent molecule.
E)H<sub>2</sub>O is a polar molecule.

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Q1) Which of the following transition elements is unreactive towards aqueous hydrochloric acid?
A)zinc
B)titanium
C)scandium
D)iron
E)copper
Q2) Titanium tetrachloride has replaced white lead as the pigment in white paints.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A 25.0 mL aliquot of a solution containing Fe<sup>2+</sup>(aq),prepared during an assay of a pyrite ore,was titrated to a faint purple endpoint by 32.2 mL of 0.020 M KMnO<sub>4</sub>(aq).What was the molarity of the Fe<sup>2+</sup> solution? [The permanganate was reduced to Mn<sup>2+</sup>(aq).]
A)0.13 M
B)0.19 M
C)0.26 M
D)0.31 M
E)0.47 M
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Q1) Of the following complex ions,two appear violet in aqueous solution,one appears purple,one appears blue-green,and one appears yellow.Which is yellow?
A)[Cr(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3+ </sup>
B)[CrCl(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>5</sub>]<sup>2+ </sup>
C)[CrCl(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>5</sub>]<sup>2+ </sup>
D)[CrCl<sub>2</sub>(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub>]<sup>+ </sup>
E)[Cr(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3+ </sup>
Q2) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
A)A ligand that bonds to the metal ion with more than one atom is unidentate.
B)A chelate is produced by a ligand bonding to the metal ion with two or more donor atoms.
C)In coordination nomenclature,the cations are named before the anions.
D)In coordination nomenclature,the names of the ligands are followed by the name of the central metal ion.
E)Anionic ligands end in -o in coordination nomenclature.
Q3) High spin refers to the maximum number of ligands attached to the metal ion.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The charcoal from ashes found in a cave gave 7.4 <sup>14</sup>C counts per gram per minute.Wood from the outer portion of a growing tree gives a comparable count of 15.3.The half-life of <sup>14</sup>C is 5700 years.How old are the ashes?
A)5700 y
B)5437 y
C)3245 y
D)9220 y
E)5970 y
Q2) Radioactive decay series decay by alpha and positron emission.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most highly charged particle is:
A)alpha
B)beta
C)gamma
D)positron
E)neutron
Q4) Ion production is the way radiation causes the most damage.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Give the name for (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>CCHO.
A)2,2-dimethylpropanone
B)2-methylbutanol
C)1,1,1-trimethylethanol
D)2,2-dimethylpropanal
E)ethylethanol
Q2) How many different structural isomers are there of the compound dichlorobutane?
A)6
B)8
C)9
D)5
E)7
Q3) Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?
A)1-butyne
B)cycloheptene
C)3-methylheptane
D)2-heptyne
Q4) Cis-trans isomerism is a type of isomerism generally known as stereoisomerism.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Lindlar's catalyst is used when ________.
A)we want to reduce alkynes to alkanes
B)we want to speed up HX addition reactions
C)we have to promote elimination reactions over substitution reactions
D)we need to activate Pd hydrogenation catalyst
E)we want to reduce alkynes to Z alkenes
Q2) Which of the following roles can alcohols have in organic reactions?
I.electrophile
II.solvent
III.base
IV.substrate
V.acid
A)II,III and IV
B)I,II ,and III
C)I,III and V
D)II ,III and V
E)II ,IV and V
Q3) Synthesis of alkanes from alkyl halides is a typical example of E2 reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) G° = -2880 kJ/mol for the oxidation of glucose (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>).What is G° for the oxidation of 3.45 grams of glucose?
A)-342 kJ
B)-55.2 kJ
C)-0.215 kJ
D)-9.94 × 10<sup>3</sup> kJ
E)-621 kJ
Q2) In the sequence His-Tyr-Val-Pro,which amino acid contains the N-terminal group?
A)valine
B)tyrosine
C)proline
D)histidine
Q3) Which one of the following amino acids contains a hydrophobic side chain?
A)valine
B)histidine
C)glutamine
D)glutamic acid
Q4) The cell is the fundamental unit of all life.
A)True
B)False
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