

Honors Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Honors Biology is an advanced, fast-paced course designed for motivated students who seek a deeper understanding of fundamental biological concepts. This course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, with an emphasis on scientific inquiry and critical thinking. Students will engage in laboratory investigations, collaborative projects, and independent research, fostering analytical skills and a comprehensive appreciation of living systems. The curriculum is rigorous and prepares students for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is made up of almost exclusively decomposers?
A) plants
B) fungi
C) animals
D) bacteria
E) protists

Answer: B
Q2) At what level of organization does life begin?
A) digestive system
B) cell
C) molecule (water)
D) molecule (DNA)
E) population
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water surface tension is caused by ____________________ bonds.
Answer: hydrogen
Q2) A bond in which connected atoms share electrons
A)hydrogen
B)ionic
C)covalent
D)polar covalent
E)double bond

Answer: C
Q3) The radioisotope 14C can be used as a research tracer because it ____.
A) decays to 12C
B) has a different number of protons than 12C
C) has fewer neutrons than 12C
D) behaves the same chemically as 12C
E) has six carbons and six neutrons
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) main storage carbohydrate in plants
A)glycogen
B)cellulose
C)starch
D)phospholipid
E)wax
F)steroid
G)cholesterol
H)DNA
I)RNA

Answer: C
Q2) How are cellulose and starch similar and how do they differ?
Answer: Both cellulose and starch are complex carbohydrates, i.e., long chains of monomers. Both are found in plants. However, cellulose is a structural molecule that is not easily digested (hydrolyzed), while starch is an energy-storage molecule that is easily hydrolyzed.
Q3) A denatured protein has lost its _____________________.
Answer: 3D structure
three dimensional structure
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) rough ER
Q2) plasma membrane
Q3) Lysosomes are specialized ____.
A) ribosomes
B) vacuoles
C) Golgi bodies
D) vesicles
E) plastids
Q4) What is a tenet of the cell theory?
A) All organisms consist of more than one cell.
B) The cell is the smallest unit that retains the characteristics of life.
C) Each cell makes its own hereditary material.
D) Each cell is composed only of products that it manufactures.
E) Cells may arise spontaneously under certain laboratory conditions.
Q5) What microscope is best to use to view internal features of specimens?
A) basic light microscope
B) phase contrast light microscope
C) Nomarski process light microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) transmission electron microscope
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a form of active transport?
A) osmosis
B) facilitated diffusion
C) simple diffusion
D) exocytosis
E) glucose transport
Q2) What is a key characteristic of exergonic reactions?
A) They consume energy.
B) They require glucose fusion.
C) Their products have more energy than the reactants.
D) They convert some energy to less biologically useful forms.
E) They involve the formation of bonds.
Q3) fluid with the same solute concentration relative to another fluid
A)diffusion
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)isotonic
E)osmosis
F)osmotic pressure
G)turgor
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has the most energy?
A) phosphoglycerate (PGA)
B) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
C) phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
D) glucose
E) rubisco
Q2) Photosynthetic plants readily ____.
A) get carbon from their food
B) obtain energy from water
C) consume other organisms as food
D) provide food for others
E) do not need gases to make food
Q3) This process releases electrons to replace those lost from chlorophyll in noncyclic ATP formation.
A)reduction of NADP+
B)phosphorylation of ADP
C)photolysis of water
D)oxidation of chlorophyll
E)reduction of chlorophyll
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Page 8

Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The breakdown of ____ yields acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide.
A) phosphoglycerate
B) pyruvate
C) oxaloacetate
D) PGAL
E) fructose bisphosphate
Q2) In the breakdown of glucose, a phosphorylated six-carbon compound is split into two three-carbon compounds, which are named ____.
A) PGAL
B) pyruvate
C) acetyl-CoA
D) lactate
E) acetaldehyde
Q3) the Krebs cycle
A)produces NADH and CO ; pyruvate oxidized
B)produces ATP, NADH, and CO
C)splits glucose into two pyruvate molecules
D)regenerates NAD+as pyruvate is converted to ethanol or lactate
E)uses a membrane-bound system that sets up production of ATP
Q4) What is the most important product of stage 2 of aerobic respiration?
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) This nucleotide is not incorporated into the structure of the DNA helix.
A)guanine
B)cytosine
C)pyrimidine
D)thymine
E)uracil
Q2) A free nucleotide has a five carbon sugar (deoxyribose), ____________________ phosphate group(s), and one of four nitrogen-containing bases.
Q3) What is the concept illustrated by the experiment in the accompanying figure?
A) Protein is not the encoding material.
B) Protein cannot enter the host cell.
C) Protein renatures due to radiation.
D) Protein is composed of subunits with phosphate.
E) Protein is composed of subunits with sulfur.
Q4) DNA polymerases ____.
A) unwind DNA
B) add new nucleotides to a strand
C) catalyze carbon bonding
D) assemble new strands in both direction
E) repairs DNA

10
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) This codon codes for an amino acid and indicates the beginning of a coding region.
A)AUG
B)UAA
C)UUU
D)UUA
E)AAA
Q2) A base-pair substitution may alter a protein by changing an amino acid or by introducing a(n) _____________________.
Q3) Assume alternative splicing can generate all permutations and combination. How many proteins could a gene with three exons and two introns generate?
Q4) The concepts of transcription and translation have been said to form the 'central dogma' of molecular biology. Is this a fitting description?
Q5) Gene _____________________ requires the participation of RNA, tRNA, and _____________________.
Q6) What is the probability of a mutation occurring within the protein coding region of the human genome during a single cell division event?
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) homeotic genes
A)a condensed X chromosome
B)protein that combines with DNA all along its length
C)attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
D)portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
E)genes that induce expression of other genes
F)genes controlling the development of the body plan
G)the mutated form of this gene is associated with breast cancer
H)binding sites on DNA for regulatory proteins that increase transcription rates
Q2) BRCA1
A)a condensed X chromosome
B)protein that combines with DNA all along its length
C)attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
D)portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
E)genes that induce expression of other genes
F)genes controlling the development of the body plan
G)the mutated form of this gene is associated with breast cancer
H)binding sites on DNA for regulatory proteins that increase transcription rates
Q3) The __________ governs expression of three genes active in lactose metabolism.
Q4) Why is SRY considered to be a master gene?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ that facilitates cytokinesis in animal cells cannot work with plant cells because a stiff cell wall surrounds their __________.
Q2) metaphase
A)cytoplasmic division
B)final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
C)two sister chromatids are joined here
D)chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
E)chromosomes line up at spindle equator
F)sister chromatids separate and move to opposite spindle poles
G)form the mitotic spindle
H)half of a chromosome in prophase
I)in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q3) period prior to mitosis
A)G2
B)mitosis
C)S
D)G1
E)cytokinesis
Q4) How could telomerase inhibitors be used to treat cancer?
Q5) After plant mitosis, the vesicles fuse into a disk-shaped __________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anaphase
A) involves the lining up of the chromosomes across the equatorial plate.
B) is the same in mitosis and meiosis I and II.
C) is initiated when the chromosomes begin to move apart.
D) results in an unequal distribution of chromosomes to the resulting cells.
E) occurs after telophase.
Q2) Spindle microtubules attach the two chromosomes of each pair to opposite spindle poles.
A)prophase II
B)metaphase I
C)telophase II
D)meoisis II
Q3) Following this phase, each individual cell is haploid.
A)prophase I
B)metaphase II
C)anaphase I
D)anaphase II
E)telophase I
Q4) What would happen if sister chromatids did not break apart during anaphase of mitosis?
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the accompanying illustration and the assumption that half of a plant's sperm and eggs are p and half are P, one can predict that the chance of sperm p meeting egg P at fertilization is ____.
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) ½ X ¼
E) 100-%
Q2) Various forms that a single gene can take at a given locus are called A) kinetochores.
B) alleles.
C) autosomes.
D) loci.
E) chromatids.
Q3) Tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d). If a true-breeding tall plant is crossed with a true-breeding dwarf plant, give the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the F2generation.
Q4) Different molecular forms of the same gene are __________.
Q5) Consider the work Mendel did with his pea plants. Why is the study of human genetics much more difficult?
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia is caused by an X-linked recessive gene. A normal woman whose father had hemophilia marries a normal man. What are the chances of hemophilia in their children?
Q2) What is the sex chromosome composition of a person with Turner syndrome?
A) XXX
B) XO
C) XXY
D) XYY
E) YY
Q3) A prenatal diagnosis procedure that has recently come into wide use and can be performed earlier than amniocentesis involves sampling the _____.
A) yolk sac material
B) allantois
C) chorion
D) yolk sac
E) umbilical cord
Q4) Some conditions like progeria do not run in families despite being autosomal dominant. How is this possible?
Q5) The human has __________ sets of autosomal chromosomes.
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) SNP-chips are used ____.
A) to sequence DNA.
B) in DNA profiling
C) for full genome sequencing
D) in PCR
E) with short tandem repeat profiling
Q2) Gel electrophoresis separates the DNA fragments according to ____.
A) their stage in replication
B) their size
C) their ability to bind to the gel
D) the orientation of the nucleotides in the fragment
E) their type
Q3) A collection of host cells that house cloned fragments representing expressed genes is (a) ____.
A) cDNA library.
B) transcribed library.
C) genomic library.
D) RNA library.
E) plasmid library.
Q4) In DNA cloning, __________ cut DNA into pieces.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cuvier, an anatomist and paleontologist, proposed that ____.
A) all present-day organisms have descended, with adaptations, from one--or possibly a few--original organisms
B) Earth's history has been marked by several periods when destruction of populations was widespread and that, after each such period, the earth was repopulated
C) evolutionary changes in organisms are caused by use and disuse
D) although evolution is responsible for all the changes that happen to species, one center of creation resulted in the original members of each species
E) geologic processes in Earth have not changed over billions of years
Q2) The process of fossilization typically begins when an organism or traces of it ____.
A) settle on the seafloor
B) are pressurized under the weight of sediment
C) crystallize into minerals
D) are saturated with groundwater
E) become covered with sediments, mud, or ash
Q3) 19th-century naturalists tried to reconcile traditional beliefs with physical evidence of ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism is found to be almost unchanged from its 200 million year old fossil. This is an example of ____.
A) stasis
B) coevolution
C) mass extinction
D) adaptive radiation
E) idealized design
Q2) Consider the sources of variation in traits among individuals of a species. Which of these can be controlled and which cannot be controlled?
Q3) Deviations from __________ indicate that a population is evolving.
Q4) Imagine the birds that eat peppered moths went extinct. What would happen to the peppered moth population?
Q5) __________ occurs when two species act as agents of selection upon one another.
Q6) Gene flow ____.
A) has a homogenizing influence between two populations
B) speeds up the divergence of two populations
C) increases the genetic variation between populations
D) is promoted by isolating mechanisms
E) promotes inbreeding
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is the sister group to humans?
A) earthworm
B) lizard
C) tuna
D) mouse
E) duck
Q2) The homeotic gene Hoxc6 is the vertebrate version of ____, which determines the identity of the thorax in fruit flies.
A) Dlx
B) thoracia
C) RHO
D) CCR5
E) antennapedia
Q3) The most complete listing of the organisms the H5N1 strain of influenza virus can infect is ____.
A) humans
B) pigs
C) birds
D) humans and pigs
E) humans, pigs and birds
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The byproduct of the metabolism of cyanobacteria that had the most effect on the further evolution of life is ____.
A) oxygen gas
B) carbon dioxide
C) water
D) nitrogen gas
E) hydrogen gas
Q2) What is the strongest evidence for the idea that present-day eukaryotic aerobes are the descendants of the successful symbiotic association of anaerobes and aerobes?
A) Mitochondria can produce ATP.
B) A mitochondrion can survive indefinitely when removed from a eukaryotic cell.
C) A mitochondrion has its own set of DNA molecules.
D) Fossilized mitochondria are older than the oldest fossilized eukaryotes.
E) All eukaryotic cells have mitochondria.
Q3) Would the evidence suggest that mitochondria or chloroplasts were the first to evolve through endosymbiosis?
Q4) Are the three methods of producing the building blocks of life proposed in this chapter mutually exclusive?
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Page 21

Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) AIDS stands for ____.
A) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
B) Accelerated Immune Death Syndrome
C) Accentuated Induced Deficiency Syndrome
D) Advantageous Immunity Deficiency Syndrome
E) Acquired Immuno Defense Syndrome
Q2) Four of the following are viral diseases. Which one is the exception?
A) herpes
B) measles
C) bubonic plague
D) hepatitis
E) chicken pox
Q3) These produce CH .
A)halophiles
B)cyanobacteria
C)thermophiles
D)proteobacteria
E)methanogens
Q4) __________ or __________ extend from many prokaryotic cells and serve in attachment and motility.
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common amoeba, Amoeba proteus, is a member of this group.
A)apicomplexans
B)amoebozoans
C)euglenoids
D)dinoflagellates
E)trypanosomes
Q2) Four of the statements about malaria are true. Which one is FALSE?
A) It is caused by an evolving organism.
B) It is transmitted from person to person by the bite of a mosquito.
C) Its mortality rate is linked to the allele for sickle cell anemia.
D) Its greatest mortality rate is in Africa.
E) Its occurrencein the United States can be traced to ineffective mosquito spraying in the southern states.
Q3) Land plants are thought to be most closely related to the ____.
A) chlorophyte algae
B) red algae
C) charophyte algae
D) brown algae
E) euglenoids
Q4) Describe the relationship of protists to the major groups of eukaryotes.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) Conifers, cycads, ginkgos, and gnetophytes are all ______.
Q2) ginkgos
A)have rhizoids, cuticle, and protected embryo sporophyte
B)one cotyledon
C)non-seed-bearing, heart-shaped gametophytes; spore-bearing leaves with sori
D)Lycopodium; cone-bearing sporophyte; free-living gametophyte
E)only one species left
F)cypress and redwood; heterosporous; mostly evergreen
G)confined to tropics or warm, temperate zones; resemble squat cone-bearing palm trees
H)two cotyledons
I)Equisetum; homosporous; rhizomes present; aerial stems jointed; scouring rushes
J)have coevolved with pollinating vectors
Q3) Members of this group have seeds containing two cotyledons enclosed in an ovary.
A)lycophytes
B)bryophytes
C)monocots
D)conifers
E)eudicots
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ fungi include common molds.
Q2) The accompanying figure illustrates the life cycle of a(n) ____.
A) Zygomycete
B) Ascomycete
C) Basidiomycete
D) Glomeromycete
E) Lichen
Q3) The ____ are a group of parasitic fungi that are killing amphibians around the world.
A) Chytrids
B) ascomycetes
C) basidiomycetes
D) glomeromycetes
E) Zygomycetes
Q4) The club fungi are members of which of the following?
A) ascomycetes
B) basidiomycetes
C) glomeromycetes
D) chytrids
E) zygomycetes

Page 25
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) __________ is a process where a concentration of nerves and sensory structures forms in the head region.
Q2) roundworms
A)two pairs of legs per segment
B)Arachnids
C)planarians, flukes, tapeworms
D)Nematodes
E)snails, squids, clams
F)wheel animals
G)flagellated collar cells present
H)jellyfish and corals
I)crustaceans, ticks, and insects
J)polychaetes, earthworms, leeches
K)sea urchins, sea stars
Q3) Why might tardigrades make good organisms for space flight?
Q4) In __________, an anus forms first.
Q5) The animal gut cavity may be a fully lined coelom or a partially lined __________.
Q6) What evidence is there that choanoflagellates were the ancestors to animals?
Q7) Explain how insects are both essential for, and detrimental to agriculture
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) tunicates
A)cartilaginous skeleton; jaws
B)reptile with four-chambered heart
C)placental mammal
D)legless amphibian
E)invertebrate chordate; no metamorphosis
F)endotherm with feathers
G)limbless reptile
H)most primitive fishes with jaws; extinct
I)modern-day parasitic jawless vertebrate
J)marsupial
K)adult is called "sea squirt"
L)egg-laying mammal
M)swim bladder for buoyancy
N)may be sexually mature in larval form
Q2) __________, or four-legged walkers, evolved from lobe-finned bony fishes.
Q3) __________ are jawless fishes with a backbone.
Q4) Reptiles are __________ (cold-blooded animals) with scales.
Q5) Invertebrate chordates include __________ and __________, both marine filter-feeders.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Which species is considered to be the most ancient?
A) Homo erectus
B) Australopithecus afarensis
C) Australopithecus sediba
D) Homo sapiens
E) Sahelanthropus tchadensis
Q2) The Neanderthals belong to this species.
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo erectus
C)Homo sapiens
D)Homo neanderthalensis
Q3) The scientific study of prehistoric humans and their relatives is most accurately called ____.
A) paleoanthropology
B) paleobiology
C) paleontology
D) paleoecology
E) paleopsychology
Q4) Did Homo sapiens mate with Homo neanderthalensis?
Q5) What cultural trait is unique to hominins?
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The absorption of water and minerals occurs at the structure labeled __________.
Q2) tissue containing cells with pectin on their primary walls
A)parenchyma
B)collenchyma
C)sclerenchyma
D)xylem
E)phloem
Q3) Cells rich in chlorophyll and thus the main sites of photosynthesis are in layers labeled ____.
Q4) Which cells are alive at maturity?
A) sieve elements
B) vessel members
C) tracheids
D) vessel members and tracheids
E) sieve elements and vessel members
Q5) This tissue gives rise to lateral roots.
A)primary meristems
B)ground meristem
C)pericycle
D)vascular cambium
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) By the __________ theory, transpiration pulls water upward by creating a continuous negative pressure (or tension) inside xylem.
Q2) This nutrient assists in catalysis of photolysis during the light reactions of photosynthesis.
A)iron
B)boron
C)manganese
D)zinc
E)copper
Q3) Which element is considered a macronutrient needed by plants?
A) manganese
B) iron
C) copper
D) potassium
E) boron
Q4) Explain the pressure flow theory.
Q5) What are guard cells and how are they able to control the opening and closing of stomata.
Q6) Explain the cohesion-tension theory.
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) The production of female gametes begins when a mass of tissue, called the ____, starts growing on the inner wall of an ovary.
A) zygote
B) ovule
C) endosperm
D) carpel
E) stigma
Q2) What structure protects the embryonic shoot of many monocots?
A) coleoptile
B) hypocotyl
C) cotyledon
D) endosperm
E) radicle
Q3) __________ is the arrival of pollen grains on a receptive stigma.
Q4) Embryo sporophyte packaged with nutritive tissue inside a protective coat.
A)megaspore
B)microspore
C)ovule
D)ovary
E)seed

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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism that causes a vine's tendrils to grow around an object, such as a wire fenceline, is called ____.
A) thigmotropism
B) phototropism
C) gravitropism
D) vernalization
E) photoperiodism
Q2) Irises and other ____ plants flower only when the hours of darkness fall below a critical value, typically in summer.
A) short-day
B) long-day
C) annual
D) biennial
E) perennial
Q3) In some plants, the direction of growth changes in response to contact with an object. This is called __________.
Q4) What technique could a gardener use to invoke the growth of lateral buds on a plant, thereby making the plant bushier?
Q5) Explain how gibberellin "removes the brakes" from some cellular processes.
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) smooth muscle
Q2) Which tissue lines all internal surfaces and the lining of the gut?
A) epithelial
B) loose connective
C) supportive connective
D) fibrous
E) adipose
Q3) The elasticity of skin is due to the presence of this kind of tissue.
A)loose connective tissue
B)dense connective tissue
C)adipose
D)cartilage
E)blood
Q4) This substance is derived from stem cells in bone.
A)loose connective tissue
B)dense connective tissue
C)adipose
D)cartilage
E)blood
Q5) hypodermis

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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) voltage difference across a cell membrane that is not receiving stimulation
A)cells that nurture and support neurons
B)sensory neuron
C)interneuron
D)acetylcholine or GABA
E)motor neuron
F)a type of active transporter
G)sheathed muscle cells that contain receptors
H)membrane potential
I)resting membrane potential
J)modified dendrite of a sensory neuron
K)action potential
L)positive feedback
M)threshold potential
N)produced by a Schwann cell
O)cluster of cell bodies outside the CNS
Q2) decreases adrenal gland secretions
A)parasympathetic
B)sympathetic
Q3) __________ neurons detect stimulI.86.__________ relay signals between neurons.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) When the brain assigns meaning to a sensory signal, we say that _____ has taken place.
A) sensory adaptation
B) sensory perception
C) semantic perception
D) sensory action
E) sensory activation
Q2) Humans have ____.
A) more taste receptors than olfactory receptors
B) more olfactory receptors than taste receptors
C) a high degree of dependency on pheromones
D) approximately six types of olfactory receptors
E) an advanced vomeronasal organ
Q3) The somatosensory cortex _____.
A) maps the distribution of somatic receptors on the body
B) consists of gray matter
C) involves only the spinal cord
D) responds to all signals equally
E) is not responsive to mechanoreceptors
Q4) __________ sense pain.
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) ovaries
Q2) Dietary hypothyroidism has been decreased in recent years by the use of ____.
A) vitamin D
B) multivitamins
C) Penicillin
D) thyroxin injections
E) iodized salt
Q3) Why is Graves' disease dangerous?
Q4) A decrease in cortisol triggers a negative feedback loop and causes release of
A) FSH
B) cortisol
C) corticotropin releasing hormone
D) luteinizing hormone
E) TSH
Q5) Darkness increases secretion of __________ by the pineal gland in the brain.
Q6) thymus
Q7) thyroid gland
Q8) pituitary gland
Q9) All vertebrates have a(n) __________ system of secretory glands and cells. Page 36
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) Prolonged sitting decreases production of _____, which facilitates removal of harmful lipids from the blood.
A) lactase
B) ADP
C) ATP
D) lipoprotein lipase
E) phosphates
Q2) Fluid filled space in this joint provides lubrication.
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q3) A(n) __________ consists of hardened parts at the body surface.
Q4) This is a toe bone.
A) clavicle
B) lumbar vertebra
C) tibia
D) phalanges
E) metacarpal
Q5) The __________ is the pelvic girdle, pectoral girdle, and paired limbs.
Q6) __________ are cells that synthesize bone, whereas __________ break bone down.
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ are phagocytes that engulf bacteria and cellular debris.
A) Eosinophils
B) Leucocytes
C) Monocytes
D) Platelets
E) Neutrophils
Q2) The anatomical structure identified with the letter "D" in the accompanying figure is the ____.
A) myocardium
B) pulmonary veins
C) inferior vena cava
D) right atrium
E) heart apex
Q3) Blood in arteries ____.
A) travels to arterioles
B) travels away from the heart only if it is oxygenated
C) always travels toward the heart
D) travels from the lungs
E) is always oxygenated
Q4) Chart the path of blood through the heart, including the valves passed.
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) Why is the destruction of helper T cells caused by HIV infection so crippling to adaptive immunity?
Q2) Some clones of the original immune cells are __________ cells, long-lived B and T cells reserved for future encounters with the antigen.
Q3) An antigen-bearing pathogen that breaches normal flora surface barriers triggers __________ immunity.
A)antigens
B)antibodies
C)helper T cells
D)cytotoxic T cells
E)effector B cells
Q4) Contraction of the diaphragm ____.
A) diminishes the volume of the thoracic cavity
B) increases the volume of the thoracic cavity
C) pushes the rib cage downward
D) causes external intercostal muscles to relax
E) decreases lung capacity
Q5) __________ relieve allergy symptoms by dampening the effects of histamines.
Q6) __________ refers to processes designed to induce immunity.
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) diaphragm
A) flexible windpipe reinforced with cartilage
B) surrounds each lung
C) oxygen-rich form of a respiratory protein
D) contains two true vocal cords
E) with the diaphragm, alter chest cavity volume
F) part of the brainstem; controls breathing
G) throat passage behind the mouth
H) inhalation and exhalation
I) connect trachea to lungs
J) flaplike structure that points upward allowing air to enter trachea, but blocks the larynx during swallowing
K) contraction increases thoracic volume
L) microscopically small pockets lined with moist epithelium
Q2) Oxyhemoglobin contains _____.
A) oxygen bound irreversibly to a heme group
B) carbon dioxide
C) carbonic anhydrase
D) bound oxygen in the absence of a heme group
E) oxygen bound reversibly to a heme group
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Food is moved through the digestive system by ____.
A) sphincters
B) accessory organs
C) smooth muscle contractions
D) movement of villi
E) skeletal muscle contractions
Q2) Monoglycerides and fatty acids diffuse into a brush border cell, where they form triglycerides and combine with proteins to form __________.
Q3) This vitamin is a coenzyme involved in amino acid metabolism and is obtained from meats and starchy vegetables.
A)Vitamin B
B)Vitamin B
C)Niacin
D)Vitamin B
E)Vitamin B
Q4) stomach
Q5) __________, which assists in fat digestion, is made in the liver and stored in the __________.
Q6) liver
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) The region where the renal cortex is located is indicated by the letter(s) _____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) E
E) both A and B
Q2) In the above illustration of fluid regulation in a planarian, the letter "A" represents which of the following?
A) nucleus of the flame cell
B) small capillaries that allow water to freely diffuse into the planarian
C) sexual reproductive organ
D) cilia to draw fluid into the planarian
E) funnel to collect fluid
Q3) ____ and ____ that enter Bowman's capsule are reabsorbed.
A) Water; urine
B) Starches; amino acids
C) Amino acids; proteins
D) Glucose; amino acids
E) Glucose; proteins
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) prostate gland
Q2) An intrauterine device works to prevent pregnancy by _____.
A) changing the pH of the uterus so sperm cannot live
B) changing the chemistry of the uterus so sperm cannot live
C) interfering with sperm movement or implantation
D) killing sperm
E) preventing ovulation
Q3) vas deferens
Q4) This is a mitotic product that then undergoes meiosis.
A)spermatogonium
B)secondary spermatocyte
C)primary spermatocyte
D)spermatid
E)sperm
Q5) What is the last structure that a sperm travels through as it leaves the body?
A) ureter
B) urethra
C) vas deferens
D) ejaculatory duct
E) epididymis
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process that causes embryonic cells to produce signals that alter the behavior of neighboring cells is known as ____.
A) contact inhibition
B) ooplasmic localization
C) embryonic induction
D) pattern formation
E) gene splicing
Q2) This stage appears as a multicelled, fluid-filled ball.
A)zygote
B)blastula
C)cleavage
D)gastrula
E)somites
Q3) Is a mutation more likely to be lethal if it impacts early or late stages in development? Explain your answer.
Q4) During gastrulation, three tissue layers form: the outer __________, the inner __________, and the __________ in between the first two layers.
Q5) __________ regulates the maturation of the mammary glands, and then oxytocin causes __________.
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of male parental care, the prevalence in animals groups goes in this order: _____ (most prevalent to least).
A) birds - mammals - fishes
B) mammals - birds - fishes
C) mammals - fishes - birds
D) reptiles - mammals - fishes
E) mammals - fishes - birds.
Q2) With __________, an animal stops responding to an ongoing stimulus.
Q3) What is the benefit of using the Earth's magnetic field to migrate compared to the sun or stars?
Q4) Chemical signals such as __________ have roles in social communication.
Q5) With __________, an animal modifies a voluntary behavior in response to the behavior's consequences.
Q6) The adult male who jumps overboard to save a drowning niece is exhibiting
A)imprinting
B)sexual selection
C)learned behavior
D)defense behavior
E)altruism

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