History of Western Society
Final Exam
Course Introduction
History of Western Society explores the major social, political, cultural, and economic developments that have shaped the Western world from antiquity to the present. The course examines the evolution of Western ideas and institutions, tracing the contributions of ancient Greece and Rome, the impact of Christianity and the Middle Ages, the rise of nation-states, the Renaissance and Enlightenment, revolutions and industrialization, as well as the key movements and events of the modern era. Through critical analysis of primary sources, scholarly interpretations, and historical debates, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the forces and figures that have influenced Western society and its global interactions.
Recommended Textbook
Western Civilization 8th Edition by Jackson J. Spielvogel
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30 Chapters
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Chapter 1: the Ancient Near East: the First Civilizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most famous of the megalithic constructions of Europe is
A) Avebury.
B) Woodhenge.
C) Stonehenge.
D) Lascaux.
E) Altimira.
Answer: C
Q2) The focal points and sources of life for the ancient Egyptians were the
A) Nile River and the pharaohs.
B) herd animals and the temples.
C) Nile River and the military.
D) pharaoh and the stars.
E) pyramids and the sphinx.
Answer: A
Q3) Hieroglyphics means "mystery."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Agricultural Revolution
Answer: Not answer
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Chapter 2: the Ancient Near East: Peoples and Empires
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Q1) Cyrus the Great, the founder of the Persian Empire, was a member of the Achaemenid dynasty.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) All of the following are correct about Byblos except:
A) It was an Egyptian commercial center.
B) It was a Phoenician port city.
C) It was a distribution center for Egyptian papyrus.
D) The Greek word for book is derived from its name.
E) It was located in ancient Palestine.
Answer: A
Q3) Assyrian society was well known for its
A) assimilation of other cultures and development of a polyglot society.
B) manumission of slaves.
C) monumental cities.
D) monotheism.
E) monumental religious and burial structures.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: the Civilization of the Greeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The narrow pass where 9000 Greek hoplites held a Persian army of over 150,000 men for three days was
A) Salamis.
B) Marathon.
C) Boeotia.
D) Plataea.
E) Thermopylae.
Answer: E
Q2) The story that when told that the many Persian arrows would darken the sky, a Greek warrior supposedly said, "That is good news. We will fight in the shade," is associated with the Battle of Thermopylae.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The English archeologist who discovered and named Minoan civilization on Crete was Sir Arthur Evans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: the Hellenistic World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Philippics
Q2) Alexander the Great
Q3) The surviving works of the Greek historian Polybius demonstrate
A) his following of Thucydides in seeking rational motives for historical events.
B) his focus on the growth of the Greek city-states from their origins to their collapse.
C) the continued failure of ancient historians to find accurate, firsthand sources.
D) his reliance on the models of Herodotus and willingness to ascribe historical change to the intervention of gods.
E) his use of oral sources and myth to supplement non-written documents.
Q4) Euclid
Q5) Which class of women achieved the most notable gains during the Hellenistic period?
A) lower class
B) middle class
C) upper class
D) slaves
E) working class
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Chapter 5: the Roman Republic
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Q1) Struggle of the Orders
Q2) Compare and contrast Roman religion with the religion of the Greeks. How did its religion help Rome become such an important state?
Q3) The Struggle of the Orders
A) was a violent conflict between Rome's citizens and their slaves.
B) was a violent struggle between the patricians and plebeians.
C) was a peaceful struggle between the patricians and plebeians, won completely by the patricians.
D) was a peaceful revolution in which the plebeians were completely victorious.
E) was a peaceful struggle which resulted in political compromise.
Q4) Roman Senate
Q5) Plautus and Terence
Q6) the Rubicon
Q7) First Triumvirate
Q8) paterfamilias
Q9) Carthage and the Punic Wars
Q10) Julius Caesar
Q11) imperium
Q12) Julian calendar Page 7
Q13) Tiber River
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Chapter 6: the Roman Empire
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Sample Questions
Q1) The colonies of veterans established by Augustus throughout the empire proved especially valuable in
A) getting rid of external threats.
B) draining the imperial treasury of its funds.
C) drawing extra criticism to the emperor.
D) attracting new recruits to the army from frontier provinces.
E) Romanizing the provinces.
Q2) Sadducees and Pharisees
Q3) Compare and contrast the second century and the third century A.D. in the Roman Empire.
Q4) Perpetua
Q5) Ovid's The Art of Love
A) condemned the loose sexual morals of the Roman upper classes.
B) caused great displeasure to Augustus and led to Ovid's eventual exile.
C) was a guidebook for married women.
D) was a poetical treatise on romantic love.
E) all of the above
Q6) the Eucharist
Q7) the Silk Road
Q8) Zealots
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Chapter 7: late Antiquity and the Emergence of the Medieval World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Charles Martel
Q2) Visigoths and Ostrogoths
Q3) By 395, the western and eastern parts of the Roman Empire became virtually two independent states.
A)True
B)False
Q4) By the second half of the fourth century, German tribes, known as "federates," were incorporated into the Roman army.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Clovis
Q6) Hagia Sophia and Hippodrome
Q7) Saint Boniface
Q8) Beginning with Justinian, the center of the Byzantine presence in Italy was Rome. A)True
B)False
Page 10
Q9) What were Justinian's major goals and how did he try to achieve them? How successful was he in actually achieving those goals?
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Chapter 8: european Civilization in the Early Middle Ages,
750-1000
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Sample Questions
Q1) Charlemagne's most disappointing military campaign came against the A) Basques.
B) Avars.
C) Saxons.
D) Lombards.
E) Ostrogoths.
Q2) To what extent did the Catholic Church alter Germanic practices in regard to family, sexuality, and children?
Q3) serfs
Q4) In feudal Europe, a manor was
A) a wheeled plow used to turn heavy clay soils.
B) a light chain mail vest, worn over a hauberk.
C) a traditional way of cultivating relationships between ruler and ruled.
D) an agricultural estate owned by a lord and worked by peasants.
E) a polite way of treating a man of low birth.
Q5) Why does the author use the title, the "zenith of Byzantine civilization," to describe the Byzantine civilization of the ninth and tenth centuries?
Q6) Alcuin of York
Q7) Otto I
Page 12
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Chapter 9: the Recovery and Growth of European Society in the High Middle Ages
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Q1) By the twelfth century, divorce among nobles was
A) not possible except through official recognition that a marriage had never been valid.
B) increasingly common.
C) accepted and approved by the church.
D) not possible, even by annulment, as marriage was now a church sacrament.
E) possible only through a dispensation granted exclusively by kings.
Q2) A major cause of pollution in medieval cities was
A) the smell and waste of animals and humans.
B) spills of oil, a common fuel of the era.
C) the production of iron in urban smelters.
D) the use of lead paint in private and public buildings.
E) the lack of any sanitation facilities.
Q3) In which of the following places was significant landmass "reclaimed" from the sea?
A) Ireland.
B) Genoa.
C) Netherlands.
D) Spain.
E) Russia.
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Chapter 10: the Rise of Kingdoms and the Growth of Church
Power
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Q1) Because of its geographic exposure to constant invasions, the nobles who elected the German kings always chose a strong and capable figure for the throne.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What does the inquisition suggest about the relationships between society, the Catholic church as an institution, and political power?
Q3) Discuss specifically the role of monastic orders, old and new, in shaping the politics and culture of medieval Europe.
Q4) Saint Francis of Assisi
Q5) In 1071, at Manzikert, the Seljuk Turks defeated the A) Fatimids.
B) Normans.
C) Byzantines.
D) Germans.
E) Rus.
Q6) the Reconquista
Q7) Domesday Book
Q8) Alexander Nevsky
Page 14
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Chapter 11: the Later Middle Ages: Crisis and Disintegration in
the Fourteenth Century
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Q1) What was the main cause of the early fourteenth century famines?
A) a blight that struck the wheat crop
B) a lack of knowledge of scientific agriculture
C) droughts throughout most of Europe
D) a little ice age inducing bad weather with heavy rains
E) urban pollution that spread into nearby farming regions.
Q2) Evaluate the deep social, military, economic, and political consequences of the introduction and use of cannons and gunpowder.
Q3) Discuss the factors that led to the urban and rural revolts in the fourteenth century. Was desperate poverty a chief cause? Why or why not?
Q4) Petrarch's sonnets
Q5) The French government and aristocracy responded to the Jacquerie by
A) drafting the rebels into the army.
B) standing back and letting it run its course.
C) negotiating a settlement with its leaders.
D) massacring the participants.
E) renouncing their historic privileges.
Q6) Christine de Pizan
Q7) Henry V
Page 15
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Chapter 12: recovery and Rebirth: the Age of the Renaissance
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Q1) The reintroduction of slavery in the fourteenth century occurred largely as a result of A) continued warfare and the capture of foreign prisoners.
B) the shortage of workers created by the Black Death.
C) papal decrees encouraging a paternal relationship with pagans.
D) movements for Italian naval domination of the Mediterranean and the attendant need of manpower.
E) the importation of slaves from Africa.
Q2) Constantinople and 1453
Q3) The Third Estate of the fifteenth century was
A) predominantly urban.
B) essentially free from the manorial system, especially in eastern Europe.
C) relatively free from violence and disease in urban areas.
D) overwhelmingly made up of peasants.
E) made up of clergy and nobles.
Q4) Lorenzo the Magnificent
Q5) Upper and middle-class women were expected to involve themselves in public and civic affairs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: reformation and Religious Warfare in the
Sixteenth Century
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Q1) Thomas a Kempis' Imitation of Christ
Q2) The Reformation successfully abolished all of the following from the lives of Europe's Protestant community except for A) indulgences.
B) the celebrations of religious saints' days.
C) taverns.
D) clerical celibacy.
E) monasteries and nunneries.
Q3) Zwingli's interpretation of the Lord's Supper differed from Luther's in that
A) Luther held to the Catholic belief in transubstantiation.
B) Luther said that the ceremony was totally symbolic.
C) Zwingli said the ceremony was only symbolic and that no real transformation in the bread and wine occurred.
D) Luther claimed the ceremony was only symbolic and that no transformation in the bread and wine occurred.
E) Zwingli held to the belief called consubstantiation.
Q4) the Edict of Worms
Q5) Protestant education
Q6) Geneva
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Chapter
1500-1800
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Q1) Catholic Christianity failed to take root in China in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries because
A) of opposition from Jesuit missionaries.
B) of opposition from Protestant missionaries.
C) of opposition by the pope to "ancestor worship."
D) the Chinese were just not religious.
E) of the success of Hindu missionaries, who were closer to Chinese Buddhism in tradition.
Q2) Treaty of Tordesillas
Q3) Before the nineteenth century, which nation(s) or continent was least affected by European power and influence?
A) China and Japan
B) Africa
C) North America
D) South America
E) India
Q4) Given its relatively small population and lack of obvious resources, why was the Dutch Republic so successful in establishing a profitable overseas empire?
Q5) "Black Hole of Calcutta"
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Chapter 15: state Building and the Search for Order in the
Seventeenth Century
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Q1) Define absolutism and determine to what extent France's government in the seventeenth century can be labeled an absolute monarchy.
Q2) Rembrandt van Rijn
Q3) Levellers
Q4) The uprising in France that nearly overthrew Louis XIV early in his reign was the A) Vendee.
B) Marseillaise.
C) Fronde.
D) Jacquerie.
E) Revolution.
Q5) the Hohenzollerns
Q6) The capital of the Habsburg Empire was in A) the Ukraine.
B) Poland.
C) Austria.
D) Bavaria.
E) Turkey.
Q7) Puritans
Q8) Peter the Great Page 19
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Q1) Why were seventeenth-century European intellectuals so intent on developing methods of study for entire bodies and specific fields of human knowledge? What did it mean then to become a methodical (or systematic) thinker or researcher?
Q2) Concerning the first important scientific societies, the French Academy differed from the English Royal Society in the former's A) government support and control.
B) publication of scientific journals.
C) focus on theoretical work in mechanics and astronomy.
D) belief that science should proceed along the lines of a cooperative venture. E) lack of support by the French government.
Q3) The Scientific Revolution was not a revolution that explosively changed and rapidly overthrew traditional authority, but its results were truly revolutionary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dialogue on the Two Chief World Systems
Q5) geocentric universe
Q6) four bodily humors
Q7) On the Motion of the Heart and Blood
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Chapter 17: the Eighteenth Century: an Age of Enlightenment
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Q1) The recognized capital of the Enlightenment was
A) Geneva.
B) Berlin.
C) London.
D) Vienna.
E) Paris.
Q2) Salons were
A) literary-minded gatherings where advanced ideas were discussed.
B) luxurious carriages designed for long trips in the country.
C) another name for bordellos.
D) taverns in the poor districts where riots often started.
E) lavish parties at court where nobles were entertained.
Q3) Isaac Newton was influential on the eighteenth century Enlightenment because of his theory of knowledge and his concept of the tabula rasa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neoclassicism
Q5) Balthasar Neumann
Q6) Antoine Watteau
Q7) laissez-faire Page 22
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Chapter 18: the Eighteenth Century: European States, International Wars, and Social Change
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Q1) potatoes and maize
Q2) Pugachev's rebellion broke out after
A) a bad harvest caused massive starvation in Poland.
B) Prussia successfully invaded Russia and stole half of the Ukraine.
C) Catherine II worsened conditions for the peasantry.
D) Catherine II tried to draft peasants into the army.
E) Peter the Great imposed new taxes on the people.
Q3) Politically, the period from 1715 to 1789 witnessed
A) the rise of the masses in politics as advocated by the philosophes.
B) the waning of monarchical power.
C) the continuing process of centralization in the development of nation-states.
D) "enlightened absolutism" establish its deepest roots in France.
E) a decline in bureaucratic structures and more laissez-faire types of government.
Q4) French-Indian War
Q5) Of the great powers, only Great Britain had no regular standing army, often relying upon German mercenaries to fight their battles.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Bank of England
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Chapter 19: a Revolution in Politics: the Era of the French Revolution and
Napoleon
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Q1) Just prior to the Revolution in France, the number of the poor in France
A) actually declined.
B) went up significantly.
C) increased very slowly.
D) remained fairly constant.
E) a and d
Q2) Which of the following statements best applies to Napoleon's domestic policies?
A) Much autonomy was given to the provincial departments as the previous system of prefects was overhauled.
B) His "new aristocracy" was actually little different from the old, as it was based on privilege and wealth.
C) His Civil Code reaffirmed the ideals of the Revolution while creating a uniform legal system.
D) As a devout Catholic, he reestablished Catholicism as the official state religion.
E) He abolished most of the civilian bureaucracy, preferring to govern by military rule.
Q3) escape to Varennes
Q4) Committee of Public Safety
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Chapter 20: the Industrial Revolution and Its Impact on European Society
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Q1) James Watt and the rotary engine
Q2) the workhouse
Q3) Compare and contrast the patterns of industrialization in continental Europe and the United States with that of Great Britain.
Q4) cotton industry
Q5) Many of the exhibits shown in the Great Exhibition of 1851 were housed in the Crystal Palace, a giant building constructed of glass and iron.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss and trace the role of the factory in the early Industrial Revolution. What made the factory system possible? What impact did it have on the lives of workers, especially on women and children?
Q7) Assume that you are a small landowner who lost his land due to economic changes in the British countryside. In a brief essay, explain your changed position and lifestyle as you and your family move to Manchester to gain employment in one of the new factories.
Page 26
Q8) Did governments do more to promote the interests of workers or of employers, and why?
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Chapter 21: reaction, Revolution, and Romanticism,
1815-1850
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Q1) Discuss the major ideas of Romanticism and show why they were related to the social, artistic, and literary forces of the age.
Q2) Which one of the following was the English political party in power until 1830, the party that represented tradition?
A) Tories.
B) Republicans.
C) Checkers.
D) Whigs.
E) Democrats.
Q3) Giuseppe Garibaldi founded the organization Young Italy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Germanic Confederation
Q5) Sir Walter Scott
Q6) Louis Blanc and Flora Tristan
Q7) Caspar David Friedrich, J.M.W. Turner and Eugene Delacroix
Q8) Concert of Europe
Q9) Louis Kossuth Page 27
Q10) Ludwig von Beethoven and Hector Berlioz
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Chapter 22: an Age of Nationalism and Realism, 1850-1871
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Q1) Auguste Comte was responsible for
A) posing an evolutionary theory akin to Darwin's.
B) founding the discipline of sociology.
C) helping to remove theology as a subject from university curricula.
D) integrating science with religion.
E) establishing a utopian community just outside Paris.
Q2) Charles Darwin was influenced by Thomas Malthus' theory of population that claimed that more individuals are born than can possibly survive and that thus there must be struggle for existence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "iron and blood" and Realpolitik
Q4) Mexico and Emperor Maximilian
Q5) Lincoln's Emancipation Proclamation
Q6) battles of Magenta and Solferino
Q7) Elizabeth Blackwell
Q8) On the Origin of Species
Q9) Count Otto von Bismarck
Q10) Ausgleich
Q11) Charles Dickens Page 29
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Chapter 23: mass Society in an "Age of Progress," 1871-1894
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Q1) the Football Association and National and American Leagues
Q2) Splits between the French working and middle classes
A) were largely solved by the liberal reforms of the Third Republic.
B) enabled the Third Republic to elect a new monarch in 1875.
C) led to a strong parliamentary system of government.
D) were further widened by the brutal suppression of the Paris Commune in 1871.
E) ended in the light of continued Prussian threats to France's national survival.
Q3) The Irish parliamentary leader who demanded home-rule for Ireland in the 1880s was
A) William Gladstone.
B) William Butler Yeats.
C) Edward Fitzgerald.
D) Wolfe Tone.
E) Charles Parnell.
Q4) "yellow press"
Q5) Kulturkampf
Q6) Lord Tennyson's The Princess
Q7) Irish Home Rule
Q8) Reform Act of 1884
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Q1) Social Darwinists such as Herbert Spencer argued that to ensure the survival of the fittest, the state should abandon laissez-faire and intervene to fix and preserve existing economic and social societal relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q2) the "new woman"
Q3) The higher criticism of the Bible championed by the French Catholic scholar Ernst Renan
A) confirmed the accuracy of the Bible as a guide to Christian history.
B) questioned the historical accuracy of the Bible and denied the divinity of Jesus.
C) found the New Testament to be far more recent in composition than previously believed.
D) cast doubt on the authenticity of the letters of Paul.
E) gave intellectual support for the divine authorship of the Bible.
Q4) Triple Alliance
Q5) Emile Zola and Leo Tolstoy
Q6) Einstein wrote the equation M=ec²
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: the Beginning of the Twentieth-century Crisis: War and Revolution
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Q1) The German High Command supported Lenin in his attempts to sow chaos in Russia in early 1917.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What was the state that was a thorn in Austria-Hungary's side and a primary cause of World War I?
A) Slovenia
B) Bulgaria
C) Greece
D) Italy
E) Serbia
Q3) Which of the following trends helped lead to the outbreak of the Great War?
A) conservative leaders hoped to crush internal democratic movements through war
B) European generals adopted new military policies
C) European states felt they had to uphold the power of their allies for their own internal security
D) the downward spiral of European economies
E) the dismantling of Europe's overseas empires
Q4) Who "won" World War I, and what did they "win"?
Q5) Germany's War Raw Materials Board
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Chapter 26: the Futile Search for Stability: Europe Between
the Wars, 1919-1939
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Q1) In Great Britain, the government brought the country out of the worst of the Great Depression by 1936 using the new and radical economic ideas of John Maynard Keynes, who advocated public works and deficit spending as the solution for unemployment and economic depression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Great Depression
Q3) Hitler's anti-Semitic policies in the 1930s
A) included the Nuremberg laws, which centered on the forced emigration of all Jews from Germany.
B) were emulated in France by the Popular Front.
C) did not exclude Jews from legal, medical, and teaching positions.
D) would remain minimal and unorganized until World War II.
E) reached their most violent phase during Kristallnacht, with attacks on Jewish homes, businesses, and synagogues.
Q4) Bauhaus School and Walter Gropius
Q5) Weimar Republic
Q6) Werner Heisenberg and the uncertainty principle
Q7) Kurt Weill's The Threepenny Opera
Page 34
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Chapter 27: the Deepening of the European Crisis: World War
Ii
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Q1) At the Munich Conference in 1938, Hitler demanded the right to annex the German-speaking area of ____ into the Third Reich.
A) Poland.
B) Austria.
C) Russia.
D) Czechoslovakia.
E) Belgium.
Q2) The Nazi Empire was
A) strictly organized into efficient states that paid tribute to Germany.
B) never much larger than the size of present-day Germany and Austria.
C) never organized systematically or governed efficiently despite German claims to the contrary.
D) for the most part composed of independent states that collaborated with Hitler.
E) a and d
Q3) Luftwaffe
Q4) Big Three
Q5) Yalta
Q6) When and why did the initiative in World War II pass out of Germany's hands?
Q7) Albert Speer
35
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Chapter 28: cold War and a New Western World, 1945-1965
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121 Verified Questions
121 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In June 1947, the United States initiated the European Recovery Program, better known as
A) the Domino Theory.
B) the Marshall Plan.
C) containment.
D) capitalism.
E) the Long Telegram.
Q2) Andy Warhol and Pop Art
Q3) At the close of World War II, who inherited the European tradition of power politics?
A) China and the Soviet Union
B) independent peoples everywhere
C) the Soviet Union and the United States
D) the United States alone
E) nobody because nothing changed
Q4) One of the most significant events of the Khrushchev regime was Khrushchev's denunciation of Stalin in 1956.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mahatma Gandhi and an "orgy of blood"
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Chapter
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Reagan Revolution extended welfare benefits to the poor and balanced the federal budget.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Willy Brandt and Ostpolitik
Q3) Timothy Leary and LSD
Q4) In what ways does the post-World War II feminist movement resemble the feminist movement of the nineteenth century? In what ways is it different?
Q5) The issue that led to Jimmy Carter's defeat in 1980 was
A) the collapse of oil prices.
B) his pardoning of Richard Nixon.
C) the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan.
D) his affair with a White House intern.
E) his inability to gain the release of American hostages held in Iran.
Q6) Compare and contrast America war in Vietnam and the Soviet Union's conflict in Afghanistan.
Q7) Lech Walesa and Solidarity
Q8) Second Vietnam War
Q9) the Vietcong Page 37
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Chapter 30: after the Fall: the Western World in a Global Age (Since
1985)
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129 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bill Clinton
Q2) Vladimir Putin
Q3) Saddam Hussein and weapons of mass destruction
Q4) All of the following led to decline in George W. Bush's popularity by his second term as president except
A) his strong support for environmental programs that were opposed by major business interests.
B) the war in Iraq.
C) tax cuts that primarily benefitted the wealthy.
D) poor handling of the relief efforts after Hurricane Katrina.
E) financial corruption in the Republican Party.
Q5) What forces have conspired to cause the return of racism, war crimes, and genocide in the Balkans? How did the reformations or reformulations of society, politics, and culture in the region after World War II lay the ground work for current upheavals there?
Q6) Did Mikhail Gorbachev cause the Soviet Union to collapse?
Q7) the euro
Q8) Bosnia
Q9) Czech Republic and Slovakia
Page 39
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Page 40