Honors Biology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Honors Biology is an advanced, fast-paced course designed for highly motivated students with a strong interest in the life sciences. The curriculum covers fundamental biological concepts including cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Students engage in inquiry-based laboratory investigations, critical analysis of scientific literature, and collaborative projects that foster deeper understanding and application of biological principles. Emphasis is placed on scientific reasoning, experimental design, and effective communication of biological phenomena, preparing students for further studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Biology 1st Edition by Robert Brooker
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47 Chapters
2312 Verified Questions
2312 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discovery-based science and hypothesis testing are the two major scientific approaches that help us understand biology.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Plant photosynthesis and the consumption of plants by animals is best explained by what unifying principle of life?
A)All living organisms have evolved over the course of many generations.
B)All living organisms are composed of similar structures.
C)All living organisms maintain some level of homeostasis.
D)All living organisms maintain organization.
E)All living organisms use energy.
Answer: E
Q3) The capacity to maintain a fairly constant body temperature is a homeostatic process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life I: Atoms,
Molecules, and Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dehydration reaction that builds larger molecules from smaller units requires the addition of a water molecule.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) In water,MgCl<sub>2</sub> dissociates into Mg<sup>2+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup>.Based on this information what type of bond is involved in the formation of MgCl<sub>2</sub>?
A)hydrogen
B)ionic
C)polar covalent
D)nonpolar covalent
E)electrostatic
Answer: B
Q3) If lithium has an atomic number of 3 then it will have 1 valence electron.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: The Chemical Basis of Life II: Organic Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Saturated fats are composed of fatty acids with several double bonded carbons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Proteins can have separate domains with distinct structures and functions.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) A phospholipid has ______ fatty acids attached to glycerol,whereas a fat has
A)3;4
B)3;2
C)2;3
D)2;4
E)4;2
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: General Features of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The protective layer outside of the plasma membrane of the plant cell is called A)cellulose.
B)proteoglycans.
C)the cell wall.
D)chitin.
E)pectin.
Q2) Due to the lack of an enzyme to break down lipids,excess accumulation of lipids in the brain leads to a human disease called Tay Sachs syndrome.The organelle most likely to lack the proper enzyme needed for lipid breakdown is A)lysosomes.
B)tonoplasts.
C)mitochondrion.
D)Golgi apparatus.
E)peroxisomes.
Q3) Materials move in and out of the nucleus via endocytosis and exocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All plant cells contain centrioles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Membrane Structure, Transport, and Cell
Junctions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gap junctions in animal cells are most similar to ________ in plant cells?
A)tight junctions
B)hemidesmosomes
C)plasmodesmata
D)middle lamella
E)primary cell walls
Q2) Signals can be sent from the ECM to the cell through _______.
A)claudins
B)connexins
C)fibronectins
D)cadherins
E)integrins
Q3) One can inject dyes of different sizes into a liver cell and determine those molecules that can readily pass through gap junctions.What sized molecules can pass through gap junctions?
A)<1,000 Daltons
B)>10,000 Daltons
C)>1,000 Daltons,but <1,500 Daltons
D)>5,000 Daltons,but <10,000 Daltons
E)>1,500 Daltons,but <5,000 Daltons
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Energy, Enzymes, and Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolism refers to only those reactions that release energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Noncompetitive inhibitors bind the active site of an enzyme,reducing its activity and the subsequent formation of product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bacteria that produce nitrite ( NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> )during anaerobic respiration would use this as their final electron acceptor.
A)N<sub>2</sub>
B)O<sub>2</sub>
C)N<sub>2</sub>O
D)NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q4) What is produced during the citric acid cycle?
A)Pyruvate,ATP and NADH.
B)ATP and NAD<sup>+</sup>.
C)ATP,NADH,and FADH<sub>2</sub>.
D)Oxygen.
E)A proton gradient.
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Succulent plants such as cacti or pineapple
A)tend to undergo substantial rates of photorespiration.
B)produce 4-carbon in the first step of carbon fixation.
C)continually produce sugar,both day and night under hot,arid conditions.
D)are highly efficient at photosynthesis in cooler and wet environments.
E)are C3 plants.
Q2) The purpose of the light reaction is to produce
A)O<sub>2</sub>,ATP,and NADP<sup>+</sup>
B)O<sub>2</sub>,ATP,and NADPH
C)ATP and NADPH
D)ATP and NADP<sup>+</sup>
E)CO<sub>2</sub> and ATP
Q3) The pigment responsible for the red-yellow coloration seen in leaves during the color change in autumn is
A)chlorophyll b.
B)carotenoid.
C)phytol.
D)chlorophyll a.
E)porphyrin.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process through which cells can detect and respond to signals in their extracellular environment is
A)sensory response.
B)reception.
C)cell communication.
D)cell sensation.
E)transduction.
Q2) Insulin is secreted from the pancreas and acts on muscle cells to increase glucose uptake.This is an example of
A)contact-dependent signaling.
B)direct intercellular signaling.
C)autocrine signaling.
D)paracrine signaling.
E)endocrine signaling.
Q3) When epinephrine binds to its G-protein linked receptor,
A)adenylyl cyclase is activated producing cAMP.
B)kinase is activated producing calcium.
C)enzyme linked receptors is activated producing protein kinase.
D)kinase is activated producing transcription factor.
E)phospholipase C is activated producing diacylglyceridE.
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acid Structure, DNA Replication, and
Chromosome Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who discovered that DNA was the genetic material or transforming factor that could convert nonvirulent R-type Streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium to the virulent S-type?
A)Weismann and Nageli
B)Griffith
C)Avery,MacLeod,and McCarty
D)Hershey and Chase
E)Watson,Crick,Wilkins,and Franklin
Q2) Which relationship about nucleotide composition in DNA is correct?
A)C+G=A+T
B)C+A=G+T
C)C=A
D)G=T
E)C=T
Q3) The building blocks of DNA are A)genes.
B)double helices.
C)amino acids.
D)nucleotides.
E)chromosomes.
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Chapter 10: Gene Expression at the Molecular Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about RNA processing in eukaryotes is INCORRECT?
A)Introns are simply excised out of pre-mRNA to produce the mature mRNA.
B)A protein/RNA complex is used to remove introns from the pre-mRNA.
C)A poly A tail is added on to the 3' end of the mRNA.
D)A 7-methylguanosine cap is added on to the 5'end of the mRNA.
E)Processing occurs in the nucleus.
Q2) The termination of translation occurs when a release factor recognizes the stop codon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All enzymes are proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement about tRNA is FALSE?
A)tRNAs of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes share common features
B)the two-dimensional structure of tRNAs exhibits a cloverleaf pattern
C)tRNAs are produced in the nucleus
D)functional tRNAs have been spliced by splicesomes
E)tRNAs possess an anticodon complementary to the codon
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Chapter 11: Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The core promoter in eukaryotes is usually composed of which two features?
A)transcriptional start site and enhancer
B)transcriptional start site and response elements
C)transcriptional start site and TATA box
D)enhancer and TATA box
E)response elements and TATA box
Q2) An activator is to an enhancer as a(n)_____ is to a silencer.
A)transcription factor
B)inducer
C)repressor
D)mediator
E)RNA polymerase II
Q3) Small effector molecules directly bind the DNA they regulate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bacteria can regulate gene expression by controlling the rate at which mRNA is translated into protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Mutation, DNA Repair, and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations can produce a polypeptide with increased function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) p53 is a tumor suppressor gene that acts as a sensor of DNA damage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At what phase of the cell cycle does p53 halt cell division if it senses DNA damage?
A)S
B)G<sub>2</sub>
C)M
D)G<sub>0</sub>
E)G<sub>1</sub>
Q4) Myc genes tend to be overexpressed in only a few forms of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patients who suffer from xeroderma pigmentosum (XP)have a defective mismatch repair system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Eukaryotic Cell Cycle, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell undergoing meiosis that contains sister chromatids may be either haploid or diploid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A female who inherits an extra X chromosome will have
A)Klinefelter syndrome.
B)Turner syndrome.
C)Down syndrome.
D)Triple X syndrome.
E)Edward syndromE.
Q3) If a cell contains 20 chromosomes during G2,it will have 40 chromosomes during S. A)True
B)False
Q4) The process by which haploid cells are produced from diploid cells is called A)sexual reproduction.
B)mitosis.
C)fertilization.
D)meiosis.
E)reduction.
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Chapter 14: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________ occurs when 50% of a protein produces a different phenotype than that produced by 100% or 0% of the protein.
A)Incomplete dominance
B)Recessive inheritance
C)Codominance
D)Loss of function mutation
E)Hybridization
Q2) A mitochondrion has its own genome,so it can live independently from a eukaryotic cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An organism that is heterozygous for two traits can produce a maximum of _______ different gametes for these traits.
A)2
B)4
C)2;if they are on the same chromosome
D)27
E)8
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16
Chapter 15: Genetics of Viruses and Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial conjugation is also called bacterial sex because there is an equal exchange of genetic information between two cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bacterial chromosomes?
A)they are single stranded
B)they are around 10* smaller than eukaryotic chromosomes
C)they contain gene coding regions and regulatory regions
D)they can be present in more than one copy
E)they have only one origin of replication
Q3) An episome is
A)a plasmid that can make bacterial cells resistant to antibiotics
B)a plasmid that gives bacteria the ability to degrade toluene
C)a plasmid that can exist either autonomously in the cytoplasm or as part of a chromosome
D)a plasmid that can turn a bacteria that is harmless into a strain that can cause disease
E)a plasmid that gives bacteria the ability to exchange DNA with another bacterial cell
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Chapter 16: Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most likely consequence of using a plasmid that lacks an origin of replication for a gene cloning project?
A)No recombinant plasmids will be created because the plasmid is only capable of re-circularizing.
B)Bacteria containing the plasmid will not be able to grow in the presence of antibiotics.
C)The plasmid will not be cut with restriction enzymes.
D)Multiple copies of the gene of interest will not be produced because the plasmid will be lost during bacterial division.
E)The plasmid will not be useful in producing a protein because it will lack an RNA polymerase binding sitE.
Q2) _____ occurs when a cloned gene recombines with the normal gene on a chromosome to create a genetically modified organism (GMO).
A)recombination
B)gene replacement
C)transformation
D)molecular pharming
E)gene knockout
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Chapter 17: Genomes, Repetitive Sequences, and Bioinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher has mapped the entire genome of an insect.She notices that the genome contains around a thousand copies of a particular DNA sequence.What is the most likely function of this DNA sequence?
A)The sequence most likely has no function.
B)Its function is to code for rRNA.
C)Its function is to provide antibiotic resistance.
D)Its function is to copy and move within the genome via an RNA intermediate.
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE regarding plasmids?
A)Plasmids are small,usually a few thousand to ten thousand base pairs.
B)Plasmids are linear.
C)Plasmids are contained within the bacterial chromosome.
D)Plasmids are rarely found in prokaryotes.
E)Plasmids dominate in eukaryotes.
Q3) Which pair of organisms would have the most homologous b-globin genes?
A)dolphin and bumble bee
B)catfish and crocodile
C)snake and mouse
D)frog and cheetah
E)human and chimpanzee
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientist believe that the formation of organic polymers,like RNA and DNA,had to move from the watery environment of the seas to solid surfaces or evaporating tidal pools because
A)dehydration is necessary for the formation of large organic polymers,too much water competes with dehydration.
B)hydrolysis is necessary for the formation of large organic polymers,dehydration competes with polymerization.
C)tidal pools would provide a concentrated area where more small organic molecules could aggregate.
D)Kusky discovered 1.43 billion year old fossils in shallow water and tidal pools.
E)sugars dissolve in water,ribose is a sugar and is necessary for the polymerization of DNA and RNA therefore being out of the water would speed up the polymerization reactions.
Q2) The first bilateral animal emerged during the Ordovician Period.Fossils of this organism were discovered in South Africa.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: An Introduction to Evolution and Population Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What field of study uses geographic distribution of extinct and living species to determine patterns of evolution?
A)Biology.
B)Geology.
C)Palentology.
D)Geography.
E)Biogeography.
Q2) Microevolution involves
A)changes to the number of individuals in a population.
B)changes in a population's gene pool.
C)a change in the ratio of males to females in a population.
D)the fixation of an allele over a long period of time.
Q3) If two genes are homologous,then it can be said that they are
A)derived from different ancestral genes but have a similar function.
B)derived from the same ancestral gene.
C)found only outside the nucleus in the mitochondrion or chloroplast.
D)derived from different ancestral genes and have different functions.
E)related through environmental natural selection.
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Chapter 20: Origin of Species and Macroevolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true of Hox gene complexes in mammals?
A)They evolved convergently from similar genes in insects and flatworms.
B)They directly encode morphological proteins.
C)They are located on a single chromosome.
D)They determine cell fate along the anteroposterior axis.
E)They play a major role in embryonic,but not adult,body plans.
Q2) The function of BMP4 is to ____________ while the function of gremlin is to __________ BMP4.
A)cause apoptosis;inhibit the function of B)induce mitosis;amplify expression of C)inhibit growth;amplify expression of D)induce mitosis;inhibit the function of E)cause apoptosis;act as a catalyst for
Q3) Allopatric speciation occurs because a population
A)merges with another population of the same species.
B)becomes geographically isolated and undergoes genetic change.
C)becomes extinct and is replaced by a population of a different species.
D)shows little genetic change from generation to generation.
E)hybrid sterility occurs.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Taxonomy and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms would NOT be classified in the Domain Eukarya?
A)Canis lupis (wolf).
B)Loxodonta cyclotis (forest elephant).
C)Salmonella enterica (bacteria that causes food poisoning).
D)Aleuria aurantia (ascomycete fungi).
E)Sequoiadendron giganteum (Giant Sequoia tree).
Q2) The firefly (Photinus granulatus)and the zebra mussel (Dreissena polymorpha)are both members of the kingdom Animalia.This indicates that they must also both be members of the same
A)species
B)genus
C)order
D)phylum
E)domain
Q3) A modern goal of systematics is to classify organisms based on similarity of form and function,regardless of their evolutionary relationships.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Microorganisms: The Archaea, Bacteria, and Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Gulf of Mexico,red tides caused by the dinoflagellate Karenia brevis cause massive fish kills as well as respiratory problems in humans.As an environmental scientist,what would you suggest concerned citizens do to help prevent these red tides?
A)Purchase fuel-efficient vehicles
B)Decrease the amount of artificial light in coastal areas
C)Encourage sustainable fishing
D)Reduce fertilizer use on lawns and gardens
E)Participate in beach cleanup efforts
Q2) An obligate anaerobe is an organism that:
A)is poisoned by oxygen
B)requires oxygen
C)can use oxygen but can get along without it
D)does not use oxygen but is not poisoned by it
E)produces oxygen
Q3) Most extremophiles are archaea.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Plants
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Q1) The conducting tissue found in vascular plants that functions in transportation of materials throughout the plant,but does not lend structural support to the stem is
A)xylem
B)phloem
C)sporopollenin
D)endosperm
E)lycophyll
Q2) Kingdom Plantae is a clade comprised of bryophytes and what other group?
A)streptophyte algae
B)tracheophytes
C)spermatophytes
D)gymnosperms
E)angiosperms
Q3) Which of the following statements best compares the two dominant lineages of modern angiosperms?
A)Monocots have only one pistil per flower whereas eudicots have three.
B)Monocots have only one cotyledon whereas eudicots have two.
C)Monocots have only one stamen per flower whereas eudicots have six.
D)Monocots are monophyletic whereas eudicots have multiple origins.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Fungi
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Q1) All materials passing from one hyphal cell to another must diffuse across the septal wall.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How would you describe the body of a fungus?
A)tiny threadlike septa collectively make up the mycelium
B)tiny threadlike mycelia collectively make up the septa
C)tiny threadlike mycelia collectively make up the hypha
D)tiny threadlike hyphae collectively make up the mycelium
E)tiny threadlike mycelia collectively make up the dikaryote
Q3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is known to be used for
A)brewing and winemaking.
B)food for reindeer.
C)causing lung disease.
D)being a hallucinogenic mushroom.
E)causing oak trees to shed their leaves prematurely.
Q4) Reproduction by asexual spores in fungi allows dispersal to a new location but doesn't facilitate invasion of new KINDS of habitats.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Animal Diversity: Invertebrates
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Q1) Forelimbs form at the junction of the neck and thoracic vertebrae,the position of which is controlled by HoxC-6 genes.Several kinds of vertebrates from different classes are limbless,including limbless lizards,and amphibians known as caecilians.All descended from limbed forms.On the basis of recent research in genetics,what would you conclude about the functioning of their HoxC-6 genes?
A)The site of expression of their HoxC-6 genes may have moved anteriorly until the level of expression has eliminated the neck region.
B)The site of expression of their HoxC-6 genes would be the same as that of limbed vertebrates but is simply turned off early in development.
C)Their HoxC-6 gene has mutated and serves a different function than in limbed vertebrates.
D)The effect of the HoxC-6 gene is masked by another gene that is dominant to it.
Q2) There are no parasitic crustaceans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Animal Diversity: Vertebrates
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Q1) Sharks have cartilaginous skeletons because bone-forming ability had not yet evolved in vertebrates when they originated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a new curator for a large public aquarium in your city,you are in charge of correctly identifying some of the animals presently in your care.You have two adult animals in tanks in front of you,and you know that one is a lamprey,and the other is a hagfish.Which feature would allow you to correctly identify each animal?
A)Lampreys lack jaws,but hagfish are jawed fish.
B)Lampreys are parasitic,while hagfish are not parasitic.
C)Hagfish must live in fresh water,while lampreys are entirely marine.
D)Hagfish are noted for their extensive fins,while lampreys lack fins.
Q3) What is a defining characteristic of members of the Class Testudines?
A)They lack limbs.
B)They have a hard shell.
C)They have a kinetic skull.
D)They have a four-chambered heart.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: An Introduction to Flowering Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Predict what would occur if you removed the shoot apical meristem of a plant embryo.
A)Growth would only occur at in the roots.
B)The plant would grow two or more new shoot apical meristems.
C)The root apical meristem would take over the function of the shoot apical meristem.
D)The plant would mature,but only through vertical growth--no branches would form.
Q2) How can one distinguish between annuals,biennials,and perennials?
A)how tall they grow
B)the number of flowers they produce
C)the amount of root development
D)the environment they grow in
E)the time from seed germination to seed production
Q3) Corn seeds have one cotyledon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The word meristem is derived from a Greek word meaning to divide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Flowering Plants: Plant Behavior
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Q1) Gravitropism is defined as:
A)growth in response to the Earth's magnetic field.
B)gravity's pull on certain plant organs.
C)growth in response to the force of gravity.
D)any response to gravity that changes cell structures.
E)growth mostly away from gravity.
Q2) The main reason certain seeds germinate near the soil surface rather than deep in the soil is:
A)they need additional oxygen.
B)they are then more aware of their surroundings.
C)they require light to germinate.
D)they have water deprivation.
E)they are sensitive to the cold temperatures of the soil.
Q3) Which of the following are physical stimuli that influence plant responses?
A)rocks,light,touch,music
B)water,gravity,temperature,soil minerals,microorganisms
C)wind,temperature,fungi
D)CO<sub>2</sub>,light,water vapor,gravity
E)touch,gravity,herbivores,pathogens
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Why is it particularly important for the endodermis to block transport in the specific location where it does?
A)to control access of transported materials to the plant vascular tissues,which can carry materials throughout the plant.
B)to prevent materials from encountering the Casparian strip.
C)to prevent harmful materials from entering the cortex.
D)to prevent all symplastic transport.
Q2) Based on the fact that CO<sub>2</sub> is often limiting for photosynthesis,what might you conclude about the evolution of photosynthesis?
A)Photosynthesis evolved when environmental concentrations of CO<sub>2</sub> were low.
B)Photosynthesis evolved when environmental concentrations of CO<sub>2</sub> were high.
C)CO<sub>2</sub> levels likely did not have a bearing on the evolution of photosynthesis.
D)Photosynthesis evolved in a greenhouse.
Q3) Liquids move faster in plant cells by bulk flow than by diffusion.
A)True
B)False
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) The correct arrangement of flower parts from the outside to the inside is:
A)carpels,stamens,sepals,petals.
B)petals,stamens,carpels,sepals.
C)stamens,sepals,petals,carpels.
D)sepals,petals,stamens,carpels.
E)stamens,carpels,sepals,petals.
Q2) Seeds for desert plants often germinate once abscisic acid is washed away from the seed by water.In this scenario,abscisic acid is acting as a/an:
A)hormone that stimulates cell expansion.
B)germination-inhibiting compound.
C)suspensor.
D)hormone to induce the release of sugars from stored starch in the endosperm.
Q3) In grass seeds,the ________ secretes digestive enzymes into the central endosperm to release sugars from stored starch.
A)cotyledon.
B)coleorhiza.
C)aleurone.
D)radicle.
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32
Chapter 31: Animal Bodies and Homeostasis
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Q1) In scleroderma,patients develop a buildup of collagen in their organs.Scleroderma is a disease of what tissue type?
A)Epithelial tissue
B)Muscle tissue
C)Connective Tissue
D)Nervous tissue
Q2) Which major tissue type exhibits the shortening of its cells (i.e. ,contraction)as a major function?
A)Nervous
B)Muscle
C)Epithelial
D)Connective
Q3) The readout recorded in Pavlov's experiments on learning and feedforward regulation was:
A)amount of food the dogs ate.
B)how quickly the dogs ate.
C)how long the metronome ticked.
D)amount of saliva collecteD.
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33
Chapter 32: Neuroscience I: Structure, Function, and
Evolution of Nervous Systems
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Q1) Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a progressive inflammatory disease of the central nervous system characterized by intermittent damage to myelin (called demyelination) caused by the destruction of specialized cells (oligodendrocytes) that form the substance.
Given what you know about the function of myelin, predict the consequences associated with its progressive loss.
A) Sensory abnormalities (e.g., tingling, numbness, itching, tightness, burning, shooting pain) and motor coordination loss.
B) Racing heartbeat, hyperactivity and nausea.
C) Low levels of potassium in the blood (hypokalemia).
D) Balance and equilibrium abnormalities (e.g., dizziness, vertigo, uncoordinated movements, tremor).
Q2) The multi-purpose fluid that bathes the the central nervous system is called the A)cerebrospinal fluid.
B)interstitial fluid.
C)lymph.
D)blooD.
E)arachnoid fluid.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Neuroscience II: Sensory Systems
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Q1) Death of hair cells resulting from repeated exposure to loud noises is thought to be caused by metabolic "exhaustion" of these cells from continuous activation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Experimenters replaced the statoliths in a crayfish statocyst with iron filings and then held a magnet above the animal.Based on your knowledge of the function of statoliths,what would they observe?
A)The crayfish stayed upright.
B)The crayfish lay on its side.
C)The crayfish turned upside down.
D)The crayfish attempted to escape by rapidly swimming backwards.
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q3) Rods and cones,like most sensory receptors,depolarize opon receiving a stimulus. A)True
B)False
Q4) Perception of salty tastes occurs at the level of the taste bud.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Muscular-Skeletal Systems
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Q1) You would expect to find higher myoglobin levels in oxidative muscle fibers than in glycolytic muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During muscular contraction,cross-bridges form between _____ and _____ .
A)actin,myosin
B)actin,tropomyosin
C)myosin,troponin
D)myosin,tropomyosin
E)troponin,calmodulin
Q3) When an organism dies,its muscles remain in a contracted state termed rigor mortis for a brief period of time.Contributing most directly to this phenomenon is
A)the inability to synthesize actin and myosin.
B)the absence of an oxygen supply to muscle.
C)the lack of ATP to break cross-bridges between thick and thin filaments.
D)the lack of calcium to bind to troponin.
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Chapter 35: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) In the stomach,food processing continues and secretions from stomach glands aid the initial digestion of A)carbohydrates.
B)lipids.
C)nucleic acids.
D)proteins.
E)vitamins.
Q2) How does the digestion and absorption of fat differ from that of carbohydrates?
A)Processing of fat does not require any digestive enzymes,whereas the processing of carbohydrates does.
B)Fat absorption occurs in the stomach,whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine.
C)Carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested,whereas fats do not.
D)Most absorbed fat enters the lymphatic system,whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blooD.
E)Fat must be partially digested by bacteria in the large intestine before it can be absorbed,which is not the case for carbohydrates.
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Chapter 36: Circulatory Systems
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Q1) Imagine a red blood cell leaving the right ventricle of your heart.To which chamber of the heart will that cell return first?
A)right atrium
B)right ventricle
C)left atrium
D)left ventricle
E)impossible to say from information given
Q2) Which structure prevents blood flowing back into the heart from the aorta between heartbeats?
A)semilunar valve
B)atrioventricular valve
C)tricuspid valve
D)mitral valve
E)ductus arteriosus
Q3) A reduction in blood pressure due to hemorrhage would be expected to increase stimulation of baroreceptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) During a particular period of physiological crisis,imagine that your carbon dioxide levels increase sharply,and consequently your blood pH decreases.Predict what will happen to the affinity of your hemoglobin for oxygen in this situation.
A)The affinity for oxygen by hemoglobin is constant - it does not change.
B)The affinity for oxygen by hemoglobin will increase to correct this situation.
C)The affinity for oxygen by hemoglobin will decrease to correct this situation.
Q2) In conditions that include a constant temperature,if a dog increases the volume of her lung and thereby the volume of gas continained within,predict what will happen to the pressure of the gas.
A)The pressure will increase.
B)The pressure will decrease.
C)The pressure will not change.
Q3) Smaller mammals typically have higher ventilation rates than large mammals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fishes exhibit a method of ventilating their gills termed "tidal ventilation."
A)True
B)False
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Excretory Systems and the Homeostasis of Internal Fluids
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Q1) Humans cannot survive at sea by drinking salt water.However,marine vertebrates such as sea turtles and various sea birds can survive by drinking salt water.What do they have that humans do not?
A)Kidneys that are extremely good at producing a concentrated urine
B)Body fluid concentrations that are similar to or greater than those of seawater
C)The ability to secrete salts and wastes into their intestinal contents like an insect
D)Use of ammonia as their primary nitrogenous waste
E)Specialized gill epithelia
Q2) The osmoregulatory and ionoregulatory problems facing a saltwater fish are
A)loss of water and loss of ions.
B)loss of water and gain of ions.
C)gain of water and loss of ions.
D)gain of water and gain of ions.
E)buildup of urea in tissues.
Q3) The filtrate that leaves the proximal convoluted tubule is much more concentrated than the blood in humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Systems
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Q1) The use of androgens by athletes can cause the testes to shrink.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An explanation for why an individual that is incapable of generating the fight or flight response would be abnormal function of this gland.
A)thyroid gland
B)adrenal gland
C)gonad
D)heart
E)pituitary gland
Q3) An amine hormone important in the fight-or-flight response in vertebrates is A)dopamine.
B)melatonin.
C)cortisol.
D)epinephrine.
E)serotonin.
Q4) The nervous system integrates with the endocrine system to control hormone secretion.
A)True
B)False
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) What are the three glands that produce the liquid portion of semen?
A)prostate,seminal vesicles,bulbourethral
B)hypothalamus,prostate,Leydig
C)Leydig,prostate,bulbourethral
D)seminal vesicles,hypothalamus,bulbourethral
E)seminal vesicle,Leydig,hypothalamus
Q2) The inability of a man to produce LH would result in
A)the inability of Leydig cells to produce testosterone.
B)the inability of the anterior pituitary to produce FSH.
C)the loss of positive feedback control on FSH release.
D)decreased GnRH production by the hypothalamus.
E)exaggerated secondary sex characteristics.
Q3) Which one of the structures below does NOT develop during neurulation?
A)cells that form pigment
B)the central nervous system
C)the neural crest
D)the archenteron
E)somites
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42
Chapter 41: Immune Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT involved in nonspecific defenses?
A)natural killer cells
B)monocytes
C)neutrophils
D)mast cells
E)B cells
Q2) Recall Bruno Lemaitre's experiment on Toll protein in Drosophila.In a similar experiment,you wanted to test a single fruit fly for the presence of the Toll protein,so you prick it with a needle coated in fungal spores.The fly dies a week later.Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)This is evidence that the Toll protein is present.
B)This is evidence that the Toll protein is not present.
C)The Toll protein is only found in humans.
D)This is inconclusive evidence.
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE of both T cells and B cells?
A)They are lymphocytes.
B)They recognize specific antigens on the cell surface.
C)When activated,they proliferate to form both effector cells and memory cells.
D)They are involved in the humoral immune response.
E)All of the responses are correct.
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Chapter 42: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of pheromones to attract a mate is an example of what type of communication?
A)visual
B)tactile
C)chemical
D)auditory
E)genetic
Q2) What is the main difference between habituation and conditioning?
A)Habituation involves learning,while conditioning does not.
B)Habituation involves genetic imprinting,while conditioning involves only learned behavior.
C)Habituation involves a stimulus with no association,while conditioning involves a stimulus with an association.
D)Habituation involves an increase in the intensity of response,while conditioning involves a decrease in intensity of response.
E)Habituation lacks an external stimulus,while conditioning involves both external and internal stimuli.
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Chapter 43: Ecology and the Physical Environment
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Q1) Temperature is perhaps the most important factor in the distribution of organisms because
A)water is scarcer in warmer environments.
B)most organisms are unable to regulate their body temperature precisely.
C)many organisms are able to grow faster in warmer climates.
D)the metabolic optimum for endothermic animals is in temperate areas.
E)wind amplifies the effect of cool temperatures.
Q2) What is most likely to be a common adaptation of coastal plants that grow on sand dunes?
A)deep roots to extract moisture.
B)broad leaves for enhanced photosynthesis.
C)ability to use blue-green light for photosynthesis.
D)increased transpiration of water.
E)elevated growth rates.
Q3) What substance would you expect to accumulate in soil as a result of increased acid precipitation?
A)Calcium
B)Nitrogen
C)Oxygen
D)Ammonia
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Q1) What form of coloration is shown by many seahorses?
A)aposematic
B)Müllerian
C)Batesian
D)camouflage
E)secondary metabolite coloring
Q2) In the formula,dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K,the rate of population growth approaches zero as A)carrying capacity approaches zero.
B)the age-specific fertility rate approaches zero.
C)the per capita growth rate declines.
D)the population size approaches the carrying capacity.
Q3) A group of interbreeding individuals occupying the same habitat at the same time is a(n)
A)species.
B)guild.
C)population.
D)niche.
E)quadrat.
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Chapter 45: Community Ecology
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Q1) A forest community consists of not only the trees and shrubs,but also the animals and microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Simberloff and Wilson carried out a famous experiment to study the recolonization by arthropods of small mangrove by islands after the islands were fumigated.One of their findings was
A)The islands never recovered to their pre-fumigation levels of arthropod species richness.
B)Species turnover was high following recolonization.
C)Recolonization rates were identical on all of the islands regardless of distance to the mainland.
D)Arthropod species richness on the islands changed little following recolonization.
Q3) The species-productivity hypothesis predicts that there would be more species per unit area in the southwestern U.S.than in the Amazon rainforest.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) The replacing forests with agricultural or urban areas can significantly affect the water cycle.Why is this?
A)Less moisture is evapotranspired into the atmosphere after deforestation.
B)The level of soil nutrients is lower after deforestation.
C)The rate of evapotranspiration increases after deforestation.
D)Cloud cover will increase after deforestation.
Q2) Biomagnification results in an increased concentration of bioaccumulated chemicals as one moves from upper to lower trophic levels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Insect densities tend to decrease in elevated CO<sup>2</sup>,all other factors being equal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All living organisms require phosphorus for ATP.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) According to the diversity-stability hypothesis:
A)Genetic diversity is the most important part of ecosystem stability.
B)A loss of any species from an ecosystem leads to an approximately equal decline in stability.
C)The loss of a few species from an ecosystem does significantly affect ecosystem functioning.
D)Losing even a few species from an ecosystem causes a drastic decline in ecosystem stability.
E)Every species has an important role in ecosystem function,but we cannot predict the effect of species loss.
Q2) Introduced species become invasive when they
A)compete with native species without expanding their range.
B)move from temperate to tropical settings.
C)expand their range and outcompete native species.
D)lead to a cost for humans.
E)fill an empty ecological nichE.
Q3) The United States contains at least one biodiversity hot spot.
A)True
B)False
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