Honors Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Honors Biology is an advanced, fast-paced course that explores the fundamental concepts of living systems, including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology. Emphasizing scientific inquiry and laboratory skills, the course challenges students to critically analyze biological phenomena, interpret data, and apply the scientific method. Through collaborative projects, hands-on experiments, and in-depth discussions, students develop a comprehensive understanding of the principles governing life and prepare for further study in biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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55 Chapters
2000 Verified Questions
2000 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recall the caterpillar experiment,where caterpillars born in the spring looked like flowers,and caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs.What is the most likely selective advantage for this difference in body shape?
A)Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through their environment more efficiently.
B)Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs than like flowers.
C)Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings,and thus avoids predation and increases survival rates.
D)Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillars' feeding efficiency;this would increase their growth rate and survival rate.
Answer: C
Q2) Current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among organisms _____.
A)are always based only on molecular data
B)may change,as more species are discovered and studied
C)represent a complete and unchanging data set
D)tell us nothing about the history of life on Earth
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best description of an atom's physical structure?
A)An atom is a solid mass of material.
B)The particles that form an atom are equidistant from each other.
C)Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated at the center of the bubble.
D)Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated on the outside surface of the bubble.
Answer: C
Q2) To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator,a substance has to be a liquid at the temperatures found in your car's engine and have the capacity to absorb a great deal of heat.You have a reference book with tables listing the physical properties of many liquids.In choosing a coolant for your car,which table would you check first?
A)pH
B)density at room temperature
C)heat of vaporization
D)specific heat
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the pH found in cells (about 7.0),what happens to the amino group on an amino acid?
A)It acts as a base and gains a proton,giving it a positive charge.
B)It acts as an acid and loses a proton,giving it a negative charge.
C)It is reduced,and tends to act as an electron donor in redox reactions.
D)It remains neutral,like water,and does not have a charge.
Answer: A
Q2) You determine the amino acid sequence of a protein and find it contains a long sequence of methionine,followed by a long sequence of proline,followed by a long sequence of valine.Using these data you predict the sequence of this protein's secondary structure will be _____.
A)beta sheets,then a region of no secondary structure,then beta sheets
B)alpha helices,then a region of no secondary structure,then alpha helices
C)beta sheets,then a region of no secondary structure,then alpha helices
D)alpha helices,then a region of no secondary structure,then beta sheets
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes DNA's secondary structure?
A)beta-pleated sheet
B)double parallel helical strands
C)turn-loop-turn
D)double antiparallel helical strands
Q2) Why do researchers think the first self-replicating molecule was RNA?
A)RNA is the only type of molecule that can catalyze a chemical reaction.
B)RNA has the capacity to provide a template and is known to catalyze reactions (although no existing self-replicating molecules of RNA have been discovered).
C)Self-replicating molecules of RNA exist today,in human cells.
D)Fossil evidence of such a molecule was recently discovered.
Q3) Which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in RNA and/or DNA?
A)cytosine and uracil
B)cytosine and thymine
C)cytosine,uracil,and thymine
D)cytosine,uracil,and guanine
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose (C H O )has a single carbonyl group (-C=O)in its linear form.Based on the number of oxygen atoms in glucose,how many hydroxyl groups (-OH)would you expect glucose to have?
A)6
B)5
C)3
D)1
Q2) Why do plants require sunlight?
A)Sunlight helps plants break down their food products so they can extract the energy stored in them.
B)Sunlight energy can be used by plants to reduce the carbon atoms in carbon dioxide.
C)Sunlight oxidizes carbon dioxide and water to form glucose.
D)Sunlight can be used directly by plants to perform a number of physiological processes.
Q3) Which of the following can vary among monosaccharides?
A)the number of carbon atoms
B)the presence of a carbonyl group
C)the presence of hydroxyl groups
D)all of the above
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which aspect of phospholipids is most important to the formation of bilayers?
A)They are amphipathic.
B)Their size is large,relative to cholesterol.
C)Their size is small,relative to fats.
D)Their hydrocarbon tails can consist of fatty acids or isoprene subunits.
Q2) In an experiment involving planar bilayers,a solution of table salt (sodium and chloride ions in water)is added on the left side of the membrane while pure water is added on the right side.After 30 minutes the researchers test for the presence of ions on each side of the membrane.The right side tests negative for ions.What can you conclude?
A)The experiment failed.
B)The water somehow blocked the movement of ions across the membrane.
C)The left side would probably also test negative for ions.
D)Ions cannot cross planar bilayers.
Q3) Where would you most likely find an integral membrane protein?
A)on the inside surface of the cell membrane
B)on the outside surface of the cell membrane
C)floating freely in the cytoplasm
D)spanning the cell membrane,with parts of the protein visible from both the inside and the outside of the cell
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are lysosomes considered part of the endomembrane system?
A)because they deposit end products of digestion in the endoplasmic reticulum
B)because they facilitate movement between stacks of the Golgi
C)because they are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and processed by the Golgi
D)because they are composed largely of phospholipids
Q2) Which of the following statements would be true about lysosomes that lack mannose-6-phosphate receptors?
A)They receive "modified" enzymes,so are unable to break down carbohydrates.
B)They do not receive enzyme shipments from the Golgi apparatus.
C)They have unstable membranes.
D)They stick to transport vesicles and impede the transfer of enzymes.
Q3) Why is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum unable to synthesize proteins?
A)because it has no ribosomes
B)because there is no supply of free amino acids that it can easily access
C)because it stores calcium which is a known inhibitor of protein synthesis
D)because it has no DNA to direct synthesis of proteins
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect the function of a target organ.For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone,it must _____.
A)modify its plasma membrane to alter hormone entering the cytoplasm
B)be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone
C)experiencing an imbalance that disrupts its normal function
D)have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule
Q2) What is the function of the middle lamella in plant cells?
A)It allows adjacent cells to adhere to one another.
B)It prevents dehydration of adjacent cells.
C)It maintains the plant's circulatory system.
D)It allows for gas and nutrient exchange among adjacent cells.
Q3) Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder in humans in which antibodies are produced against the cadherins of desmosomes.The blistering of the skin and mucous membranes characteristic of this disorder is probably a result of _____.
A)a decrease in flexibility of the cell membrane
B)an inadequate number of G-protein receptors
C)inadequate production of cytoskeletal proteins
D)a loss in cell-cell adhesion
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about cellular metabolism is false?
A)Glycolysis is inhibited when cellular energy levels are abundant.
B)Krebs cycle activity is dependent solely on availability of substrate;otherwise it is unregulated.
C)In the electron transport chain,electrons decrease in energy level as they are transferred from one electron carrier to the next.
D)Reactions of the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrial matrix.
Q2) Canine phosphofructokinase (PFK)deficiency afflicts springer spaniels,affecting an estimated 10% of the breed.PFK is the glycolytic enzyme that phosphorylates fructose-1-phosphate and catalyzes the committed step in glycolysis.Given its critical role in glycolysis,one implication of the genetic defect resulting in PFK deficiency in dogs is _____.
A)early embryonic mortality
B)elevated blood-glucose levels in the dog's blood
C)an intolerance for exercise
D)a reduced life span
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electrons of photosystem II are excited and transferred to electron carriers.From which molecule or structure do the photosystem II replacement electrons come?
A)the electron carrier,plastocyanin
B)photosystem I
C)water
D)oxygen
Q2) CAM plants function using crassulacean acid metabolism.Like C plants,CAM plants provide a preparatory step for the Calvin cycle.CAM plants are found in hot,dry environments;to prevent desiccation,they keep their stomata closed during the day.They take in carbon dioxide at night while stomata are open.To increase the concentration of carbon dioxide available to the enzyme rubisco and minimize the degree of photorespiration,the CAM plants carboxylate _____.
A)phosphoenolpyruvate
B)oxaloacetate
C)organic acids
D)ribose
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens when MPF (mitosis-promoting factor)is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are arrested in G ?
A)Nothing happens.
B)The cells undergo meiosis.
C)The cells enter mitosis.
D)Cell differentiation is triggered.
Q2) Mitosis is the process of chromosome separation.Cytoplasm is divided between the two daughter cells in a process known as _____.
A)cloning
B)cytokinesis
C)binary fission
D)G phase
Q3) The microtubule-organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle.Specifically,it is known as which of the following?
A)microtubulin
B)centrosome
C)centromere
D)kinetochore
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of reproduction is associated with using the most necessary resources (e.g. ,the most nutrients or most energy)?
A)binary fission
B)asexual reproduction
C)budding
D)sexual reproduction
Q2) Adaptation to a changing environment occurs most efficiently through which of the following processes?
A)mutation
B)asexual reproduction and genetic recombination
C)sexual reproduction
Q3) Which of the following processes contributes directly to genetic variation?
A)binary fission
B)mitosis
C)meiosis
D)DNA replication
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) In humans,blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait.A woman with blue eyes and normal color vision whose father was color blind marries a man who also has normal color vision.He has brown eyes,but his mother had blue eyes.Which of the following do you expect to be true for their sons?
A)One-half of their sons will have normal color vision and brown eyes;1/2 of their sons will have normal color vision and blue eyes.
B)Their sons will all have normal color vision and brown eyes.
C)One-fourth of their sons will be color blind and have blue eyes,1/4 of their sons will be color blind and have brown eyes,1/4 of their sons will have normal color vision and blue eyes,1/4 of their sons will have normal color vision and brown eyes.
D)Their sons will all have normal color vision and blue eyes.
E)One-half of their sons will be color blind and have blue eyes;1/2 their sons will be color blind and have brown eyes.
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hershey and Chase set out to determine what molecule served as the unit of inheritance.They completed a series of transduction experiments in which E.coli was infected by a T2 virus.Which molecular component of the T2 virus actually ended up inside the cell?
A)protein
B)RNA
C)ribosome
D)DNA
Q2) Watson and Crick elucidated the structure of DNA in 1953.Their research built on and helped explain the findings of other scientists before them,including _____.
A)X-ray diffraction studies by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.
B)Replication studies by Meselson and Stahl.
C)Okazaki's work on lagging-strand DNA fragments.
D)All of the above were important considerations in the elucidation of the structure of DNA.
Q3) Telomere shortening is a problem in which types of cells?
A)prokaryotes
B)eukaryotes
C)both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
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Page 16
Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contradicts the "one-gene,one-enzyme hypothesis"?
A)A mutation in a single gene can result in a defective protein.
B)Alkaptonuria results when individuals lack a single enzyme involved in the catalysis of homogentisic acid.
C)Sickle-cell anemia results in defective hemoglobin.
D)A single antibody gene can code for different related proteins,depending on the splicing that takes place post-transcriptionally.
Q2) Which of the following is directly related to a single amino acid?
A)the base sequence of the tRNA
B)the amino acetyl tRNA synthase
C)the three-base sequence of mRNA
D)the complementarity of DNA and RNA
Q3) Codons,the three base sequences that code for specific amino acids,are part of
A)protein
B)mRNA
C)tRNA
D)rRNA
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Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not occur in post-transcriptional modifications occurring in eukaryotic mRNAs?
A)addition of a poly (A)tail
B)addition of a methyl-guanosine cap
C)removal of introns
D)RNA polymerase termination
Q2) Refer to Figure 16.4.During elongation,which site in the ribosome represents the location where a codon is being read?
A)E site
B)P site
C)A site
D)small subunit
Q3) How does termination of translation take place?
A)The end of the mRNA molecule is reached.
B)A stop codon is reached.
C)The 5' cap is reached.
D)The poly A tail is reached.
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18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Full induction of the lac operon occurs when _____.
A)lactose levels are low and glucose levels are low
B)lactose levels are low and glucose levels are high
C)lactose levels are high and glucose levels are low
D)lactose levels are high and glucose levels are high
Q2) Imagine that you've set up a genetic screen to identify E.coli mutants that cannot metabolize the amino acid tryptophan.Beginning with a master plate containing many colonies,you prepare replica plates on medium with glucose or tryptophan as the only energy source.You would look for colonies that _____.
A)cannot grow on either type of media
B)can grow on both types of media
C)can grow only on the plates with tryptophan
D)can grow only on the plates with glucose
Q3) Which of the following is associated with negative control of the lac operon?
A)glucose
B)repressor
C)CAP
D)adenylyl cyclase
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) If cells of an individual contain the same set of genes,how do these cells become different from each other during development?
A)Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are created during development.
B)Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are selectively lost during development.
C)Differences in extracellular signals received by each cell lead to differences in the types of regulatory proteins present in each cell.
D)Differences develop in promoter sequences that lead to different signals being produced by each type of cell.
Q2) If a pharmaceutical company wishes to make a protein-based drug from yeast with a particular carbohydrate tag to ensure correct tissue delivery,which stage of gene expression would be altered to change the tag on the protein?
A)transcription
B)translation
C)post-translation
D)alternative splicing
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gene therapy requires _____.
A)knowledge and availability of the wild-type allele of the defective gene
B)an ability to introduce the wild-type allele into the patient
C)an ability to express the introduced gene at the correct level,time,and site within the patient
D)the knowledge and availability of the wild-type allele of the defective gene and the ability to introduce the allele into the patient
E)knowledge and availability of the wild-type allele of the defective gene;an ability to introduce the wild-type allele into the patient;and an ability to express the introduced gene at the correct level,time,and site within the patient
Q2) One predicted aspect of climate change is that climates,including precipitation and temperature,over most of the Earth will become more variable.Which of the following is a good crop genetic engineering strategy if this is true?
A)only plant crops that are genetically engineered
B)genetically engineer most crops to withstand very long droughts
C)genetically engineer several genotypes within single crop types
D)genetically engineer the fastest growing crops possible
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientist needs to find a collaborating scientist to help her with organizing a large amount of sequence data from the genome of a previously unsequenced and rare plant.This scientist should find a collaborator who specializes in _____, A)proteomics
B)functional genomics
C)evolutionary genomics
D)bioinformatics
Q2) Imagine that your goal is to isolate mouse mutants that stabilize microsatellite repeat sequences (i.e. ,lower the frequency at which their repeat number changes).Which of the following mutations would you predict to have this stabilizing effect?
A)a mutation that reduces the rate of transcription
B)a mutation that reduces the rate of translation
C)a mutation that increases the rate of DNA synthesis
D)a mutation that reduces the occurrence of homologous recombination
E)a mutation that inactivates reverse transcriptase and/or integrase
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) All of the following characteristics are shared between plant and animal development except:
A)Gene expression in developing embryonic tissues is closely regulated.
B)Orientation of cells and tissues is critical for proper development.
C)Differentiation of cells is directed and maintained by cascades of signals.
D)Cell types,once determined,generally cannot change their differentiated characteristics.
Q2) Suppose the protein specified by bicoid was injected into Drosophila embryos,so that a high concentration was present everywhere in the embryo.What might be the result of such an experiment?
A)The embryos would grow larger than normal.
B)The embryos would show no development of posterior regions.
C)The embryos would show no development of anterior regions.
D)The embryos would halt their development.
Q3) When is a cell considered differentiated?
A)when a cell first becomes irreversibly committed to a particular fate
B)when a cell begins its pattern formation
C)when a cell manufactures proteins that are specific to a particular cell type
D)when a cell is part of recognizable tissues or organs
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Page 23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) During organogenesis,the first organ system to begin forming in animal embryos is the _____ system.
A)digestive
B)nervous
C)endocrine
D)circulatory
E)excretory
Q2) In many animal embryos,the eye develops very early.The Pax6 protein is important to eye development;its absence can prevent the formation of eyes in mice and humans.Thus,Pax6 probably acts as a(n)_____.
A)structural protein retinal and/or lens cells
B)intercellular signal transmitted between retinal and lens cells
C)transcriptional factor that regulates genes involving retinal and/or lens cells
D)extracellular matrix protein secreted by the retinal and/or lens cells
Q3) What happens during gastrulation?
A)The neural tube forms.
B)The blastula forms.
C)The somites form.
D)The three embryonic tissue germ layers form.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Plant and animal development share a number of features,but differ in major ways as well.Which of the following best summarizes the differences between the two forms of development?
A)Animal tissues are irreversibly differentiated;plant tissues retain plasticity throughout life.
B)Animal cells frequently undergo programmed cell death;plant cells do not.
C)Animal development is controlled by regulatory gene sets such as Hox genes;plants have no similar control systems.
D)Animal gametes are produced only after maturity is reached;plant gametes can be produced throughout a plant's lifetime.
Q2) Plant embryos cannot undergo gastrulation.What ensures the correct positioning of cells during plant embryogenesis?
A)cell movements inside the seed coat
B)genetic differences among the cells
C)cytoplasmic determinants in the cells
D)different cell sizes and planes of mitosis
E)expansion of the cotyledons
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Claytonia virginica is a woodland spring herb with flowers that vary from white to pale pink to bright pink.Slugs prefer to eat pink-flowering over white-flowering plants (due to chemical differences between the two),and plants experiencing severe herbivory were more likely to die.The bees that pollinate this plant also prefer pink to white flowers,so that Claytonia with pink flowers have greater relative fruit set than Claytonia with white flowers.A researcher observes that the percentage of different flower colors remains stable in the study population from year to year.Given no other information,if the researcher removes all slugs from the study population,what do you expect to happen to the distribution of flower colors in the population over time?
A)The percentage of pink flowers should increase over time.
B)The percentage of white flowers should increase over time.
C)The distribution of flower colors should not change.
D)The distribution of flower colors should randomly fluctuate over time.
Q2) Explain how one of the following supports the idea that species change through time:
artificial selection,extinction,transitional forms,vestigial traits,antibiotic resistance.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Genetic drift occurs in a population.Which of the following statements might be true?
A)Genetic drift increased the population's fitness.
B)Genetic drift decreased the population's fitness.
C)The population was relatively small.
D)The population experiences a decrease in genetic variation.
E)Any of the above statements might be true.
Q2) Currently the only predators of Galápagos marine iguanas are Galápagos hawks.Iguana body size is not correlated with risk of hawk predation,although small iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas.If predators (e.g. ,cats)that preferably catch and eat slower iguanas are introduced to the island,iguana body size is likely to _____ in the absence of other factors;the iguanas would then be under _____ selection.
A)increase;directional
B)increase;disruptive
C)decrease;directional
D)decrease;disruptive
E)stay the same;stabilizing
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Refer to the paragraph about the formation of the Isthmus of Panama.If the isthmus formed gradually rather than suddenly,what pattern of genetic divergence would you expect to find in these species pairs?
A)similar percentages of difference in DNA sequence between all pairs of sister species
B)greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit deep water than between species that inhabit shallow water
C)greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit shallow water than between species that inhabit deep water
Q2) Which of the following statements about human races is correct?
A)Africans are genetically much closer to Asians than to Caucasians.
B)Humans are one of only a few mammal species with clearly defined genetic races.
C)Very little genetic divergence occurs among different human populations.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above is correct.
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following are typically responsible for island extinctions?
A)habitat destruction
B)overharvesting and introduction of nonnative predators and herbivores
C)earthquakes followed by tsunamis
D)increased CO levels and global warming
Q2) Why would gene duplication events,such as those seen in the Hox gene complex,set the stage for adaptive radiation?
A)There are more copies of genes,meaning speciation had occurred by polyploidy.
B)The original gene copy is the outgroup,and the new gene copies are the adaptive radiation.
C)Without duplicated genes,species would be vulnerable to extinction.
D)One copy of a gene can perform the original function while other copies are available to take on new functions.
Q3) Which of the following key adaptations is found in many animals from the Burgess Shale fauna but not found in the Doushantuo and Ediacaran faunas?
A)mouthparts
B)segmentation
C)burrow formation
D)multicellularity
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following extremophiles might researchers most likely use as a model for the earliest organisms on Earth?
A)a bacterium capable of living at extremely high salinity
B)a bacterium found on another planet or moon
C)an archaean capable of surviving in the polar ice caps
D)an anaerobic archaean species
E)a bacterium that thrives in a highly acidic environment
Q2) Some researchers have begun attempting to clean up oil spills by adding nonindigenous microbial hydrocarbon degraders to the spill,in the hopes that these bacteria will neutralize the dangerous chemicals in the spill.This is an example of _____.
A)bioremediation via fertilization
B)seeding
C)production of a new antibiotic
D)use of extremophiles for cleanup of organic solvents
Q3) What is the characteristic feature of the Chlamydiales phylum?
A)unusual flagella
B)formation of colonies
C)rod shape
D)parasitic life cycle
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human _____.
A)the Plasmodium gametes fuse,forming an oocyst
B)the Plasmodium cells infect the human liver cells
C)the Plasmodium cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells
D)the Plasmodium oocyst undergoes meiosis
Q2) Which of the following protist lineages is appropriately paired with its supportive and/or protective structure?
A)Diatoms have an intricate,chalky,chambered calcium carbonate shell.
B)Parabasalids have an internal support rod,made of cross-linked microtubules,that runs the length of the cell.
C)Alveolates have tough plates in the cell wall that are made up of cellulose.
D)Euglenoids cover themselves with tiny pebbles.
E)Dinoflagellates are surrounded by a glass-like,silicone dioxide cell wall.
Q3) Which of the following characteristics is true of all protists?
A)contain a nucleus
B)smaller than animal cells
C)unicellular
D)have a cell wall
E)photosynthetic
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct element of alternation of generations?
A)The sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes.
B)The sporophyte is diploid and produces spores.
C)The gametophyte is haploid and produces spores.
D)The gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes.
E)Two spores unite to form a zygote.
Q2) Immature seed cones of conifers are usually green before pollination,and flowers of grasses are inconspicuously colored.What does this indicate about their pollination?
A)They self-fertilize and do not need pollen carried from one plant to another.
B)Their pollinating insects are color blind.
C)They are wind pollinated.
D)They probably attract pollinators using strong fragrances.
Q3) How are the bryophytes and seedless vascular plants alike?
A)Plants in both groups have vascular tissue.
B)In both groups,sperm swim from antheridia to archegonia.
C)The dominant generation in both groups is the sporophyte.
D)Plants in both groups have true roots,stems,and leaves.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Many amphibian populations have been decimated by a parasitic fungi belonging to which lineage?
A)Chytridiomycota
B)Ascomycota
C)Basidiomycota
D)Zygomycota
E)Glomeromycota
Q2) Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil?
A)Hyphae are 100 to 1000 times larger than plant roots.
B)Hyphae have a smaller surface-area-to-volume ratio than do the hairs on a plant root.
C)Mycelia are able to grow in the direction of food.
D)Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules.
Q3) Which of these fungal features supports the phylogenetic conclusion that fungi are more closely related to animals than plants?
A)Fungi are able to change their body shape continuously throughout their life.
B)Zygomycetes have flagellated gametes.
C)Fungi store polysaccharides as starch.
D)The cell walls of fungi are made of chitin.
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins.In fact,it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the planet.What feature of this group most likely evolved simultaneously with the development of these toxins?
A)the medusa body form
B)asexual reproduction
C)a slow-moving or sessile lifestyle in the adult
D)diploblastic design
E)bilateral symmetry in the mobile larval forms
Q2) What do all sponges have in common?
A)They all have three germ layers.
B)All adults are free swimming.
C)They always reproduce sexually.
D)They all practice external fertilization.
E)They all live on the bottom in an aquatic environment.
Q3) The digestive system of most animals is lined with cells through which nutrients are absorbed.What is the embryonic origin of these cells?
A)endoderm
B)ectoderm
C)mesoderm
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following organisms would you expect to have the largest surface-area-to-volume ratio?
A)a rotifer
B)a mollusk
C)an annelid
D)an arthropod
E)a platyhelminth
Q2) Among protostomes,which morphological trait has shown the most variation?
A)type of symmetry (bilateral vs.radial vs.none)
B)type of body cavity (coelom vs.pseudocoelom vs.acoelom)
C)number of embryonic tissue types (diploblasty vs.triploblasty)
D)direction of gastrulation (protostome vs.deuterostome)
Q3) A cephalopod's tentacles are modified from its _____.
A)mantle
B)visceral mass
C)foot
D)shell
E)radula
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) How does a swim bladder help the ray-finned fishes maintain buoyancy?
A)It removes water from the digestive tract.
B)It removes oxygen from the water and stores it.
C)Gas is added to the bladder as the fish's depth increases.
D)Gas is removed from the bladder as the fish's depth increases.
E)It adds and removes salt from the water stored in the bladder,which changes its density and thus its buoyancy.
Q2) Which of the following adult animals might you find floating in the open ocean,suspension feeding using its pharyngeal gill slits?
A)a lancelet
B)a salp
C)an ascidian
D)a sea squirt
E)a vertebrate
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following could use reverse transcriptase to transcribe its genome?
A)ssRNA
B)dsRNA
C)ssDNA
D)dsDNA
Q2) What is the main structural difference between enveloped and nonenveloped viruses?
A)Enveloped viruses have their genetic material enclosed by a protein or phospholipid coat.
B)Nonenveloped viruses have only a phospholipid membrane,while enveloped viruses have two membranes,the other one being a protein capsid.
C)Enveloped viruses have a phospholipid membrane outside their capsid,whereas nonenveloped viruses do not.
D)Both viruses have a capsid and phospholipid membrane;but in the nonenveloped virus the genetic material is between these two membranes,while in the enveloped virus the genetic material is inside both membranes.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Why are definite and distinct root and shoot systems uncommon in aquatic algae,but present in most land plants?
A)The earliest plants had a sprawling growth form.
B)Aquatic algae cannot grow more than a couple of centimeters in height.
C)Land plants need to be anchored to the ground,whereas aquatic algae do not.
D)Land plants cannot exchange gases with their environment as easily as aquatic algae.
E)Aquatic algae obtain most inputs for photosynthesis directly from the water that surrounds them.
Q2) Where are the youngest wood and the youngest bark in a tree trunk?
A)Youngest wood is in the center of a tree;youngest bark is the outside of the bark.
B)Youngest wood is in the center of a tree;youngest bark is the inner part,next to the vascular cambium.
C)Youngest wood is toward the outside,near the vascular cambium;youngest bark is the outside of the bark.
D)Youngest wood is toward the outside,near the vascular cambium;youngest bark is the inner part,next to the vascular cambium.
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is not a net sink for products of photosynthesis in a deciduous angiosperm tree?
A)leaves in early spring
B)flowers in summer
C)fruits in summer
D)roots in early spring
E)roots in early autumn
Q2) As an undergraduate research assistant in the lab of the famous Dr.S.Nameerf,your duties involve measuring water potential in experimental soil-plant-atmosphere systems.Assume you make a series of measurements in a system under normal daylight conditions,with stomata open and photosynthesis occurring.Which of the following correctly depicts the trend your measurement data should follow if the cohesion-tension mechanism is operating?
A) soil < roots = leaves < atmosphere
B) atmosphere < leaves = roots < soil
C) soil < roots < leaves < atmosphere
D) atmosphere < leaves < roots < soil
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The micronutrient iron is abundant in soil,but often unavailable to plants due to insolubility.Knowing that the reaction Fe(OH) + 3 H Fe³ + 3 H O occurs,and assuming all soil samples have same total amount of iron in them,which type of soil would you predict to have the highest amount of soluble iron?
A)neutral
B)acidic
C)alkaline
D)The amount of iron in soil does not depend on pH.
Q2) You want to grow a plant that prefers neutral pH in a limestone soil.What should you add to the soil to improve plant growth?
A)sulfur (S + H O + 3/2 O 2 H + SO ² )
B)calcium carbonate (CaCO + H O HCO + Ca² + OH )
C)aluminum hydroxide [Al(OH) + 2 H+ Al(OH)² + 2 H O]
D)potassium nitrate (KNO K + NO )
Q3) What type of soil contains the highest amount of oxygen?
A)clay
B)sand
C)gravel
D)silt
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do abscisic acid and gibberellins have in common?
A)They work together to induce germination by triggering the metabolism of endosperm nutrients.
B)They both induce the formation of transcription factors that bind to the -amylase promoter.
C)They are both released from roots to signal drought to the leaves and stimulate the opening of stomata.
D)They bind to the same cell-surface receptor on cells of the aleurone layer in seeds.
Q2) Suppose you laid a seedling on its side so that the root was parallel to the ground.Immediately after the change in position,where in the root cells (position A,B,or C in Figure 39.2)would you find the amyloplasts? The answer should be one of the positions shown in Figure 39.2.
A)A
B)B
C)C
Q3) Refer to Table 39.1.Plant C is a long-day plant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the male gametophyte made of?
A)generative cell and polar nuclei
B)polar nuclei and tube cell
C)generative cell and two gametes
D)generative cell and tube cell
E)microspores
Q2) You find a fruit that has little hooks around the outside of the pericarp.You can assume that _____ is/are the pollinator.
A)wind
B)birds
C)mammals
D)cannot answer based on the information given
Q3) How are the life cycles of liverworts and angiosperms alike?
A)In both groups,the sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B)In both groups,the gametophyte is the dominant generation.
C)In both groups,the gametophyte is smaller than the sporophyte.
D)In both groups,the sporophyte is smaller than the gametophyte.
E)In both groups,the sporophyte produces spores.
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42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight,and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures.When they move into the shade and rest,which animal will cool down faster?
A)The elephant will because it has the higher surface area/volume ratio.
B)The elephant will because it has the lower surface area/volume ratio.
C)The mouse will because it has the higher surface area/volume ratio.
D)They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount.
Q2) Which one of the following is not a good strategy for increasing the surface area of an object relative to the volume?
A)increase the amount of branching
B)increase the amount of folding
C)enlarge and make more spherical
D)make flatter
E)None of these are good strategies.
Q3) Blood is a type of connective tissue because _____.
A)blood has multiple cell types
B)blood has a liquid extracellular matrix
C)blood functions in transportation
D)blood can be both liquid and solid
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following most accurately describes selective permeability?
A)Molecules below a certain molecular weight cross the membrane easily.
B)Lipid-soluble molecules pass through the membrane.
C)There must be a concentration gradient for molecules to pass through the membrane.
D)Only certain molecules can cross the cell membrane.
Q2) How does ion composition of pre-urine differ from hemolymph?
A)Pre-urine is significantly higher in osmolarity (especially with respect to Na and K ).
B)Hemolymph is higher in osmolarity,conserving its Cl .
C)Pre-urine is similar to hemolymph in ion composition.
D)The protein pumps and channels of the Malpighian tubules concentrate Cl in the pre-urine.
Q3) The force driving simple diffusion is _____ while the energy source for active transport is _____.
A)the concentration gradient;ADP
B)the concentration gradient;ATP
C)transmembrane pumps;electron transport
D)phosphorylated protein carriers;ATP
Q4) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a large meal the production of _____ will increase.After fasting the production of _____ will increase.
A)trypsin;trypsinogen
B)glucagon;glucose
C)glucagon;pepsinogen
D)insulin;glucagon
Q2) Glucose is transported from the intestinal lumen into epithelial cells through _____ and from the intestinal epithelium into circulation by _____.
A)facilitated diffusion;primary active transport
B)cotransport with sodium;cotransport with sodium
C)cotransport with sodium;facilitated diffusion
D)active transport;active transport
Q3) Which of the following molecules are absorbed from the lumen of the small intestine into epithelial cells through simple diffusion?
A)monosaccharides
B)disaccharides and trisaccharides
C)lipids
D)amino acids
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms are used to regulate blood pressure in the closed circulatory system of vertebrates?
A)changing the force of heart contraction
B)constricting and relaxing sphincters in the walls of arterioles
C)adjusting the volume of blood contained in the veins
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following conditions would be the most likely result of an abnormally high blood pressure in an animal like a reptile possessing a closed circulatory system?
A)hemorrhage in the capillary beds
B)hemorrhage in the aorta
C)reversal of normal blood flow direction in the veins
D)all of the above
Q3) The oxygen content of water increases linearly with increase in oxygen partial pressure while the oxygen content of blood increases in a sigmoidal (S-shaped)fashion.Why?
A)Carbonic anhydrase contributes to CO release in blood,but not water.
B)The Bohr shift is stronger in water than in blood.
C)Hemoglobin shows cooperative oxygen binding.
D)All of the above answers apply.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh)and acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in the synapse.If a neurophysiologist applies onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced by the mollusk Onchidella binneyi)to a synapse,what would you expect to happen?
A)paralysis of muscle tissue
B)gradual loss of resting potential
C)convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation
D)decrease in the frequency of action potentials
E)no effect
Q2) Patients with dysautonomia (autonomic nervous system disorders)will show symptoms in all of the following except _____.
A)airway diameter
B)contraction of skeletal muscles
C)heart rate
D)pupil dilation and constriction
E)stomach activity
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) Refer to the paragraph on the venom of marine core snails.What is the adaptive value of this toxin?
A)It would cause muscle spasms in the prey.
B)It would result in paralysis of the skeletal muscle of the prey.
C)It would stimulate digestive tract smooth muscle to cause nausea and vomiting of the prey.
D)Either it would result in paralysis of the skeletal muscle or it would stimulate digestive tract smooth muscle to cause nausea and vomiting;or it would result in both paralysis of the skeletal muscle and stimulation of the digestive tract smooth muscles to cause nausea and vomiting.
Q2) A person able to hear only high-frequency sounds would probably have which of the following structural problems in the ear?
A)The tympanum is damaged because of chronic ear infections.
B)The basilar membrane is stiffened along its entire length.
C)The ear ossicles are abnormally thickened.
D)All of the above problems could result in inability to detect low-frequency sound.
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Signal transduction occurs when a chemical message at the cell surface elicits a response inside the cell.Which one of the following events is not associated with signal transduction?
A)protein phosphorylation
B)cell-surface receptor binding
C)internal receptor binding
D)second messenger activation
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the hypothalamus (H)and the anterior (AP)and posterior (PP)lobes of the pituitary?
A)The H is the neural system that releases hormones directly into the AP and communicates with the PP only through the circulation.
B)The AP regulates the H through negative feedback mechanisms while the PP regulates the H through positive feedback.
C)The H communicates directly with the PP and indirectly with the AP through the circulatory system.
D)The H regulates secretions from the PP,which then regulates all secretions from the AP.
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) By what mechanism does a second male mating with a female gain an advantage in sperm competition in some insects?
A)The second male's semen has chemicals that kill the first male's sperm.
B)The accessory fluids from the second male's semen can displace stored sperm from competing males.
C)The second male will have larger testes and so produce larger numbers of sperm.
D)The second male is larger than the first male.
Q2) Which of the following is a challenge to the hypothesis that bats produce an unusually large number of sperm in order to increase the probability of conception when females engage in multiple matings?
A)Female bats can eject the sperm of certain males after mating.
B)A female can actively choose which male mates with her last,thus increasing the odds of conception with that male's sperm.
C)Both of the above are true.
D)Neither of the above are true.
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) If you were developing artificial B-cell receptors (BCRs)based on the natural version and wanted to change the BCRs' ability to bind certain antigens,which region of the natural receptor would you alter?
A)transmembrane domain
B)amino terminus of light and heavy chains
C)carboxy terminus of light and heavy chains
D)the region projecting into the cytoplasm of the cell
Q2) Which of the following is the best definition of autoimmune disease?
A)a condition in which B cells and T cells respond independently to antigens and do not interact correctly
B)a condition in which the adaptive immune system fails to recognize the second infection by the same antigen
C)a condition in which the self molecules are treated as non-self
D)a condition in which the immune system creates random antibodies without being triggered by an antigen
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) A fish swimming into an estuary from a river would have which of the following as its greatest physiological challenge?
A)The high water flow would make the fish expend more energy.
B)The low oxygen content would give the fish difficulty in swimming aerobically.
C)The temperature change would stress the fish by denaturing its proteins.
D)The change in water solute content would challenge the osmotic balance of the fish.
E)The flux of nutrients washing into the estuary would give the fish difficulty in swimming aerobically.
Q2) Which is a likely biotic factor limiting songbird distribution in Hawaii to alpine habitats?
A)temperature
B)oxygen content
C)moisture
D)insects causing fatal diseases in songbirds at lower altitudes
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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) In the last phase of migration,birds seem to be using _____ to determine their final destination.
A)landmarks
B)the magnetic field of the Earth
C)olfactory cues
D)the arc of the Sun
E)temperature cues
Q2) You have captured a number of rats from a wild population and quickly surmise with tests that they are very good at avoiding food with poisons.What would best explain this observation?
A)Rats are probably just intelligent enough to avoid poison.
B)Rats may experience a large variety of toxins in their environment and learn to avoid them.
C)Rats may learn this behavior from their parents or siblings.
D)Rats may be able to tolerate large amounts of poison.
Q3) In Figure 51.2,do the data support the hypothesis that females need spring-like light conditions to produce mature follicles?
A)yes
B)no
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) Assuming that these populations are density dependent,what is the likely outcome if the system depicted in Figure 52.3 were allowed to continue?
A)Population growth would continue to be discontinuous.
B)Individual growth would continue to be indeterminate.
C)Population growth would likely decrease.
D)Populations would go extinct.
Q2) Figure 52.9 shows the age structure of Common Primrose populations as they change over time.One of the populations is growing under high light conditions and the other under low light.Based on the graphs in Figure 52.9,which graph,(a)or (b),represents a population growing in high light availability?
A)(a)
B)(b)
C)cannot tell with this information
Q3) In Figure 52.4,which of the arrows represents the most rapid population growth?
A)arrow A
B)arrow B
C)arrow C
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54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Figure 53.3,which species is the stronger competitor?
A)species 1
B)species 2
C)Both species compete equally.
D)It is not possible to tell from this figure.
Q2) What is the main advantage of controlled burnings of forested areas?
A)Controlled burnings make up for years of preventing fires.
B)Controlled burnings clear forested areas for farmland.
C)Controlled burnings prevent the overgrowth of the underbrush.
D)Controlled burnings allow new species to form.
Q3) In Figure 53.5,which individuals are displaying Batesian mimicry?
A)the Paper Wasp,Bumblebee,and Honeybee
B)the Hornet Moth,Wasp Beetle,and Hoverfly
C)All of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry.
D)None of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry.
Q4) Which of the following statements regarding Figure 53.11 is true?
A)Immigration rates are higher on smaller islands.
B)Extinction rates are highest on large islands close to the mainland.
C)Species richness should be higher on larger islands close to mainland.
D)Species diversity should be highest on larger islands away from mainland.
Page 55
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a source of human-fixed nitrogen?
A)industrially produced fertilizers
B)cultivation of soybeans
C)combustion of fossil fuels
D)irrigation agriculture
Q2) Considering the global carbon cycle,where are humans having a large impact?
A)terrestrial ecosystems
B)oceans
C)atmosphere
D)beneath the surface of the Earth
E)in both terrestrial ecosystems and the atmosphere
Q3) Why is energy lost when herbivores eat primary producers?
A)Primary producers have energy stored in indigestible substances.
B)Primary producers cannot produce once eaten.
C)Digestion takes place so rapidly that very little energy is absorbed.
D)Most primary producers contain no usable energy for herbivores.
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28455
Sample Questions
Q1) You discover,in your massive 2000-hectare forest,a species of bat that is not found anywhere else.Which of the following agencies would not be involved in helping you formulate a plan to conserve this species?
A)U)S.Forest Service
B)U)S.Department of the Interior
C)U)S.Department of Commerce
D)The Nature Conservancy
E)Conservation International
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding species diversity is false?
A)More than 99 percent of the species known to science are now extinct.
B)As much as 20 percent of the world's biodiversity will be lost during the next 50 years.
C)Through agriculture,humans have actually increased the number of plant species.
D)About 85 mammal species and 113 species of birds have become extinct in the last 400 years.
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