Honors Biology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Honors Biology is an accelerated course designed for motivated students seeking a comprehensive and challenging introduction to the life sciences. The course covers fundamental biological concepts such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, with an emphasis on scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and laboratory investigation. Students will engage in hands-on experiments, analyze real-world biological issues, and develop a deeper understanding of how living systems interact and evolve. This course prepares students for advanced studies in biology and related scientific fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Copernicus, Galileo, and Darwin found that ____ caused their science to be controversial.
A) prevailing belief
B) objective data
C) astronomical theories
D) supernatural influences
E) experimental design
Answer: A
Q2) The control in an experiment
A) makes the experiment valid.
B) is an additional replicate for statistical purposes.
C) reduces the experimental errors.
D) minimizes experimental inaccuracy.
E) allows for comparisons to the experimental group.
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the chemical shorthand, 14C, the 14 represents the number of ____.
A) excess neutrons
B) protons plus neutrons
C) electrons
D) protons plus electrons
E) radioactive particles
Answer: B
Q2) The most likely reason that glucose dissolves in water is that it is ____.
A) an ionic compound
B) a polysaccharide
C) polar and forms many hydrogen bonds with the water molecules
D) an extremely unstable molecule
E) highly nonpolar
Answer: C
Q3) 14Cis a radioactive isotope, and it turns into ____________________ when it decays.
Answer: nitrogen
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) precursor for important molecules such as bile salts
A)glycogen
B)cellulose
C)starch
D)phospholipid
E)wax
F)steroid
G)cholesterol
H)DNA
I)RNA
Answer: G
Q2) Fats are major constituents of ____.
A) proteins
B) genes
C) photosynthesis
D) cell membranes
E) nucleic acids
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The space between the two membranes of the mitochondrion accumulates ____.
A) proteins
B) H<sup>+</sup>
C) carbohydrates
D) H O
E) CO
Q2) This organelle is the site of polypeptide assembly.
A)ribosome
B)mitochondrion
C)lysosome
D)Golgi body
E)endoplasmic reticulum
Q3) The accompanying figure is a photomicrograph of ____.
A) a nucleus
B) a Golgi body
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) a vacuole
E) a nucleoid
Q4) ribosomes
Q5) A number of ____________________ cover the rough ER.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) fluid with the same solute concentration relative to another fluid
A)diffusion
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)isotonic
E)osmosis
F)osmotic pressure
G)turgor
Q2) This process occurs when an electron transport molecule gives up an electron.
A)oxidation
B)reduction
C)phosphorylation
D)electron transport chain
Q3) ____________________ enzymes are controlled by having regulatory molecules bind outside the active site and result in a change in their overall structure.
Q4) Describe how the laws of thermodynamics would impact the Earth were the sun's light suddenly blocked.
Q5) A chemical interaction in which the products contain less free energy than the reactants is called a(n) ____________________ reaction.
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) is the primary pigment in photosynthetic plants
A)chlorophyll b
B)chlorophyll a
C)phycoerythrobilin
D)phycocyanobilin
E)beta-carotene
Q2) This carbon-fixing system uses CO from inside the plant, and precedes the Calvin-Benson cycle.
A)light-dependent reactions
B)CAM pathway
C)carbon fixation
D)Calvin-Benson cycle
E)C pathway
Q3) A high concentration of H<sup>+</sup> in the thylakoid compartment provides potential energy for the ____ by ____.
A) breakdown of water; oxidation
B) production of ATP; ATP synthases
C) reduction of NADP+; an electron transfer chain
D) production of sugars; the light-independent reactions
E) production of O ; photolysis
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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the conversion of pyruvate to ethanol, what is produced?
A) acetaldehyde only
B) carbon dioxide only
C) NADH only
D) acetaldehyde and carbon dioxide
E) acetaldehyde, carbon dioxide, and NADH
Q2) This process yields the most energy overall.
A)glycolysis
B)aerobic respiration
C)electron transfer phosphorylation
D)alcoholic fermentation
E)lactate fermentation
Q3) What molecule corresponds to the item labeled as "61" in the accompanying figure?
A)CO
B)NADH
C)ADP + Pi
D)FADH
E)ATP
Q4) How many molecules of ATP are produced at each stage of aerobic respiration?
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The experiments that clearly distinguished DNA and not protein as the hereditary material were conducted by _____.
A) Pauling
B) Hershey and Chase
C) Griffith
D) Watson and Crick
E) Avery
Q2) In ____________________, one somatic cell is fused with an enucleated egg.
Q3) Hydrogen bonding is strongest between ____.
A) adenine and guanine
B) uracil and thymine
C) guanine and uracil
D) adenine and thymine
E) cytosine and guanine
Q4) Consider the Hershey-Chase experiment. Is their choice of a bacteriophage unusual?
Q5) A bacterium undergoes four rounds of replication. How many cells would result, and how many of those cells would still have part of an original DNA strand from the starting bacterium?
Q6) Does reproductive cloning always involve somatic cell nuclear transfer?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) What carries amino acids to ribosomes during translation?
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) DNA
D) rRNA
E) exons
Q2) There are how many different kinds of RNA codons?
A) 3
B) 72
C) 28
D) 64
E) 120
Q3) If the DNA nucleotides read ATG-CGT-GAC, the amino acid sequence of the resulting polypeptide would be
A) tyrosine - alanine - leucine.
B) methionine - arginine - asparagine.
C) histidine - glycine - proline.
D) serine - lysine - glycine.
E) serine - lysine - isoleucine.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Q1) Which statement is false concerning X chromosome inactivation?
A) It is an accident of evolution.
B) It is an example of dosage compensation.
C) It is a gene control mechanism.
D) It is responsible for the normal development of female embryos.
E) It does not occur in males.
Q2) Knockout experiments involving __________ genes in fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) revealed local controls over gene expression.
Q3) In knockout experiments,
A) genes are added to chromosomes.
B) normal genes are replaced physically by mutated genes.
C) genes are mutated or deleted to prevent their expression.
D) mRNAs are prevented from attaching to ribosomes.
E) the protein products of specific genes are inactivated.
Q4) The promotion of the lactose operon in bacteria is
A) activated by a repressor protein.
B) independent of glucose concentration.
C) activated by lactose binding.
D) regulated by RNA polymerase.
E) regulated by mRNA.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis?
I.metaphase
II.telophase
III.prophase
IV. Anaphase
A) I, III, IV, II
B) I, II, III, IV
C) III, I, IV, II
D) IV, I, III, II
E) III, IV, I, II
Q2) The spindle apparatus is composed of
A) Golgi bodies.
B) microtubules.
C) endoplasmic reticulum.
D) nucleoprotein.
E) chromatids.
Q3) The most common type of skin cancer is __________.
Q4) After plant mitosis, the vesicles fuse into a disk-shaped __________.
Q5) The bipolar spindle is composed of __________.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) This process is most similar to mitosis.
A)prophase II
B)metaphase I
C)telophase II
D)meoisis II
Q2) With __________, offspring inherit the same number and kinds of genes from one parent.
Q3) Duplicated chromosomes linked together at their centromeres at the beginning of meiosis are appropriately called what kind of chromatids?
A) mother
B) parallel
C) sister
D) homogenous
E) haploid
Q4) Which statement correctly describes human chromosomes?
A) The haploid number is 22
B) Human gametes end up with two of each type of 23 chromosomes.
C) There are 42 pairs of chromosomes.
D) The diploid number is 46.
E) Human gametes end up with one of each type of 22 chromosomes.
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) In radishes, long or round are homozygous forms of an incompletely dominant gene, and oval is the phenotype of the heterozygote. If a long radish is crossed with a round radish, give the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of theF2generation.
Q2) True-breeding yellow guinea pigs crossed with true-breeding white ones produce only cream-colored offspring. This pattern indicates incomplete dominance. Rough hair is found to be dominant to smooth hair. Give the F1 and F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratios of a cross of a smooth, white guinea pig with a homozygous, rough, yellow guinea pig.
Q3) In a dihybrid cross between a parent that is a double heterozygote (Aa Bb) and a parent that is homozygous dominant for one gene and heterozygous for the other (AA Bb), how many unique genotypes potentially will be present in their offspring?
Q4) A homozygous recessive where "A" represents the trait has two recessive alleles symbolized by __________.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) PKU detection includes
A) prenatal karyotyping.
B) urine analysis at puberty.
C) blood tests at puberty.
D) saliva tests.
E) urine analysis and blood tests at birth.
Q2) hemophilia A
A)autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
B)nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
C)X-linked recessive inheritance
D)nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
Q3) Symptoms of phenylketonuria (PKU) may be minimized or suppressed by a diet low in
A) serine.
B) glycine.
C) phenylalanine.
D) proline.
E) glutamic acid.
Q4) __________ is a diagnostic tool that reveals missing or extra chromosomes and some structural changes in an individual's chromosomes.
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Q1) What fraction of your DNA is the same as every other human being?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 90%
D) 95%
E) 99%
Q2) Bacterial ____ may be used as cloning vectors.
A) transcriptase
B) ligase
C) endonuclease
D) plasmids
E) polymerase
Q3) The pieces of DNA that are moved by a genetic engineer from one organism to another are first incorporated into these.
A)restriction enzymes
B)recombinant DNA
C)plasmids
D)clones
E)restriction sites
Q4) What is the current status of the Human Genome Project?
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which period is the most recent?
A) Triassic
B) Silurian
C) Devonian
D) Permian
E) Cambrian
Q2) Barringer Crater in Arizona was formed when a 300,000-ton asteroid slammed into Earth 50,000 years ago. Which statement accurately depicts this event?
A) The asteroid hit so early that it had little influence on the history of life.
B) The asteroid produced about 150 times the energy of the bomb that hit Hiroshima.
C) The impact of the asteroid resulted in a minor crater.
D) The cause of the crater has been determined by examining fossils found at the site.
E) The impact of the asteroid released only minor amounts of energy.
Q3) Which fossil would be the oldest in a given strata and why?
Q4) Differential survival and reproduction of individuals of a population that vary in the details of shared traits is called ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Q1) What is a type of postzygotic reproductive isolating mechanism?
A) temporal isolation
B) mechanical isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) hybrid sterility
E) sexual deselection
Q2) With __________ speciation, populations in physical contact speciate.
Q3) Prezygotic reproductive isolation occurs ____.
A) just after the union of the egg and sperm nuclei
B) during embryo development
C) during fetal development
D) after birth
E) before the mating pair comes into contact
Q4) __________ shifts the range of variation in traits in one direction.
Q5) Allopatric speciation requires ____.
A) accelerated gene flow
B) physical separation
C) physical diversity
D) behavioral diversity
E) sexual selection
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) Why do scientists favor the clade in which derived traits evolve the fewest times?
Q2) For the clade of winged organisms, which of the following would be considered the outgroup?
A) insect
B) bat
C) eagle
D) penguin
E) honeycreeper
Q3) __________ is a set of methods that allow us to reconstruct phylogeny.
Q4) A monophyletic group has how many common ancestors?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) many
E) it is variable
Q5) Similar body parts that reflect shared ancestry are called __________.
Q6) Neutral mutations tend to accumulate in DNA at a predictable rate; like the ticks of a(n) __________, they can help researchers estimate how long ago two lineages diverged.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) Life probably would never have emerged on Earth if the ancient atmosphere had been the same as the present one in regard to the content of ____.
A) carbon dioxide
B) hydrogen
C) oxygen
D) nitrogen
E) carbon monoxide
Q2) Which step in the evolution of life is the most complex and probably occurred last?
A) formation of DNA
B) formation of protein-RNA systems
C) formation of membrane-bound proto-cells
D) spontaneous formation of organic compounds under abiotic conditions
E) formation of ATP
Q3) The accumulation of free oxygen in the atmosphere ____.
A) was a result of the accumulation of a byproduct of a type of photosynthesis
B) caused the further spontaneous generation of life
C) provided the opportunity to extract more energy through anaerobic respiration
D) occurred immediately after the earth was formed
E) allowed for DNA to replace RNA as the primary data storage molecule
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) Of all organisms, prokaryotes are the ____.
A) smallest
B) least abundant
C) least metabolically diverse
D) least widespread
E) least evolved
Q2) Four of the following are involved in the reproduction of all viruses. Which one is not?
A) attachment and penetration
B) replication and synthesis
C) assembly
D) latency
E) release
Q3) Archaea reproduce primarily through ____.
A) fusion
B) binary fission
C) sex
D) meiosis
E) cell joining
Q4) Why are endospores so dangerous to food production?
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) Are humans responsible for neurotoxic shellfish poisoning? Why or why not?
Q2) Neurotoxin from some members of this group can kill humans.
A)apicomplexans
B)amoebozoans
C)euglenoids
D)dinoflagellates
E)trypanosomes
Q3) Some protists have complex life cycles and change between the haploid and diploid state. This process is called __________ of _________.
Q4) Chloroplasts of red algae may have evolved from ancient endosymbiotic ____.
A) cyanobacteria
B) dinoflagellates
C) apicomplexans
D) archaeans
E) nitrifying bacteria
Q5) Euglenoids live in freshwater; a(n) __________ rids them of excess water.
Q6) Why can red algae grow at deeper depths of water than green algae?
Q7) __________ and __________ are single-celled heterotrophs with a secreted shell.
Page 23
Q8) In nutrient-rich water, photosynthetic protists may undergo population explosions known as __________.
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Page 24
Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) conifers
A)have rhizoids, cuticle, and protected embryo sporophyte
B)one cotyledon
C)non-seed-bearing, heart-shaped gametophytes; spore-bearing leaves with sori
D)Lycopodium; cone-bearing sporophyte; free-living gametophyte
E)only one species left
F)cypress and redwood; heterosporous; mostly evergreen
G)confined to tropics or warm, temperate zones; resemble squat cone-bearing palm trees
H)two cotyledons
I)Equisetum; homosporous; rhizomes present; aerial stems jointed; scouring rushes
J)have coevolved with pollinating vectors
Q2) Which specialization evolved in land plants to allow for reproduction in dry conditions?
A) xylem
B) phloem
C) stomata
D) roots
E) sporophyte dominance
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Page 25
Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) Why is it very dangerous to eat wild mushrooms without proper training?
Q2) In the photograph of the zygote fungus Pilobolus, what are the dark "hats" atop of the structures?
A) hypha
B) gametangium
C) zygote
D) sporangium
E) nucleus
Q3) White Nose Syndrome is a fungal disease that affects ____.
A) Humans
B) Amphibians
C) Dogs
D) Cats
E) Bats
Q4) The cell walls of fungi are composed mainly of ____.
A) Cellulose
B) Lignin
C) Chitin
D) Pectin
E) protein
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) Four of the following are major features of arthropods. Which is the exception?
A) jointed appendages
B) exoskeleton
C) paired segmental nephridia
D) specialized segments that are fused together
E) specialized sensory structures
Q2) In the accompanying figure, a cell type that distributes breakdown products of digestion to other cells in the sponge body is identified by the number ____.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) Four of the following are echinoderms. Which one is the exception?
A) sea cucumber
B) sea star
C) urchin
D) brittle star
E) krill
Q4) __________ are asymmetrical and do not have tissues or organs.
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) How do lampreys differ from modern jawed fishes?
Q2) Which of the following is most closely related to the lobe-finned fishes?
A) ray-finned fishes
B) tunicates
C) mammals
D) cartilaginous fishes
E) lancelets
Q3) The most diverse group of placental mammals are the ____.
A) bats
B) carnivores
C) rodents
D) moles and shrews
E) whales and dolphins
Q4) The letter "A" in the accompanying figure represents which teeth?
A) incisors
B) molars
C) canines
D) premolars
E) grinders
Q5) What are the bird-like and reptile-like features of Archaeopteryx?
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Did Homo sapiens mate with Homo neanderthalensis?
Q2) Four of the following are advantages that led to an evolutionary shift towards bipedalism. Which one is the exception?
A) It allows for more efficient movement across open ground.
B) It made upright walking more energy efficient.
C) It keeps the body cooler
D) It allows the organism to reach higher food.
E) It is easier to scan the horizon for predators.
Q3) The conclusion that early hominins were bipedal is based in part on examination of four of the following. Which one is the exception?
A) their S-shaped backbone
B) the position of the opening for the spinal cord in the skull
C) footprints
D) their jaw shape
E) length of the femur
Q4) What skeletal features differentiate modern humans from apes, and what common purpose do all these differences serve?
Q5) Why is it so difficult to identify the beginnings of the hominin line?
Q6) What cultural trait is unique to hominins?
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) Cells rich in chlorophyll and thus the main sites of photosynthesis are in layers labeled ____.
Q2) The letter "A" in the accompanying figure represents ____.
A) pericycle
B) endodermis
C) primary xylem
D) root cortex
E) primary phloem
Q3) What is wood?
A) secondary xylem that has accumulated outside a cylinder of vascular cambium
B) secondary xylem that has accumulated inside a cylinder of vascular cambium
C) primary xylem that has accumulated outside a cylinder of vascular cambium
D) primary xylem that has accumulated inside a cylinder of vascular cambium
E) vascular cambium cells
Q4) Epidermal cells secrete a translucent, waxy ____ to slow water loss.
A) mesophyll
B) cuticle
C) pectin layer
D) lignin layer
E) trichome
Page 30
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) This nutrient is important for stabilizing cell walls and membranes.
A)nitrogen
B)potassium
C)calcium
D)magnesium
E)phosphorus
Q2) Filaments of a fungus that form a velvety cloak around roots or penetrate their cells aiding in the mutualistic relationship between the plant and fungus are called ____.
A) hyphae
B) mycorrhizae
C) root nodules
D) root hairs
E) Rhizobium
Q3) This nutrient plays an important role in cell wall formation.
A)iron
B)boron
C)manganese
D)zinc
E)copper
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Page 31
Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) carpel
Q2) Seeds can be described as 'a little plant in a box with its lunch'. Which parts of the seed correspond to the elements of this description?
Q3) Almost all houseplants are clones that have been grown from ____ of a parent plant.
A) Seeds
B) cuttings
C) suckers
D) grafts
E) fruits
Q4) A flower's parts are modified ____ that develop from a receptacle.
A) epidermal cells
B) asexual organs
C) regions of a stem
D) leaves
E) ovaries
Q5) stamen
Q6) Describe what a typical wind-pollinated flower looks like.
Q7) Many species of flowering plants reproduce asexually by __________.
Q8) ovule
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) The plant hormone that promotes fruit ripening is ____.
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) cytokinin
D) abscisic acid
E) ethylene
Q2) In trees, such as the horse chestnut, the abscission of leaves and fruits in the fall is mediated by ____.
A) abscisic acid
B) auxin
C) ethylene
D) cytokinin
E) gibberellin
Q3) Which plant hormone listed below is responsible for the symbiotic relationship shown in the accompanying figure?
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) cytokinin
D) jasmonic acid
E) abscisic acid
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) This tissue provides nourishment to each of the other connective tissues.
A)loose connective tissue
B)dense connective tissue
C)adipose
D)cartilage
E)blood
Q2) Four of the following might be a response to rising body temperature. Which one is the exception?
A) increased rate of breathing
B) decreased secretion of certain hormones
C) more sweat
D) reduced blood flow to skin
E) increased rate of breathing.
Q3) ____________________ secrete hormones into blood.
Q4) Specialized epithelial cells called ____________________ secrete substances that function outside the cell.
Q5) sebaceous gland
Q6) ____________________ junctions are like buttons on a shirt to hold cells together.
Q7) smooth muscle
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) cerebellum
A)integrates body position, motions, balance
B)in cnidarians; based on reflex pathways devoted to swimming and feeding
C)messages from here arouse the brain and maintain wakefulness
D)the cortical region that coordinates muscles required for speech
E)all parts of nerve cells outside the brain and spinal cord
F)acetylcholine is an example
G)reflex control center for breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure
H)axons of the central nervous system that are sheathed with fatty myelin
I)at top of the brainstem bordering the cerebral hemispheres; influences learning and emotional behavior
J)motor neurons that are divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
K)membrane coverings over brain and spinal cord
L)part of the brainstem; plays roles in reward-basesd learning and voluntary movements
M)connects right and left cerebral hemispheres
N)group of nerve cell bodies that form an integrative center
O)contains centers concerned with body temperature regulation and with salt and water balance
Q2) The vertebrate central nervous system consists of a brain and _________.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) iris
A)relays action potentials from the ear to the brain
B)contains the organ of Corti
C)separates the outer and middle ears
D)membrane-covered gateway to inner ear
E)consists of tissue containing rods and cones
F)bone in middle ear
G)defined by peak height and valley depth of sound waves
H)helps maintain balance and position; detects acceleration
I)depends on the number of wave cycles per second
J)a substance that elicits a response in members of the same species
K)regulates size of pupil and amount of incoming light
Q2) Humans have ____.
A) more taste receptors than olfactory receptors
B) more olfactory receptors than taste receptors
C) a high degree of dependency on pheromones
D) approximately six types of olfactory receptors
E) an advanced vomeronasal organ
Q3) Light enters the eye's interior through the __________, an adjustable opening in the center of the muscular, doughnut-shaped iris.
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) A thyroid disorder in which an excess of thyroid hormone is produced, causing anxiety, insomnia, heat intolerance, weight loss, and tremors is known as ____.
A) hypothyroidism
B) goiters
C) cretinism
D) Graves' disease
E) Hashimoto's disease
Q2) If excessive growth hormone secretion occurs during adulthood, the result is called ____.
A) Laron syndrome
B) gigantism
C) dwarfism
D) acromegaly
E) rhGH
Q3) pituitary gland
Q4) As males and females age they produce lower volumes of sex hormones. For women, taking testosterone to increase libido in becoming more common. Why is the same not common for males?
Q5) thymus
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) A sheath of connective tissue that encloses each skeletal muscles is known as
A) cartilage
B) a ligament
C) a sphincter
D) a joint
E) a tendon
Q2) this protein repeatedly binds, moves, and releases an adjacent thin filament causing a muscle to contract
A)Z line
B)ATP
C)mitochondria
D)actin
E)sarcomeres
F)phosphate group
G)myofibrils
H)smooth muscle
I)thick filaments
J)myosin
K)skeletal muscle
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) The anatomical structure identified with the letter "C" in the accompanying figure illustrates ____.
A) sickle-cell anemia
B) leukemia
C) atherosclerotic plaque
D) bone cancer
E) polycythemia
Q2) Red blood cells, also known as __________, contain the hemoglobin that functions in rapid transport of oxygen.
Q3) A typical systolic pressure for a normal adult is ____.
A) 60 mm Hg
B) 80 mm Hg
C) 100 mm Hg
D) 120 mm Hg
E) 140 mm Hg
Q4) This stimulates red bloodcell production by bone marrow.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Page 39
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) __________ refers to processes designed to induce immunity.
Q2) Why is it beneficial to urinate after sexual activity?
Q3) What is the partial pressure of oxygen at the start of the systemic capillary beds?
A) 40 mm Hg
B) 100 mm Hg
C) 70 mm Hg
D) 104 mm Hg
E) 130 mm Hg
Q4) What is characteristic of adult frogs?
A) gills
B) sucking air into their lungs
C) countercurrent exchange
D) pushing air into their lungs
E) drawing water by inhalation across their gills
Q5) __________ immunity specifically targets billions of different antigens.
Q6) An individual is exposed to a pathogen and takes five days to recover. When exposed a year later they again take five days to recover. Would you suspect that adaptive immunity was involved? Why or why not?
Q7) __________ relieve allergy symptoms by dampening the effects of histamines.
Page 40
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) left lung
Q2) Water flowing over fish gills exchanges gases with blood flowing in the opposite direction inside gill capillaries. This is called __________.
Q3) Air is continuously forced through tubes that thread through vascularized tissue in a pair of inelastic lungs in _____.
A) some fish
B) amphibians
C) birds
D) reptiles
E) some small mammals
Q4) Branches of a bronchus are known as ____.
A) larynx
B) bronchi
C) bronchioles
D) trachea
E) pharynx
Q5) If a person is choking, the __________ maneuver can be used to expel food from their trachea.
Q6) pharynx
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) Obese people have a greater risk of four of the following. Which one is the exception?
A) type 1 diabetes
B) colon cancer
C) high blood pressure
D) breast cancer
E) heart disease
Q2) An empty stomach increases its secretion of ____ to stimulate the appetite.
A) pepsinogen
B) ghrelin
C) gastric fluid
D) chyme
E) serosa
Q3) If you place a plain, dry cracker in your mouth, you will slowly notice a sweet taste. Why?
Q4) The liver is commonly damaged if drugs or other toxins are over consumed. Why?
Q5) Chart the path of food through the human digestive system.
Q6) __________ in the stomach contains protein-digesting enzymes and acid.
Q7) __________, which assists in fat digestion, is made in the liver and stored in the
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) The region where filtration occurs is indicated by the letter(s) ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) A and D
Q2) The glomerular capillaries are intimately associated with this structure.
A)Bowman's capsule
B)proximal tubule
C)descending portion of loop of Henle
D)distal tubule
Q3) An animal loses water by four of the following processes. Which one is the exception?
A) bleeding
B) excretion
C) secretion
D) exhalation
E) inhalation
Q4) Long-term exposure to cold can alter metabolism and encourage __________ in which brown adipose tissue produces heat.
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) cervix opening
Q2) clitoris
Q3) The disease acquired from the mother during childbirth shown in the above infant photograph is caused by ____.
A) syphilis
B) gonorrhea
C) chlamydia
D) HPV
E) AIDS
Q4) bulbourethral gland
Q5) seminal vesicle
Q6) This is a mitotic product that then undergoes meiosis.
A)spermatogonium
B)secondary spermatocyte
C)primary spermatocyte
D)spermatid
E)sperm
Q7) Animals that reproduce sexually and have both male and female organs are known as __________.
Q8) anus
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) What unusual features would be found on the newborn if human embryos did not experience apoptosis?
Q2) During implantation, the __________ buries itself in the uterine wall.
Q3) Select the correct sequence of animal developmental events.
A) fertilization cleavage gastrula blastula
B) fertilization cleavage blastula gastrula
C) fertilization blastula cleavage gastrula
D) fertilization gastrula blastula cleavage
E) fertilization blastula gastrula cleavage
Q4) This is a longitudinal series of paired segments.
A)zygote
B)blastula
C)cleavage
D)gastrula
E)somites
Q5) __________ results in an early embryo that has three primary tissue layers.
Q6) During gastrulation, three tissue layers form: the outer __________, the inner __________, and the __________ in between the first two layers.
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) The accompanying figure is of wolf behavior, which tells others _____.
A) to prepare for a fight
B) that the following behavior will be play
C) that the wolf is subordinate to whom he is bowing
D) that the following behavior will be aggressive
E) the wolf is ready to mate
Q2) learning
A)studied nest decorating behavior in birds
B)imprinting in goslings
C)capacity of an animal to complete complex, stereotyped responses to first-time encounters with key stimuli
D)problem solving without trial-and-error
E)behavior is modified by experience
F)voluntary behavior is modified in response to consequences of that behavior
G)communal display ground
H)occurs during a sensitive period in which a following response or social attachment becomes fixed on a particular moving object
I)self-sacrificing behavior
Q3) A behavior that has a genetic basis is subject to evolution by __________.
Q4) __________ allow animals of the same species to share information.
Page 46
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