Honors Biology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Honors Biology is an advanced introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts of life science with an emphasis on critical thinking, scientific inquiry, and laboratory skills. Students investigate the structure and function of living systems, including cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, while engaging in hands-on experiments and projects. Designed for motivated students, the course challenges learners to analyze current biological issues and research, fostering a deeper understanding of how biology connects to everyday life and global challenges.
Recommended Textbook Biology 8th Edition by Neil A. Campbell
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56 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Life is diverse. How many species are estimated to be presently on the earth?
A)1,800
B)180,000
C)1,800,000
D)18,000,000
E)180,000,000
Answer: C
Q2) Through time, the lineage that led to modern whales shows a change from four-limbed land animals to aquatic animals with two limbs that function as flippers. This change is best explained by A)natural philosophy.
B)creationism.
C)the hierarchy of the biological organization of life.
D)natural selection.
E)feedback inhibition.
Answer: D
Q3) A theory in science is equivalent in scope to a well-structured hypothesis. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Three or four of the following statements are True and correct. Which one, if any, is False? If all the statements are True, choose answer E.
A)Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen make up approximately 96% of living matter.
B)The trace element iodine is required only in very small quantities by vertebrates.
C)Virtually all organisms require the same elements in the same quantities.
D)Iron is an example of an element needed by all organisms.
E)All of the other statements are True and correct.
Answer: C
Q2) Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 3?
Answer: B
Q3) The ionic bond of sodium chloride is formed when
A)chlorine gains an electron from sodium.
B)sodium and chlorine share an electron pair.
C)sodium and chlorine both lose electrons from their outer valence shells.
D)sodium gains an electron from chlorine.
E)chlorine gains a proton from sodium.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Water and the Fitness of the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the
A)small size of the water molecules.
B)high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
C)absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.
D)fact that water is a poor heat conductor.
E)inability of water to dissipate heat into dry air.
Answer: C
Q2) Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule is most likely
A)positively charged.
B)negatively charged.
C)without charge.
D)hydrophobic.
E)nonpolar.
Answer: A
Q3) Draw three water molecules and label the atoms. Draw solid lines to indicate covalent bonds and dotted lines for hydrogen bonds. Add partial charge labels as appropriate.
Answer: 11ea4e3a_1ad5_a4ff_9ed3_91b8bd4142d5_TB2680_00
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) One of the following people was the first to suggest that organic compounds, those found in living organisms, were distinctly different from inorganic compounds found in the nonliving world. Though this suggestion is now known to be incorrect, it stimulated important research into organic compounds. Who suggested this?
A)Stanley Miller
B)Jakob Berzelius
C)Friedrich Wohler
D)Hermann Kolbe
E)August Kekulé
Q2) What is the name of the functional group shown in Figure 4.4?
A)carbonyl
B)ketone
C)aldehyde
D)carboxyl
E)hydroxyl
Q3) Which is a carbonyl functional group?
Q4) Which is a carboxyl functional group?
Q5) Which molecule is water soluble because it has a hydroxyl functional group?
Q6) Which molecule is an alcohol?
6
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) The hydrogenation of vegetable oil results in which of the following?
A)saturated fats and unsaturated fats with trans double bonds
B)an increased contribution to artherosclerosis
C)the oil (fat)being a solid at room temperature
D)A and C only
E)A, B, and C
Q2) A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from a rat, and 5 differences from a frog. These data suggest that the new organism
A)is more closely related to humans than to frogs.
B)is more closely related to frogs than to humans.
C)may have evolved from gibbons but not rats.
D)is more closely related to humans than to rats.
E)may have evolved from rats but not from humans and gibbons.
Q3) Which bond is closest to the carboxyl end of the molecule?
Q4) At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its component amino acid?
Q5) Which bond is a peptide bond?
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following makes it necessary for animal cells, although they have no cell walls, to have intercellular junctions?
A)Cell membranes do not distinguish the types of ions and molecules passing through them.
B)Large molecules, especially proteins, do not readily get through one, much less two adjacent cell membranes.
C)Cell-to-cell communication requires physical attachment of one cell to another.
D)Maintenance of connective tissue shape requires cells to adhere to one another.
E)The relative shapelessness of animal cells requires a mechanism for keeping the cells aligned.
Q2) Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes?
A)lysosome
B)vacuole
C)mitochondrion
D)Golgi apparatus
E)peroxisome
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) In what way do the membranes of a eukaryotic cell vary?
A)Phospholipids are found only in certain membranes.
B)Certain proteins are unique to each membrane.
C)Only certain membranes of the cell are selectively permeable.
D)Only certain membranes are constructed from amphipathic molecules.
E)Some membranes have hydrophobic surfaces exposed to the cytoplasm, while others have hydrophilic surfaces facing the cytoplasm.
Q2) The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals
A)enables the membrane to stay fluid more easily when cell temperature drops.
B)enables the animal to remove hydrogen atoms from saturated phospholipids.
C)enables the animal to add hydrogen atoms to unsaturated phospholipids.
D)makes the membrane less flexible, allowing it to sustain greater pressure from within the cell.
E)makes the animal more susceptible to circulatory disorders.
Q3) The movement of potassium into an animal cell requires
A)low cellular concentrations of sodium.
B)high cellular concentrations of potassium.
C)an energy source such as ATP or a proton gradient.
D)a cotransport protein.
E)a gradient of protons across the plasma membrane.
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the change in free energy of a system at chemical equilibrium?
A)slightly increasing
B)greatly increasing
C)slightly decreasing
D)greatly decreasing
E)no net change
Q2) Which of the following shows the correct changes in thermodynamic properties for a chemical reaction in which amino acids are linked to form a protein?
A)+ H, + S, + G
B)+ H, - S, - G
C)+ H, - S, + G
D)- H, - S, + G
E)- H, + S, + G
Q3) Which of the following is (are)True for anabolic pathways?
A)They do not depend on enzymes.
B)They are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions.
C)They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.
D)They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical
Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase?
A)It both splits molecules and assembles molecules.
B)It attaches and detaches phosphate groups.
C)It uses glucose and generates pyruvate.
D)It shifts molecules from cytosol to mitochondrion.
E)It uses stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP.
Q2) How many molecules of carbon dioxide (CO )would be produced by five turns of the citric acid cycle?
A)2
B)5
C)10
D)12
E)60
Q3) Which of the following describes ubiquinone?
A)a protein in the electron transport chain
B)a small hydrophobic coenzyme
C)a substrate for synthesis of FADH
D)a vitamin needed for efficient glycolysis
E)an essential amino acid
Q4) In which step is an inorganic phosphate added to the reactant?
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) In mechanism, photophosphorylation is most similar to
A)substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis.
B)oxidative phosphorylation in cellular respiration.
C)the Calvin cycle.
D)carbon fixation.
E)reduction of NADP .
Q2) In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?
A)thylakoid membrane
B)plasma membrane
C)inner mitochondrial membrane
D)A and C
E)A, B, and C
Q3) Which of the following statements is True concerning Figure 10.3?
A)It represents cell processes involved in C photosynthesis.
B)It represents the type of cell structures found in CAM plants.
C)It represents an adaptation that maximizes photorespiration.
D)It represents a C photosynthetic system.
E)It represents a relationship between plant cells that photosynthesize and those that cannot.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) In general, a signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins
A)brings a conformational change to each protein.
B)requires binding of a hormone to a cytosol receptor.
C)cannot occur in yeasts because they lack protein phosphatases.
D)requires phosphorylase activity.
E)allows target cells to change their shape and therefore their activity.
Q2) Phosphorylation cascades involving a series of protein kinases are useful for cellular signal transduction because
A)they are species specific.
B)they always lead to the same cellular response.
C)they amplify the original signal manyfold.
D)they counter the harmful effects of phosphatases.
E)the number of molecules used is small and fixed.
Q3) The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases is characterized by A)dimerization and phosphorylation.
B)IP binding.
C)a phosphorylation cascade.
D)GTP hydrolysis.
E)channel protein shape change.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) In the figure above, mitosis is represented by which number?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
Q2) The centromere is a region in which
A)chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.
B)metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the metaphase plate.
C)chromosomes are grouped during telophase.
D)the nucleus is located prior to mitosis.
E)new spindle microtubules form at either end.
Q3) This is the shortest part of the cell cycle:
A)G
B)G
C)S
D)G
E)M
Q4) one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis
Q5) at prometaphase of mitosis
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) Which of the life cycles is typical for most fungi and some protists?
A)I only
B)II only
C)III only
D)I and II
E)I and III
Q2) How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?
A)By allowing independent assortment of chromosomes
B)By allowing fertilization
C)By increasing gene stability
D)By conserving chromosomal gene order
E)By decreasing mutation frequency
Q3) Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.
A)The statement is True for mitosis only.
B)The statement is True for meiosis I only.
C)The statement is True for meiosis II only.
D)The statement is True for mitosis and meiosis I.
E)The statement is True for mitosis and meiosis II.
Q4) How can you tell this cell is undergoing meiosis, not mitosis?
Q5) Identify the stage of meiosis shown.
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?
A)1
B)1 and 2
C)1, 2, and 3
D)2 and 3
E)2, 3, and 4
Q2) In a cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype
AABBCC?
A)1/4
B)1/8
C)1/16
D)1/32
E)1/64
Q3) Which describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A)Incomplete dominance
B)Multiple alleles
C)Pleiotropy
D)Epistasis
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogenesis, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis?
A)All the gametes will be diploid.
B)Half of the gametes will be n + 1, and half will be n - 1.
C)1/4 of the gametes will be n + 1, one will be n - 1, and two will be n.
D)There will be three extra gametes.
E)Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.
Q2) What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?
A)They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B)The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C)Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D)Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E)Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.
Q3) A cell that has 2n + 1 chromosomes is A)trisomic.
B)monosomic.
C)euploid.
D)polyploid.
E)triploid.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) A space probe returns with a culture of a microorganism found on a distant planet. Analysis shows that it is a carbon-based life-form that has DNA. You grow the cells in ¹ N medium for several generations and then transfer them to ¹ N medium. Which pattern in Figure 16.1 would you expect if the DNA was replicated in a conservative manner?
Q2) For a couple of decades, biologists knew the nucleus contained DNA and proteins. The prevailing opinion was that the genetic material was proteins, and not DNA. The reason for this belief was that proteins are more complex than DNA. What was the basis of this thinking?
A)Proteins have a greater variety of three-dimensional forms than does DNA.
B)Proteins have two different levels of structural organization; DNA has four.
C)Proteins are made of 40 amino acids and DNA is made of four nucleotides.
D)Some viruses only transmit proteins.
E)A and B are correct.
Q3) A typical bacterial chromosome has ~4.6 million nucleotides. This supports approximately how many genes?
A)4.6 million
B)4.4 thousand
C)45 thousand
D)about 400
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?
A)a base-pair substitution
B)a deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene
C)a single nucleotide deletion in the middle of an intron
D)a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence
E)a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence
Q2) Choose the answer that has these events of protein synthesis in the proper sequence. 1. An aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the A site.
2) A peptide bond forms between the new amino acid and a polypeptide chain.
3) tRNA leaves the P site, and the P site remains vacant.
4) A small ribosomal subunit binds with mRNA.
5) tRNA translocates to the P site.
A)1, 3, 2, 4, 5
B)4, 1, 2, 5, 3
C)5, 4, 3, 2, 1
D)4, 1, 3, 2, 5
E)2, 4, 5, 1, 3
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in
A)continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
B)complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
C)irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator.
D)inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site.
E)continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure.
Q2) These genes are expressed by the mother, and their products are deposited into the developing egg:
A)homeotic genes
B)segmentation genes
C)egg-polarity genes
D)morphogens
E)inducers
Q3) Gap genes and pair-rule genes fall into this category:
A)inducers
B)segmentation genes
C)egg-polarity genes
D)morphogens
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following molecules make up the viral envelope?
A)glycoproteins
B)proteosugars
C)carbopeptides
D)peptidocarbs
E)carboproteins
Q2) What is the name given to viruses that are single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis?
A)retroviruses
B)proviruses
C)viroids
D)bacteriophages
E)lytic phages
Q3) Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation?
A)RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides.
B)Replication of their genomes does not involve the proofreading steps of DNA replication.
C)RNA viruses replicate faster.
D)RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases.
E)RNA viruses are more sensitive to mutagens.
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Chapter 20: Biotechnology
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Q1) RFLP analysis can be used to distinguish between alleles based on differences in which of the following?
A)restriction enzyme recognition sites between the alleles
B)the amount of DNA amplified from the alleles during PCR
C)the ability of the alleles to be replicated in bacterial cells
D)the proteins expressed from the alleles
E)the ability of nucleic acid probes to hybridize to the alleles
Q2) Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?
A)the nutrient broth only
B)the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth
C)the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth
D)the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth
E)all four broths
Q3) Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?
A)Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product.
B)Most cells with engineered genes overwhelm other cells in a tissue.
C)Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate.
D)Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.
E)mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) What is it that can be duplicated in a genome?
A)DNA sequences above a minimum size only
B)DNA sequences below a minimal size only
C)entire chromosomes only
D)entire sets of chromosomes only
E)sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes
Q2) Which of the following most correctly describes a shotgun technique for sequencing a genome?
A)genetic mapping followed immediately by sequencing
B)physical mapping followed immediately by sequencing
C)cloning large genome fragments into very large vectors such as YACs, followed by sequencing
D)cloning several sizes of fragments into various size vectors, ordering the clones, and then sequencing them
E)cloning the whole genome directly, from one end to the other
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23
Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Which of the following statements is an inference of natural selection?
A)Subsequent generations of a population should have greater proportions of individuals that possess traits better suited for success in unchanging environments.
B)An individual organism undergoes evolution over the course of its lifetime.
C)Habitats do not generally have unlimited resources.
D)Natural populations tend to reproduce to their full biological potential.
E)Some of the variation that exists among individuals in a population is genetic.
Q2) If 3TC resistance is costly for HIV, then which plot (I-IV)best represents the response of a strain of 3TC-resistant HIV over time, if 3TC administration begins at the time indicated by the arrow?
Q3) Which stratum should contain the greatest proportion of extinct organisms?
Q4) If "x" indicates the location of fossils of two closely related species, then fossils of their most-recent common ancestor are most likely to occur in which stratum?
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) Which describes brightly colored peacocks mating more frequently than drab peacocks?
A)artificial selection
B)directional selection
C)stabilizing selection
D)disruptive selection
E)sexual selection
Q2) Which is a True statement concerning genetic variation?
A)It is created by the direct action of natural selection.
B)It arises in response to changes in the environment.
C)It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.
D)It tends to be reduced by the processes involved when diploid organisms produce gametes.
E)A population that has a higher average heterozygosity has less genetic variation than one with a larger average heterozygosity.
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25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Males of one species are too small to perform amplexus (an action that stimulates ovulation)with females of all other species.
A)behavioral
B)gametic
C)habitat
D)temporal
E)mechanical
Q2) The origin of a new plant species by hybridization, coupled with accidents during nuclear division, is an example of
A)allopatric speciation.
B)sympatric speciation.
C)autopolyploidy.
D)habitat selection.
Q3) A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is
A)the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.
B)asexually reproducing populations.
C)geographic isolation.
D)artificial selection.
E)large populations.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) If two continental land masses converge and are united, then the collision should cause
A)a net loss of intertidal zone and coastal habitat.
B)the extinction of any species adapted to intertidal and coastal habitats.
C)an overall decrease in the surface area located in the continental interior.
D)a decrease in climatic extremes in the interior of the new super-continent.
E)the maintenance of the previously existing ocean currents and wind patterns.
Q2) The observation that tusks were limited to males in several species, and were apparently not used in food-gathering, is evidence that the tusks probably
A)were used by males during the sex act.
B)served as heat-dissipation structures.
C)are homologous to claws.
D)were insignificant to the survival and/or reproduction of dicynodonts.
E)were maintained as the result of sexual selection.
Q3) Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?
A)6,000 years
B)3,500,000 years
C)6,000,000 years
D)3,500,000,000 years
E)5,000,000,000,000 years
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Which species are extinct?
A)A and E
B)A and B
C)C and D
D)D and E
E)cannot be determined from the information provided
Q2) The legless condition that is observed in several groups of extant reptiles is the result of
A)their common ancestor having been legless.
B)a shared adaptation to an arboreal (living in trees)lifestyle.
C)several instances of the legless condition arising independently of each other.
D)individual lizards adapting to a fossorial (living in burrows)lifestyle during their lifetimes.
Q3) Regarding these sequence homology data, the principle of maximum parsimony would be applicable in
A)distinguishing introns from exons.
B)determining degree of sequence homology.
C)selecting appropriate genes for comparison among species.
D)inferring evolutionary relatedness from the number of sequence differences.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) an organism that relies on photons to excite electrons within its membranes
A)1 only
B)3 only
C)1 and 3
D)2 and 4
E)1, 3, and 4
Q2) Penicillin is an antibiotic that inhibits enzymes from catalyzing the synthesis of peptidoglycan, so which prokaryotes should be most vulnerable to inhibition by penicillin?
A)mycoplasmas
B)gram-positive bacteria
C)archaea
D)gram-negative bacteria
E)endospore-bearing bacteria
Q3) The typical prokaryotic flagellum features
A)an internal 9 + 2 pattern of microtubules.
B)an external covering provided by the plasma membrane.
C)a complex "motor" embedded in the cell wall and plasma membrane.
D)a basal body that is similar in structure to the cell's centrioles.
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Thread-like pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally characteristic of which group?
A)radiolarians and forams
B)gymnamoebas
C)entamoebas
D)amoeboid stage of cellular slime molds
E)oomycetes
Q2) A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of water would be expected to lack which of the following?
A)thalli
B)bladders
C)blades
D)holdfasts
E)gel-forming polysaccharides
Q3) Test tube 3 contains
A)Paramecium
B)Navicula (diatom)
C)Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate)
D)Entamoeba
E)Plasmodium
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) If you are looking for structures that transfer water and nutrients from a bryophyte gametophyte to a bryophyte sporophyte, then on which part of the sporophyte should you focus your attention?
A)spores
B)seta
C)foot
D)sporangium
E)peristome
Q2) Bryophytes may feature all of the following at some time during their existence except
A)microphylls.
B)rhizoids.
C)archegonia.
D)sporangia.
E)placental transfer cells.
Q3) protection from desiccation
A)tracheids and phloem
B)secondary compounds
C)cuticle
D)alternation of generations
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fruit is covered with spines or hooks.
A)animal skin, fur, or feathers
B)animal digestive tract
C)water currents
D)gravity and terrain
E)air currents
Q2) How many chromosomes should be in a generative cell nucleus?
A)4
B)8
C)16
D)24
E)32
Q3) pollen tube
A)male gametophyte
B)female gametophyte
C)male sporophyte
D)female sporophyte
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Zygosporangia are to zygomycetes as basidia are to A)basal fungi.
B)chytrids.
C)sac fungi.
D)basidiospores.
E)club fungi.
Q2) Both fungus-derived antibiotics and hallucinogens used by humans probably evolved in fungi as a means to A)reduce competition for nutrients.
B)help humanity survive.
C)promote their ingestion of foodstuffs.
D)eliminate other fungi.
E)discourage animal predators.
Q3) This phylum formerly included the members of the new phylum Glomeromycota:
A)Zygomycota
B)Ascomycota
C)Basidiomycota
D)Glomeromycota
E)Chytridiomycota
Q4) Which location is nearest to basidiocarps?
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animal Diversity
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Q1) Which distinction is given more emphasis by the morphological phylogeny than by the molecular phylogeny?
A)metazoan and eumetazoan
B)radial and bilateral
C)True coelom and pseudocoelom
D)protostome and deuterostome
E)molting and lack of molting
Q2) At which developmental stage should one be able to first distinguish a diploblastic embryo from a triploblastic embryo?
A)fertilization
B)cleavage
C)gastrulation
D)coelom formation
E)metamorphosis
Q3) Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of A)mass extinction.
B)evolutionary stasis.
C)adaptive radiation.
D)A and B only
E)A, B, and C
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Chapter 33: Invertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following combinations of phylum and description is incorrect?
A)Echinodermata bilateral symmetry as a larva, coelom present
B)Nematoda roundworms, pseudocoelomate
C)Cnidaria radial symmetry, polyp and medusa body forms
D)Platyhelminthes flatworms, gastrovascular cavity, acoelomate
E)Calcarea gastrovascular cavity, coelom present
Q2) If a lung were to be found in a mollusc, where would it be located?
A)mantle cavity
B)coelom
C)foot
D)visceral mass
E)excurrent siphon
Q3) Which of the following statements about tapeworm feeding methods is correct?
A)They have complete digestive tracts.
B)They use degenerate mouths to ingest some of their food.
C)As adults, they live and feed in the host's bloodstream.
D)They are autotrophic.
E)They absorb nutrients across their body walls.
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Chapter 34: Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following statements would be least acceptable to most zoologists?
A)The extant cephalochordates (lancelets)are contemporaries, not ancestors, of vertebrates.
B)The first fossils resembling cephalochordates appeared in the fossil record around 550 million years ago.
C)Recent work in molecular systematics supports the hypothesis that cephalochordates are the most recent common ancestor of all vertebrates.
D)The extant cephalochordates are the immediate ancestors of the fishes.
E)Cephalochordates display the same method of swimming as do fishes.
Q2) Which of these hominin traits seems to have occurred before the others?
A)tool use
B)increased brain size
C)symbolic thought
D)language
E)bipedalism
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) A student examining leaf cross sections under a microscope finds many loosely packed cells with relatively thin cell walls. The cells have numerous chloroplasts. What type of cells are these?
A)parenchyma
B)xylem
C)endodermis
D)collenchyma
E)sclerenchyma
Q2) Which structure is incorrectly paired with its tissue system?
A)root hair-dermal tissue
B)palisade parenchyma-ground tissue
C)guard cell-dermal tissue
D)companion cell-ground tissue
E)tracheid-vascular tissue
Q3) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its structure and function?
A)sclerenchyma-supporting cells with thick secondary walls
B)periderm-protective coat of woody stems and roots
C)pericycle-waterproof ring of cells surrounding the central stele in roots
D)mesophyll-parenchyma cells functioning in photosynthesis in leaves
E)ground meristem-primary meristem that produces the ground tissue system
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Chapter 36: Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) In which plant cell or tissue would the pressure component of water potential most often be negative?
A)leaf mesophyll cell
B)stem xylem
C)stem phloem
D)root cortex cell
E)root epidermis
Q2) Which one of the following statements about transport of nutrients in phloem is False?
A)Solute particles can be actively transported into phloem at the source.
B)Companion cells control the rate and direction of movement of phloem sap.
C)Differences in osmotic concentration at the source and sink cause a hydrostatic pressure gradient to be formed.
D)A sink is that part of the plant where a particular solute is consumed or stored.
E)A sink may be located anywhere in the plant.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) In the 1640s Jan Baptista van Helmont planted a small willow in a pot that contained 90.9 kg of soil. After five years, the plant weighed 76.8 kg, but only 0.06 kg of soil had disappeared from the pot. What did van Helmont conclude from this experiment?
A)80-90% of the tree's mass is the result of C3 photosynthesis.
B)The increase in the mass of the tree was from the water that he added over the five years.
C)Most of the increase in the mass of the tree was due to the uptake of CO2.
D)Soil simply provides physical support for the tree without providing any nutrients.
E)The 0.06 kg of soil was mainly nitrogen.
Q2) Based on the information provided above, what is the most likely cause of the decline in productivity?
A)The farmer used the wrong kind of fertilizer.
B)The cotton is developing a resistance to the fertilizer and to irrigation water.
C)Water has accumulated in the soil due to irrigation.
D)The soil water potential has become more negative due to salination.
E)The rate of photosynthesis has declined due to irrigation.
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cell(s)guide(s)the pollen tube to the egg cell?
Q2) In some angiosperms, other floral parts contribute to what is commonly called the fruit. Which of the following fruits is derived mostly from an enlarged receptacle?
A)pea
B)raspberry
C)apple
D)pineapple
E)peach
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is False?
A)The sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B)Female gametophytes develop from megaspores within the anthers.
C)Pollination is the placing of pollen on the stigma of a carpel.
D)The food-storing endosperm is derived from the cell that contains two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus.
E)Flowers produce fruits within the ovules.
Q4) Draw and label the parts of a flower.
Q5) Which cell(s)become(s)the triploid endosperm?
Q6) Which cell(s), after fertilization, give(s)rise to the embryo plant?
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Q1) Why might animal hormones function differently from plant hormones?
A)Animals move rapidly away from negative stimuli, and most plants don't.
B)Plant cells have a cell wall that blocks passage of many hormones.
C)Plants must have more precise timing of their reproductive activities.
D)Plants are much more variable in their morphology and development than animals.
E)Both A and D are correct.
Q2) Plants growing in a partially dark environment will grow toward light in a response called phototropism. Choose the incorrect statement regarding phototropism.
A)It is caused by a chemical signal.
B)One chemical involved is auxin.
C)Auxin causes a growth increase on one side of the stem.
D)Auxin causes a decrease in growth on the side of the stem exposed to light.
E)Removing the apical meristem prevents phototropism.
Q3) Roots exhibit negative geotropism whereas stems exhibit positive geotropism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Deer mice in warm climates and penguins in cold climates differ in their energy budgets in that
A)deer mice use a greater proportion of their metabolic energy to maintain body temperature.
B)deer mice use a greater proportion of their metabolic energy to move around.
C)penguins can hibernate, but deer mice cannot.
D)deer mice use a greater proportion of their metabolic energy on activity and movement.
E)penguins use a greater proportion of their metabolic energy for lactation than do deer mice.
Q2) Multicellular organisms must keep their cells awash in an "internal pond" because A)feedback signals cannot cross through the interstitial fluid.
B)cells need an aqueous medium for the exchange of nutrients, gases, and wastes.
C)this prevents the movement of water due to osmosis.
D)cells need to be protected from nitrogen gas in the atmosphere.
E)terrestrial organisms have not adapted to life in dry environments.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Physical anthropologists locating the jaw bones of previously unknown vertebrate animal fossils are often able to assess the animal's diet especially because of clues from which of the following?
A)the position of muscle attachment sites
B)the prevalence of specific kinds of teeth
C)the size of the mouth opening
D)the evidence of food molecules still present
E)whether the mouth is the most anterior structure
Q2) Which of the following animals is incorrectly paired with its feeding mechanism?
A)lion-substrate feeder
B)baleen whale-suspension feeder
C)aphid-fluid feeder
D)clam-suspension feeder
E)snake-bulk feeder
Q3) Where does the complete digestion of carbohydrates occur?
A)3 only
B)4 only
C)1 and 4
D)3 and 4
E)1, 3, and 4
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the velocity of blood flow the lowest in capillaries?
A)The capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells.
B)Capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases.
C)The diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate.
D)The systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle.
E)The total surface area of the capillaries is larger than the total surface area of the arterioles.
Q2) Which of the following is a function of plasma proteins in humans?
A)maintenance of blood osmotic pressure
B)transport of water-soluble lipids
C)gas exchange
D)aerobic metabolism
E)oxygen transport
Q3) Draw a pair of simple diagrams comparing the essential features of single and double circulation.
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Q1) In which of the cases would the precaution likely be taken to give the mother anti-Rh antibodies before delivering her baby?
A)Case 1 only
B)Case 3 only
C)Cases 1 and 2 only
D)Cases 1, 2, and 3
E)It cannot be determined from the data given.
Q2) Some pathogens can undergo rapid changes resulting in antigenic variation. Which of the following is such a pathogen?
A)the influenza virus, which expresses alternative envelope proteins
B)the strep bacteria, which can be communicated from patient to patient with high efficiency
C)human papilloma virus, that can remain latent for several years
D)the causative agent of an autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis
E)multiple sclerosis, that attacks the myelinated cells of the nervous system
Q3) Consider a pencil-shaped protein with two epitopes, Y (the "eraser" end)and Z (the "point" end). They are recognized by antibodies A1 and A2, respectively. Draw and label a picture showing the antibodies linking proteins into a complex that could trigger endocytosis by a macrophage.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most concentrated urine is excreted by A)frogs.
B)kangaroo rats.
C)humans.
D)desert tortoises.
E)birds.
Q2) Which structure increases the reabsorption of Na+ when stimulated by aldosterone?
A)loop of Henle
B)collecting duct
C)Bowman's capsule
D)proximal tubule
E)distal tubules
Q3) Natural selection should favor the highest proportion of juxtamedullary nephrons in which of the following species?
A)a river otter
B)a mouse species living in a tropical rain forest
C)a mouse species living in a temperate broadleaf forest
D)a mouse species living in the desert
E)a beaver
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) Iodine is added to commercially-prepared table salt to help prevent deficiencies of this essential mineral. Which gland(s)require(s)iodine to function properly?
A)parathyroids
B)adrenal
C)thyroid
D)pancreas
E)ovaries and testes
Q2) Which of the following examples is incorrectly paired with its class?
A)cytokines-local regulator
B)estrogen-steroid hormone
C)prostaglandin-peptide hormone
D)ecdysone-steroid hormone
E)neurotransmitter-local regulator
Q3) Which of the following glands shows both endocrine and exocrine activity?
A)pituitary
B)parathyroid
C)salivary
D)pancreas
E)adrenal
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) The breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues that occurs if no egg is fertilized is called
A)menstruation.
B)lactation.
C)fertilization.
D)menopause.
E)ovulation.
Q2) All individuals of a particular species of whiptail lizards are females. Their reproductive efforts depend on
A)fertilization of their eggs by males of other lizard species.
B)gonadal structures that only undergo mitosis.
C)meiosis followed by a doubling of the chromosomes in eggs.
D)budding prior to the development of a sexual phenotype.
E)fragmentation via autolysis.
Q3) When female fruit flies mate with two different males on the same day,
A)the first male's sperm fertilizes all of the eggs.
B)the first male's sperm fertilizes most of the eggs.
C)the second male's sperm fertilizes most of the eggs.
D)the first and second males fertilize equal numbers of eggs.
E)none of the eggs become fertilized.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) In a frog embryo, the blastocoel is
A)completely obliterated by yolk.
B)lined with endoderm during gastrulation.
C)located in the animal hemisphere.
D)the cavity that becomes the coelom.
E)the cavity that later forms the archenteron.
Q2) The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is
A)endoderm ectoderm mesoderm.
B)mesoderm endoderm ectoderm.
C)ectoderm mesoderm endoderm.
D)ectoderm endoderm mesoderm.
E)endoderm mesoderm ectoderm.
Q3) In frogs, formation of the eye lens is induced by chemical signals from A)cells that will become the neural plate.
B)cells that are forming the inner ear.
C)an outgrowth of the developing brain.
D)both A and B
E)both A and C
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Q1) Why are action potentials usually conducted in only one direction along an axon?
A)The nodes of Ranvier can conduct potentials in only one direction.
B)The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
C)The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon.
D)Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction.
E)Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction.
Q2) Neurotransmitters affect postsynaptic cells by
A)initiating signal transduction pathways in the cells.
B)causing molecular changes in the cells.
C)affecting ion-channel proteins.
D)altering the permeability of the cells.
E)Choices A, B, C, and D are all correct.
Q3) The neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label
Q4) Temporal summation always involves
A)both inhibitory and excitatory inputs.
B)synapses at more than one site.
C)inputs that are not simultaneous.
D)electrical synapses.
E)myelinated axons.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Wakefulness is regulated by the reticular formation, which is present in the A)basal nuclei.
B)cerebral cortex.
C)brainstem.
D)limbic system.
E)spinal cord.
Q2) Integration of simple responses to certain stimuli, such as the patellar reflex, is accomplished by which of the following?
A)spinal cord
B)hypothalamus
C)corpus callosum
D)cerebellum
E)medulla
Q3) Our understanding of mental illness has been most advanced by discoveries involving
A)degree of convolutions in the brain's surface.
B)evolution of the telencephalon.
C)sequence of developmental specialization.
D)chemicals involved in brain communications.
E)nature of the blood-brain barrier.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) What is a muscle spindle?
A)an actin-myosin complex
B)a troponin-tropomyosin complex
C)axons wound around muscle fibers
D)groups of dendrite-encircled muscle fibers
E)muscle cells that make up muscle groups
Q2) Muscle cells are stimulated by neurotransmitters released from the synaptic terminal of
A)T tubules.
B)motor neuron axons.
C)sensory neuron axons.
D) motor neuron dendrites.
E)sensory neuron dendrites.
Q3) The structure pictured in Figure 50.3 can be found in which types of muscles?
A)skeletal
B)cardiac
C)smooth
D)A and B only
E)A, B, and C
Q4) Which section consists of both actin and myosin filaments?
52
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Q1) During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The instructor asked why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations?
A)The first explanation is correct, but the second is incorrect.
B)The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers to ultimate causation.
C)The first explanation is biological, whereas the second is philosophical.
D)The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the second is not.
E)Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion.
Q2) Animal communication involves what type of sensory information?
A)visual
B)auditory
C)chemical
D)A and C only
E)A, B, and C
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Landscape ecology is best described as the study of
A)the flow of energy and materials between the biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem.
B)how the structure and function of species enable them to meet the challenges of their environment.
C)what factors affect the structure and size of a population over time.
D)the interactions between the different species that inhabit and ecosystem.
E)the factors controlling the exchanges of energy, materials, and organisms among ecosystem patches.
Q2) You are planning a dive in a lake, and are eager to observe not many underwater organisms but be able to observe them both close up and far away. You would do well to choose
A)an oligotrophic lake.
B)an eutrophic lake.
C)a relatively shallow lake.
D)a nutrient-rich lake.
E)a lake with consistently warm temperatures.
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54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, in which population is unemployment likely to be a societal issue in the future?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)No differences in the magnitude of future unemployment would be expected among these populations.
E)It is not possible to infer anything about future social conditions from age-structure diagrams.
Q2) In models of sigmoidal (logistic)population growth,
A)population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K.
B)new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the population's growth.
C)only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth.
D)only density-independent factors affect the rate of population growth.
E)carrying capacity is never reached.
Q3) Which curve best describes survivorship in songbirds?
Q4) Which curve best describes survivorship in humans who live in developed nations?
Q5) Which curve best describes survivorship that is independent of age?
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) Which island would likely have the lowest extinction rate?
Q2) Community 1 contains 100 individuals distributed among four species (A, B, C, and D). Community 2 contains 100 individuals distributed among three species (A, B, and C).
Community 1: 5A, 5B, 85C, 5D
Community 2: 30A, 40B, 30C
Calculate the Shannon diversity (H)for each community. Which community is more diverse?
Q3) Ecologists are particularly concerned about pathogens because A)human activities are transporting pathogens around the world at alarming rates.
B)pathogens are evolving faster than ever before.
C)host organisms are not coming up with defenses against pathogens.
D)new technologies have allowed microbiologists to classify more new pathogens.
E)pathogens that infect organisms at the community level will eventually infect human beings.
Q4) Which island would likely have the lowest immigration rate?
Q5) Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity?
Q6) Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity?
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity per square meter?
A)savanna
B)open ocean
C)boreal forest
D)tropical rain forest
E)temperate forest
Q2) What would be a likely entry for box A?
A)increased temperature
B)elimination of zooplankton
C)increased sunlight
D)fertilizers washed into the lake
E)increased ultraviolet radiation
Q3) Burning fossil fuels releases oxides of sulfur and nitrogen. Ultimately, these are probably responsible for
A)the death of fish in Norwegian lakes.
B)rain with a pH as low as 3.0.
C)calcium deficiency in soils.
D)direct damage to plants by leaching nutrients from the leaves.
E)A, B, C, and D are all correct.
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30861
Sample Questions
Q1) Brown-headed cowbird populations require forested habitat where they can
A)parasitize the nests of other forest-adapted host birds.
B)burrow for insect larvae under the bark of trees.
C)nest in cavities in old growth timber.
D)avoid competition with other open area cowbird species.
E)feed on upper canopy-adapted insect species.
Q2) Of the following, which ecosystem types are the ones that have been impacted by humans the most?
A)wetland and riparian
B)open and benthic ocean
C)desert and high alpine
D)taiga and second growth forests
E)tundra and arctic
Q3) Which of the following terms includes all of the others?
A)species diversity
B)biodiversity
C)genetic diversity
D)ecosystem diversity
E)species richness
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