Honors Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Honors Biology is an advanced introductory course designed for motivated students with a strong interest in the life sciences. This course explores foundational concepts such as cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, laboratory investigations, and the development of critical thinking and problem-solving skills. Students engage in hands-on experiments, analyze data, and connect biological principles to real-world issues, preparing them for further study in science and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 11th Edition by Lisa A. Urry
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Evolution, the Themes of Biology, and Scientific Inquiry
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the complexity of biological systems?
A) An understanding of the interactions between different components within a living system is an approach towards understanding reductionism.
B) Knowing the function of a component of a living system can provide insights into the structure and organization of the living system.
C) Understanding the chemical structure of DNA reveals how it directs the functioning of a living cell.
D) An ecosystem displays complex properties of the biotic component only.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following best describes a model organism?
A) It is often pictured in textbooks and is easy for students to imagine.
B) It is well studied, it is easy to grow, and results are widely applicable.
C) It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time.
D) It has been chosen for study by early biologists.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Which of the following are compounds?
A) H O, O , and CH
B) H O and O
C) O and CH
D) H O and CH , but not O
Answer: D
Q2) A neutral atom has two, eight, eight electrons in its first, second, and third energy levels. This information ________.
A) does not tell us about the atomic number of the element
B) does not tell us about the chemical properties of the element
C) does not tell us about the atomic mass of the element
D) does not tell us about the size of the element
Answer: C
Q3) How is a single covalent bond formed?
A) Two atoms share two pairs of electrons.
B) Two atoms share two electrons.
C) Two atoms share one electron.
D) One atom loses a pair of electrons to the other.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) Low humidity in the atmosphere on a hot day ________.
A) helps in cooling because skin absorbs water from the atmosphere
B) does not help in cooling because water evaporates from the skin faster
C) helps in cooling because water evaporates from the skin faster
D) does not help in cooling because skin absorbs water from the atmosphere
Answer: C
Q2) One mole (mol)of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons)is ________.
A) 180 × 10²³ molecules of glucose
B) 1 kilogram of glucose dissolved in 1 liter of solution
C) 180 mL of dissolved glucose
D) 180 grams of glucose
Answer: D
Q3) Sulfur is in the same column of the periodic table as oxygen, but has electronegativity similar to carbon. Compared to water molecules, molecules of H S will
A) have greater cohesion to other molecules of H S
B) have a greater tendency to form hydrogen bonds with each other
C) have a higher capacity to absorb heat for the same change in temperature
D) not form hydrogen bonds with each other
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
A) carbonyl and amino groups
B) carboxyl and amino groups
C) amino and sulfhydryl groups
D) hydroxyl and carboxyl groups
Q2) The kind and number of bonds an atom can form depends on ________.
A) its atomic number
B) its electron configuration
C) its atomic mass
D) the number of particles in its nucleus
Q3) Amino acids are acids because they always possess ________ as the functional group?
A) amino
B) carbonyl
C) carboxyl
D) phosphate
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
A) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers; hydrolysis reactions break polymers apart.
B) Dehydration reactions eliminate water from membranes; hydrolysis reactions add water to membranes.
C) Dehydration reactions and hydrolysis reactions assemble polymers from monomers.
D) Hydrolysis reactions create polymers, and dehydration reactions create monomers.
Q2) Saturated fats ________.
A) are more common in plants than in animals
B) have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids
C) are generally liquid at room temperature
D) contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats that consist of the same number of carbon atoms
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Spherocytosis is a human blood disorder associated with a defective cytoskeletal protein in the red blood cells (RBCs). What do you suspect is the consequence of such a defect?
A) abnormally shaped RBCs
B) an insufficient supply of ATP in the RBCs
C) an insufficient supply of oxygen-transporting proteins in the RBCs
D) adherence of RBCs to blood vessel walls, causing plaque formation
Q2) A newspaper ad for a local toy store indicates that an inexpensive toy microscope available for a small child is able to magnify specimens nearly as much as the more costly microscope available in your college lab. What is the primary reason for the price difference?
A) The toy microscope does not have the same fine control for focus of the specimen.
B) The toy microscope magnifies a good deal, but has low resolution and therefore poor quality images.
C) The toy microscope produces less contrast in the specimens.
D) The toy microscope usually uses a different wavelength of light source.
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Familial hypercholesterolemia is characterized by ________.
A) defective LDL receptors on the cell membranes
B) poor attachment of the cholesterol to the extracellular matrix of cells
C) a poorly formed lipid bilayer that cannot incorporate cholesterol into cell membranes
D) inhibition of the cholesterol active transport system in red blood cells
Q2) The force driving simple diffusion is ________, while the energy source for active transport is ________.
A) a concentration gradient; ADP
B) a concentration gradient; ATP hydrolysis
C) transmembrane pumps; an electrochemical gradient
D) phosphorylated carrier proteins; ATP
Q3) What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?
A) large and hydrophobic
B) small and hydrophobic
C) large polar
D) small and ionic
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9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as ________ is to ________.
A) exergonic; spontaneous
B) exergonic; endergonic
C) free energy; entropy
D) work; energy
Q2) Which of the following statements describes an example of cooperativity associated with enzyme regulation?
A) binding of the end product of a metabolic pathway to the first enzyme in the pathway to inhibit the enzyme
B) one enzyme in a metabolic pathway passing its product to act as a substrate for the next enzyme in the pathway
C) binding a substrate to one subunit of a tetramer stimulates faster binding of substrate to each of the other three subunits
D) binding of an ATP molecule along with another substrate molecule in the active site of the enzyme
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10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) An organism is discovered that thrives in both the presence and absence of oxygen. Interestingly, as oxygen is removed from the organism's environment, the rate of sugar consumption increases while the growth rate decreases. What do these observations suggest about the likely identity of this organism?
A) It is an unremarkable eukaryotic organism.
B) It is a photosynthetic organism.
C) It is an obligate anaerobic organism.
D) It is a facultative anaerobic organism.
Q2) Which of the following metabolic processes normally occurs regardless of whether or not oxygen (O )is present?
A) citric acid cycle
B) glycolysis
C) lactate fermentation
D) oxidative phosphorylation
Q3) In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvate, ________.
A) two molecules of ATP are used, and two molecules of ATP are produced
B) two molecules of ATP are used, and four molecules of ATP are produced
C) four molecules of ATP are used, and two molecules of ATP are produced
D) two molecules of ATP are used, and six molecules of ATP are produced
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?
A) NADPH O CO
B) H O NADPH Calvin cycle
C) NADPH chlorophyll Calvin cycle
D) NADPH electron transport chain O
Q2) Carbon dioxide is split to form oxygen gas and carbon compounds in which of the following metabolic pathways?
A) only photosynthesis
B) only respiration
C) photosynthesis and respiration
D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration
Q3) Which molecule is the final electron acceptor for electrons from photosystem I?
A) oxygen
B) chlorophyll in photosystem II
C) carbon dioxide
D) NADP
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Which of the following statements about a G protein signaling pathway is true?
A) A G protein-coupled receptor bound to GTP is in its active state.
B) A G protein bound to GTP is in its active state.
C) A G protein bound to GDP is in its active state.
D) Hydrolysis of bound GTP by a G protein activates the G protein.
Q2) Many G protein-coupled receptors contain seven transmembrane -helical domains. The amino end of the protein lies at the exterior of the plasma membrane. Loops of amino acids connect the helices either at the exterior surface or on the cytosolic surface of the membrane. The loop on the cytosolic side between helices 5 and 6 is usually substantially longer than the others. Where would you expect to find the carboxyl end of the protein?
A) at the exterior surface
B) at the cytosolic surface
C) connected with the loop at H5 and H6
D) embedded in the phospholipid bilayer of the membrane
Q3) Which of the following processes generally requires protein phosphorylation?
A) activation of receptor tyrosine kinases
B) activation of steroid hormone receptors
C) activation of G protein-coupled receptors
D) activation ligand-gated ion channels
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
Q2) At which phase of the cell cycle do centrioles begin to move apart in animal cells?
A) anaphase
B) telophase
C) metaphase
D) prophase
Q3) Once a cell enters mitosis, the molecules that activate division must be turned off.
What happens to MPF during mitosis?
A) It is completely degraded.
B) It is phosphorylated by a Cdk, which inactivates it.
C) The cyclin component of MPF is degraded.
D) The Cdk component of MPF is degraded.
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14
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct in comparing sexual and asexual reproduction?
A) Asexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is characteristic of only plants and fungi.
B) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit half of their nuclear genes to each of their offspring.
C) In asexual reproduction, offspring are produced by fertilization without meiosis.
D) Asexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring.
Q2) During which of the following phases of meiosis do centromeres split and sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles of the cell?
A) anaphase I
B) telophase I
C) anaphase II
D) telophase II
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) The individual with genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes. Which of the following correctly describes why this situation is possible?
A) recurrent mutations form new alleles
B) crossing over during prophase I leads to genetic variety
C) different possible assortment of chromosomes into gametes occurs
D) there is a tendency for dominant alleles to segregate together
Q2) Which of the following inheritance patterns describes the ability of a single allele to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A) incomplete dominance
B) multiple alleles
C) pleiotropy
D) epistasis
Q3) Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele. If a woman and her husband are both carriers, what is the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl?
A) 1/4
B) 1/16
C) 3/16
D) 3/8
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Mitochondrial DNA is primarily involved in coding for proteins needed for protein complexes of the electron transport chain and ATP synthase. Therefore, mutations in mitochondrial genes would most affect which of the following processes?
A) DNA synthesis in cells of the immune system
B) the movement of oxygen into erythrocytes
C) generation of ATP in muscle cells
D) the storage of urine in the urinary bladder
Q2) What does a recombination frequency of 50% indicate?
A) The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.
B) All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
C) The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
D) Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
Q3) Which of the following individuals will inherit an X-linked allele from a man who carries it?
A) all of his daughters
B) half of his daughters
C) all of his sons
D) all of his children
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17
Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around A) histones.
B) ribosomes.
C) polymerase molecules.
D) a thymine dimer.
Q2) You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). Which two classes of DNA do these different samples represent?
A) leading strands and Okazaki fragments
B) lagging strands and Okazaki fragments
C) Okazaki fragments and RNA primers
D) leading strands and RNA primers
Q3) The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis
A) progresses away from the replication fork.
B) occurs in the 3 5 direction.
C) produces Okazaki fragments.
D) depends on the action of DNA polymerase.
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Chapter 17: Gene Expression: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes a ribozyme?
A) It is a catalyst that uses RNA as a substrate.
B) It is an RNA with catalytic activity.
C) It is an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits.
D) It is an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process.
Q2) In the structural organization of many eukaryotic genes, individual exons may be related to which of the following?
A) the sequence of the intron that immediately precedes each exon
B) the number of polypeptides making up the functional protein
C) the various domains of the polypeptide product
D) the number of start sites for transcription
Q3) Which component is not directly involved in translation?
A) GTP
B) DNA
C) tRNA
D) ribosomes
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells?
A) Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections.
B) Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes.
C) Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk."
D) Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
A) the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
B) the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
C) the removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons
D) gene amplification contributing to cancer
Q3) Mutations in which of the following genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts?
A) segmentation genes
B) egg-polarity genes
C) homeotic genes
D) inducers
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) A bacterium is infected with an experimentally constructed bacteriophage composed of the T2 phage protein coat and T4 phage DNA. The new phages produced would have
A) T2 protein and T4 DNA.
B) T4 protein and T2 DNA.
C) T2 protein and T2 DNA.
D) T4 protein and T4 DNA.
Q2) Some viruses can be crystallized and their structures analyzed. One such virus is yellow mottle virus, which infects beans. This virus has a single-stranded RNA genome containing about 6,300 nucleotides. Its capsid is 25-30 nm in diameter and contains 180 identical capsomeres. If the yellow mottle virus begins its infection of a cell by using its genome as mRNA, which of the following would you expect to be able to measure when analyzing the reproduction of this virus?
A) replication rate
B) transcription rate
C) translation rate
D) formation of new transcription factors
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Page 21
Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a plasmid and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria is that ________.
A) prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes
B) bacteria translate only mRNAs that have multiple messages
C) bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns
D) bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA
Q2) Which of the following enzymes is required to make complementary DNA (cDNA)from RNA?
A) restriction enzymes (endonucleases)
B) helicase
C) DNA ligase
D) reverse transcriptase
Q3) For which of the following processes can dideoxyribonucleotides be used?
A) to separate different sized DNA fragments
B) to produce cDNA from mRNA
C) to sequence a DNA fragment
D) to visualize DNA expression
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22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) Several of the different globin genes are expressed in humans, but at different times in development. Which of the listed mechanisms could allow for this?
A) exon shuffling
B) pseudogene activation
C) differential translation of mRNAs
D) differential gene regulation over time
Q2) Which of the following processes is an early step in the whole-genome shotgun approach to sequencing?
A) break genomic DNA at random sites
B) map the position of cloned DNA fragments
C) randomly select DNA primers and hybridize these to random positions of chromosomes in preparation for sequencing
Q3) Which of the following statements is a correct representation of gene density?
A) Humans have 1,000 Mb per genome.
B) C. elegans has ~20,000 genes.
C) Humans have ~20,000 protein-encoding genes in a 3,000 Mb.
D) Saccharomyces has a genome 40 times the size of a human genome.
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23
Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A) V is most closely related to species W.
B) X is most closely related to species W.
C) Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D) It is not possible to say from this tree.
Q2) Which of the following statements best explains why modification or change in an organ or tissue during the lifetime of an individual is not inherited?
A) Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes.
B) Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits.
C) Only favorable adaptations have survival value.
D) Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance.
Q3) Many crustaceans (for example, lobsters, shrimp, and crayfish)use their tails to swim, but crabs have reduced tails that curl under their shells and are not used in swimming. This is an example of ________.
A) convergent evolution
B) a homologous structure
C) natural selection
D) a vestigial trait
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) In some jacana species, males take care of the eggs and young, and females compete among themselves for territories that contain one to several males. Female jacanas are significantly larger than males. Which of these statements would you predict to be true of this bird species?
1)Male jacana fitness is primarily limited by ability to take care of eggs and raise young.
2)Female jacana fitness is limited by the number of males in her territory with which a female mates.
3)Variation in reproductive success should be greater in male jacanas than in females.
4)Variation in reproductive success should be greater in female jacanas than in males.
5)Males and females have equal variation in reproductive success.
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 1, 2, and 4
D) 5
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) How can reproductive barriers form sympatric populations while their members remain in the same geographic area?
A) increased gene flow
B) polyploidy
C) decreased sexual selection
D) habitat sharing
Q2) Macroevolution is ________.
A) the same as microevolution, but includes the origin of new species
B) evolution above the species level
C) defined as the evolution of microscopic organisms into organisms that can be seen with the naked eye
D) defined as a change in allele or gene frequency over the course of many generations
Q3) Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the embryos stop developing after a day and then die. These two frog species separate by
A) reduced hybrid viability
B) hybrid breakdown
C) reduced hybrid fertility
D) gametic isolation
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) If one organ is an exaptation of another organ, then these two organs ________.
A) are homologous
B) are undergoing convergent evolution
C) are found in the same species
D) have the same function
Q2) Which of the following statements suggests natural selection as a mechanism in the evolution of ribozymes?
A) Single-stranded RNA has many shapes.
B) Replication of RNA is flawless.
C) Some strands of RNA replicate less often.
D) Some strands of RNA replicate more often and with more mutations.
Q3) Which hypothesis for the abiotic formation of organic molecules suggests that early Earth's atmosphere was a neutral atmosphere?
A) The energy for this synthesis could have come from lightning and UV radiation.
B) Some evidence suggests that the early atmosphere was made up primarily of nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
C) Amino acids were found near volcanic eruption sites.
D) Organic compounds were first produced in deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae)but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). If the molecular data best reflect the evolutionary history of these two groups, then the morphological similarities of these two species is most likely due to ________.
A) the inheritance of acquired characteristics
B) sexual selection
C) possession of analogous (convergent) traits
D) possession of shared primitive characters
Q2) Molecular clocks are more reliable when ________.
A) the surrounding pH is close to 7.0
B) most mutations of highly conserved DNA sequences should have no functional effect
C) the DNA codes for amino acid sequences whose side groups (or R groups) have a neutral pH
D) a significant proportion of mutations are not acted upon by natural selection
Q3) In a comparison of birds and mammals, the condition of having four limbs is
A) a shared ancestral character.
B) a shared derived character.
C) a character useful for distinguishing birds from mammals.
D) an example of analogy rather than homology.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) If plaque on teeth is actually a biofilm, which of the following characteristics would you expect to find in plaque?
A) multiple species of bacteria, production of chemicals that attract other bacteria, and production of chemicals that allow the bacteria to adhere to enamel
B) single species of bacteria, production of antibiotics, and mechanisms in the biofilm that allow inner cells to expel wastes
C) multiple species of bacteria, production of antibiotics, and mechanisms in the biofilm that allow inner cells to expel wastes
D) single species of bacteria, production of chemicals that attract other bacteria, and production of chemicals that allow the bacteria to adhere to enamel
Q2) Bacteria perform each of the following ecological roles. Which role typically does not involve symbiosis?
A) skin commensalist
B) decomposer
C) aggregator with methane-consuming archaea
D) gut mutualist
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Which of the following approaches would be most likely to cause evolution of a drug-resistant strain of Plasmodium?
A) widespread, frequent spraying to kill mosquitoes
B) use of a cocktail of three drugs in patients suffering from malaria
C) widespread, frequent use of a single drug in patients suffering from malaria
D) widespread use of anti-mosquito bed nets
Q2) Evidence that supports placing green algae and plants in the same phylogenetic group includes ________.
A) similarities in mitochondrial structure and enzyme sequences
B) similarities in chloroplast structure and pigment composition
C) similarities in cell wall and membrane structure
D) DNA sequence similarities in genes for ribosome structure
Q3) Similar to most amoebozoans, the forams and the radiolarians also have pseudopods, as do some of the white blood cells of animals (monocytes). If one were to erect a taxon that included all organisms that have cells with pseudopods, the taxon would ________.
A) be polyphyletic
B) be paraphyletic
C) be monophyletic
D) include all eukaryotes
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) The evolution of a vascular system in plants allowed which of the following to occur?
A) increased height, improved competition for water, and increased spore dispersal distances
B) increased height, improved competition for light, and increased spore dispersal distances
C) decreased height, improved competition for light, and decreased spore dispersal distances
D) decreased height, improved competition for water, and decreased spore dispersal distances
Q2) You are hiking in a forest and come upon a mysterious plant, which you determine is either a lycophyte sporophyte or a monilophyte sporophyte. Which of the following would be most helpful in determining the correct classification of the plant?
A) whether or not it has true leaves
B) whether it has microphylls or megaphylls
C) whether or not it has seeds
D) its height
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) Use the information to answer the following question. The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, a source of high-quality lumber, and a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can then enter and allow the remaining seeds to germinate.
Animals that consume Brazil nuts derive nutrition mostly from tissue whose nuclei have how many chromosomes?
A) 17
B) 34
C) 51
D) 68
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) The Neurospora genome is quite compact, lacking many of the noncoding DNA sequences that occur in humans and many other eukaryotes. Which of the following are probable benefits of the compactness of the genome?
A) The organism saves energy during cell division because fewer DNA bases must be duplicated.
B) It is more difficult for viruses to insert themselves into a compact genome.
C) There is less genetic variation that can lead to mutation.
D) The spores will be small and thus travel a greater distance.
Q2) Which of the following cells or structures are associated with asexual reproduction in fungi?
A) ascospores
B) basidiospores
C) zygosporangia
D) conidiophores
Q3) The multicellular condition of animals and fungi seems to have arisen ________.
A) due to common ancestry
B) by convergent evolution
C) by inheritance of acquired traits
D) by serial endosymbioses
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) At one time, sponges were lumped into one phylum. Then, they were separated into several different phyla. Now, they are considered one phylum again. These changes indicate which of the following?
A) Every phylogeny should be considered a hypothesis that must be revised in the light of new data.
B) We need more fossil evidence of sponges.
C) Molecular and morphological data often conflict when we try to reconstruct evolutionary history.
D) The goal of making all taxonomic groups monophyletic is unrealistic.
Q2) Which of these statements, if accurate, would support the claim that the ancestral cnidarians had bilateral symmetry?
A) Cnidarian larvae possess anterior-posterior, left-right, and dorsal-ventral aspects.
B) Cnidarians have fewer Hox genes than bilaterians.
C) All cnidarians are acoelomate.
D) The presence of collar cells.
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following statements about bryozoans (ectoprocts)is correct?
A) Bryozoans are colonial, build reefs, and are related to corals.
B) Bryozoans are colonial and live amongst mosses.
C) Adult bryozoans are sessile, but their larvae make up much of marine plankton.
D) Bryozoans build reefs and have lophophores that extend through a hard exoskeleton.
Q2) Use the following information to answer the question. Nudibranchs, a type of predatory sea slug, can have various protuberances (that is, extensions)on their dorsal surfaces. Rhinophores are paired structures, located close to the head, which bear many chemoreceptors. Dorsal plumules, usually located posteriorly, perform respiratory gas exchange. Cerata usually cover much of the dorsal surface and contain nematocysts at their tips.
The claws on the foremost trunk segment of centipedes have a function most similar to that of ________.
A) rhinophores
B) dorsal plumules
C) cerata
D) chemoreceptors
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Page 35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following statements about human evolution is correct?
A) Modern humans are the only human species to have evolved on Earth.
B) Human ancestors were virtually identical to extant chimpanzees.
C) Human evolution has occurred within an unbranched lineage.
D) The upright posture and enlarged brain of humans evolved separately.
Q2) Birds are descended from species that laid eggs in water. It could be argued that embryos of birds still develop in water because ________.
A) the shell keeps the embryo from drying out
B) the amnion encases each embryo in water
C) the chorion, allantois, and yolk sac provide embryos with nutrients and waste disposal
D) the amnion protect the embryo in the same way that a seed coat protects plant embryos of flowering plants
Q3) The earliest known mineralized structures in vertebrates are associated with ________.
A) feeding
B) locomotion
C) defense
D) respiration
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Vascular Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Monocot vascular bundles do not have a vascular cambium between the xylem and phloem. This means that monocots ________.
A) are much less efficient at conducting water and sugars
B) have very thin stems
C) do not produce wood in annual rings
D) cannot produce lateral shoots
Q2) Where is primary growth occurring in an old tree?
A) closest to ground level at the base of the tree
B) in young branches where leaves are forming
C) where the vascular cambium and cork cambium are located
D) Nowhere; trees more than a year old have only secondary growth.
Q3) Additional vascular tissue produced as secondary growth in a root originates from which cells?
A) vascular cambium
B) apical meristem
C) endodermis
D) xylem
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) The physical property that predicts the direction of water flow is referred as
A) potassium pump
B) water potential
C) osmotic potential
D) sodium pump
Q2) What is the function of proton pumps localized in the plant plasma membrane?
A) to transfer phosphorus groups from ATP to proteins
B) to transfer metal ions across the plasma membrane
C) to transfer anions across the plasma membrane
D) to create a membrane potential
Q3) Which structure or compartment is separate from the apoplastic route?
A) the lumen of a xylem vessel
B) the lumen of a sieve tube
C) the cell wall of a mesophyll cell
D) the cell wall of a root hair
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Which one of the following elements plays a critical role in the formation of chlorophyll?
A) magnesium
B) manganese
C) calcium
D) zinc
Q2) The B horizon of soil has ________.
A) living organisms and decaying organic matter
B) a mixture of broken soil with a variety of texture
C) much less organic matter than the A horizon
D) partially broken-down rock
Q3) Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant's supply of ________.
A) energy
B) carbohydrates
C) lipids and steroids
D) nitrogen and other minerals
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Q1) Among plants known as legumes (beans, peas, alfalfa, clover, for example), the seeds are contained in a fruit that is itself called a legume, better known as a pod. Upon opening such pods, it is commonly observed that some ovules have become mature seeds, whereas other ovules have not. Thus, which of the following statements is (are)true?
1)The flowers that gave rise to such pods were not pollinated.
2)Pollen tubes did not enter all of the ovules in such pods.
3)There was apparently not enough endosperm to distribute to all of the ovules in such pods.
4)The ovules that failed to develop into seeds were derived from sterile floral parts.
5)Fruit can develop, even if all ovules within have not been fertilized.
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 5
C) 2 and 5
D) 3 and 5
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Q1) You may have observed plants rotate towards a light source, thereby increasing the plant's ability to intercept light energy and increase photosynthesis. You, however, are given the task of preventing grass seedlings from rotating toward the light. Using your knowledge of phototropism, which of the following experimental procedures would you use to complete your task?
A) Cover the growing tip of the grass seedling with black paper.
B) Supply the seedlings with very dim light (red light does not induce a bend).
C) Cover the portion of the seedling below the tip with a black shield.
D) Supply the seedling with nutrient-rich fertilizer solution.
Q2) The rapid leaf movements resulting from a response to touch (thigmotropism)primarily involve ________.
A) potassium channels
B) nervous tissue
C) aquaporins
D) stress proteins
Q3) Plant hormones ________.
A) in plant cells naturally exist in very large amounts
B) change their shape in response to stimulus
C) are unable to move from one cell to another
Page 41
D) affect only cells with the appropriate receptor
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) In mammals, GH (growth hormone)is an endocrine signal that stimulates repair and growth of various tissues. Which of the following would be required for a tissue to respond to growth hormone?
A) the presence of a growth hormone receptor on the responding tissue
B) the responding tissue must be muscle
C) nerve cells must attach to the responding tissue for growth hormone to work
D) a voltage change must occur
Q2) Elephants can often be observed cooling off by spraying water over their bodies with their trunks. What type of heat exchange is occurring?
A) conduction
B) convection
C) radiation
D) evaporation
Q3) Compared with a smaller cell, a larger cell of the same shape has ________.
A) less surface area
B) less surface area per unit of volume
C) a smaller average distance between its mitochondria and the external source of oxygen
D) a smaller cytoplasm-to-nucleus ratio
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) The process by which digested dietary substances cross cell membranes to be used by the body is known as ________.
A) ingestion
B) digestion
C) hydrolysis
D) absorption
Q2) Food being digested in the stomach is in a highly acidic environment. When the food is released from the stomach into the small intestine, why is the environment no longer acidic?
A) Secretin increases the flow of bicarbonate ions from the pancreas into the small intestine to neutralize the stomach acid.
B) Trypsinogen is activated, thus neutralizing the stomach acid.
C) Bile salts from the gallbladder neutralize the stomach acid.
D) When pepsinogen activates pepsin, one result is the neutralization of stomach acid in the stomach.
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43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Hyperventilation (rapid inhalation and exhalation)can result in respiratory alkalosis (increased blood pH). Why?
A) Hyperventilation results in inefficient gas exchange, and not enough oxygen is absorbed by the blood.
B) More metabolic waste is released into the blood, thus reducing the pH.
C) Rapid breathing depletes the blood of carbon dioxide, thus the blood pH increases.
D) Excess production of carbon dioxide decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
Q2) Large proteins such as albumin remain in capillaries rather than diffusing out, resulting in the ________.
A) loss of osmotic pressure in the capillaries
B) development of an osmotic pressure difference across capillary walls
C) loss of fluid from capillaries
D) increased diffusion of hemoglobin
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Q1) What type of immunity is associated with breast feeding?
A) innate immunity
B) active immunity
C) passive immunity
D) cell-mediated immunity
Q2) The number of major histocompatibility (MHC)protein combinations possible in a given population is enormous. However, an individual in that diverse population has a far more limited array of MHC molecules because ________.
A) the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways
B) MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II
C) each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits two for each gene
D) once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) Like other osmoregulatory animals that live in marine environments, sharks maintain tissue concentrations of sodium, potassium, and chloride that are hypoosmotic to the seawater. In contrast to the bony marine fishes, however, sharks do not need to drink seawater. Why?
A) High urea and trimethylamine oxide concentrations keep shark tissues slightly hyperosmotic relative to seawater, so water is absorbed passively.
B) Sodium, chloride, and potassium do not influence water balance in shark tissues.
C) Shark blood is hypotonic to the surrounding tissues, so water always moves passively into the tissue from the blood.
D) Sharks excrete large quantities of salt through their gills in exchange for water
Q2) In which of the following species should natural selection favor the highest proportion of juxtamedullary nephrons?
A) a river otter
B) a mouse species living in a temperate broadleaf forest
C) a mouse species living in a desert
D) a beaver
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) Fight-or-flight reactions include activation of the ________.
A) parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
B) anterior pituitary gland, leading to cessation of gonadal function
C) adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine
D) pancreas, leading to a reduction in the blood sugar concentration
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a simple endocrine pathway?
A) control of metabolism by thyroid hormones
B) release of secretin by cells of the duodenum in response to acid
C) release of antidiuretic hormone from the posterior pituitary gland to regulate water balance
D) regulation of growth by the production of growth hormone
Q3) Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the ________.
A) cerebellum
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) anterior pituitary gland
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Two contraceptive methods that are considered permanent and that block the gametes from moving to a site where fertilization can occur are ________.
A) the male condom and female condom
B) the male condom and oral contraceptives
C) vasectomy and tubal ligation
D) the diaphragm and subcutaneous progesterone implant
Q2) Which hormone is released from the Sertoli cells that inhibits the release of follicle stimulating hormone?
A) inhibin
B) luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Q3) Regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows ________.
A) all types of asexual reproduction
B) fission
C) fragmentation
D) parthenogenesis
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) What structural adaptation in chickens allows them to lay their eggs in arid environments rather than in water?
A) extraembryonic membranes
B) yolk
C) cleavage
D) gastrulation
Q2) Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief ________.
A) mitosis
B) membrane depolarization
C) vitellogenesis
D) acrosomal reaction
Q3) Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers during ________.
A) determination
B) cleavage
C) induction
D) gastrulation
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Q1) Use the information in the table to answer the question. \(\begin{array}{|l|l|l|}
\hline\text { Ion } & \begin{array}{l}
\hline\text { Extracellular concentration } \\ (\mathrm{mM})
\end{array} & \begin{array}{l}
\hline \text { Intracellular concentration } \\ (\mathrm{mM}) \end{array} \\
\hline \mathrm{Na}^{+} & 300 & 50 \\
\hline \mathrm{K}^{+} & 40 & 350 \\ \hline \end{array}\)
Calculate the equilibrium potential for sodium. Assume a temperature of 37°C.
A) +48.2 mV
B) 0.0 mV
C) -58.4 mV
D) -80.0 mV
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) After narrowly escaping a mountain lion attack, which of the following reactions would your nervous system initiate?
A) increased heartbeat
B) constriction of airways
C) constriction of pupils
D) decreased heartbeat
Q2) The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with ________.
A) resting and digesting
B) release of epinephrine into the blood
C) increased metabolic rate
D) intensive aerobic exercise
Q3) Wakefulness is regulated by the reticular formation, which is present in the ________.
A) basal nuclei
B) cerebral cortex
C) brainstem
D) limbic system
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) The structure of the mammalian middle ear is adapted to convert ________.
A) air pressure waves to fluid pressure waves
B) fluid pressure waves to air pressure waves
C) air pressure waves to nerve impulses
D) fluid pressure waves to nerve impulses
Q2) Which of the following sensory receptors is incorrectly paired with its category?
A) hair cell-mechanoreceptor
B) snake pit organ-thermoreceptor
C) taste receptor-chemoreceptor
D) olfactory receptor-electromagnetic receptor
Q3) Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's capsaicin-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of ________.
A) cold temperature
B) hot temperature
C) tactile stimulus
D) deep pressure
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about certainty of paternity?
A) Certainty of paternity is high in most species with internal fertilization because the acts of mating and birth are separated by time.
B) Certainty of paternity is low when males guard females they have mated.
C) Certainty of paternity is low when egg laying and mating occur together, as in external fertilization.
D) Paternal behavior exists because it has been reinforced over generations by natural selection.
Q2) A lizard's bobbing dewlap (a colorful flap of skin hanging from an Anolis lizard's throat)is an example of a(n)________.
A) stimulus
B) reflex
C) signal
D) innate releasing mechanism
Q3) What type of signal is brief and can work among obstructions at night?
A) olfactory
B) visual
C) auditory
D) magnetic
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Page 53
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Which statements about dispersal are accurate?
I.Dispersal is a common component of the life cycles of plants and animals.
II.Colonization of devastated areas after floods or volcanic eruptions primarily depends upon climate.
III.Seeds are important dispersal stages in the life cycles of most flowering plants.
IV.Dispersal occurs only on an evolutionary time scale.
A) only I and III
B) only II and IV
C) only I, II, and IV
D) only II, III, and IV
Q2) Which of the following types of organisms is likely to have the widest geographic distribution?
A) bacteria
B) songbirds
C) bears
D) lizards
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54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Q1) Why does the U.S. population continue to grow even though the United States has essentially established a zero population growth (ZPG)?
A) emigration
B) immigration
C) baby boomer reproduction
D) the 2007-2009 economic recession
Q2) What is the primary limiting factor that determines why no female animal can produce a very large number of very large eggs?
A) Time is limited.
B) There are energy constraints.
C) Temperature constraints will prevent females from carrying too many eggs.
D) There will be an increase in predation pressure if the females carry too many large eggs.
Q3) During exponential growth, a population always ________.
A) grows at its maximum per capita rate
B) quickly reaches its carrying capacity
C) adds more new individuals when the population is small than when it is large
D) loses some individuals to emigration
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55
Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) Why is a pathogen generally more virulent in a new habitat?
A) Intermediate host species are more motile and transport pathogens to new areas.
B) Pathogens evolve more efficient forms of reproduction in new environments.
C) Hosts in new environments have not had a chance to become resistant to the pathogen through natural selection.
D) New environments are almost always smaller in area so that transmission of pathogens is easily accomplished between hosts.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?
A) a butterfly that resembles a leaf
B) a nonvenomous larva of a moth that moves like a venomous snake
C) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment
D) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish
Q3) The principle of competitive exclusion states that
A) two species cannot coexist in the same habitat.
B) competition between two species always causes extinction or emigration of one species.
C) two species that have exactly the same niche cannot coexist in a community.
D) two species will stop reproducing until one species leaves the habitat.
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?
A) adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability
B) using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine
C) reconfiguring the channel of a river
D) adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium
Q2) Consider the food chain of grass grasshopper mouse snake hawk. About how much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100 percent)is available to the hawk?
A) 0.01%
B) 0.1%
C) 1%
D) 10%
Q3) Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by
A) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia.
B) releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil.
C) converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb.
D) incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds.
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Q1) Researchers have been studying a rare population of 87 voles in an isolated area. Ten voles from a larger population were added to this isolated population. Besides having ten additional animals, what benefits are there to importing individuals?
A) There is no benefit other than increasing the overall population size.
B) Additional voles will strengthen competition and increase the survival of the fittest.
C) Additional animals would increase beneficial genetic drift.
D) Additional voles from a distant population will likely increase genetic diversity and reduce inbreeding.
Q2) Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because ________.
A) nitrogen-fixing bacteria are not as plentiful in agricultural soils because of the use of pesticides
B) the nutrients that become the biomass of plants are not cycled back to the soil on lands where they are harvested
C) land that is available for agriculture tends to be nutrient-poor
D) cultivation of agricultural land inhibits the decomposition of organic matter
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