History of Modern Europe Final Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores the major political, social, economic, and cultural developments in Europe from the late eighteenth century to the present. Students will examine transformative events such as the French Revolution, the Industrial Revolution, nationalism, imperialism, the world wars, the Cold War, and the process of European integration. Emphasis is placed on understanding the causes and consequences of these events, the evolution of modern ideologies, the impact of technological advancements, and the shifting identities within European societies. By analyzing key historical documents, movements, and figures, students will gain a deeper appreciation of Europes dynamic role in shaping the modern world.
Recommended Textbook
Making Europe The Story of the West 2nd Edition by Frank L. Kidner
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Chapter 1: The Origins of Western Civilization in the Ancient
Near East,3000-1200 BCE
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Q1) What was Akhenaton's most significant contribution to the New Kingdom in Egypt?
A) surrendering to the Hyksos.
B) forming an alliance with Assyria.
C) capturing Nubia and integrating it into the Egyptian Empire.
D) revising the religion of Egypt to focus only on one god.
E) declaring war on Sumeria.
Answer: D
Q2) What technical and cultural hallmarks were contributed by civilizations of the eastern Mediterranean and the Near East?
Answer: Answers can vary.Students should be able to identify that writing was one of the major hallmarks of early civilization,coming from Egypt in the form of hieroglyphics and Sumeria in the form of cuneiform writing.The use of bronze in aesthetics,tools,and military equipment is also significant.Building technology in the ziggurats of Mesopotamia and the pyramids of Egypt had both economic and religious significance.Each civilization contributed significantly to science and astronomy: Babylonian math and astronomy worked around a base 60 system,while the Egyptians developed one of the most accurate calendars of the early world by tracking the seasons against the dog-star Sirius.
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Q1) The Persian state religion promoted by Zoroaster relied on written texts called the A) Torah.
B) Zend Avesta.
C) Kethuvim.
D) Prophecies.
E) Sacred Scrolls of Aton.
Answer: B
Q2) One of the main reasons why the Hebrews' religion was so constant was because A) they wrote it down in scripture.
B) they had a dedicated cult of oral recitation.
C) it became widespread and popular.
D) it fully integrated religion and government into a theocracy.
E) None of these.
Answer: A
Q3) Phoenician warships were primarily powered by sails.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter
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Q1) Homosocialization among men included typically sexual relations between an older man and a teenage boy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Spartan women were
A) given more freedom than women in other poleis in Greece.
B) encouraged to maintain physical health and beauty.
C) able to inherit and own property.
D) allowed to engage in military activities.
E) All of these were true about Spartan women.
Answer: E
Q3) People's status in Greek society was largely determined by A) wealth.
B) in what part of the polis they lived.
C) the right to vote.
D) family and kinship.
E) property ownership.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: From Polis To Cosmopolis: The Hellenistic
World,387-30 BCE
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Q1) Aristotle's opinion on change was that
A) the gods willed change to happen when they so desired.
B) the world was defined by the manner in which change happened.
C) change was the misperception by unenlightened thinkers, and that perfect forms existed in unchanging form.
D) change was the result of imperfections dying out.
E) the world changed on a regular basis and we could only study it.
Q2) The most demanding of the mystery cults was devoted to
A) Mithra.
B) Isis.
C) Demeter.
D) Athena.
E) Cybele.
Q3) The main goal of the Maccabean Revolt in 167 B.C.E.was
A) political independence.
B) imparting adherence to Hellenistic culture.
C) overthrowing the Sadducees.
D) approving the Septuagint.
E) creating an environment of religious toleration.
Q4) What measures did Alexander take to try and create a unified empire?
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Chapter 5: The Rise of Rome,753-27 BCE
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Q1) Why did the Conflict of the Orders occur?
A) The patricians wanted to lessen their responsibilities in client-patron relationships.
B) The Praetorian Guard attempted to overthrow the senate.
C) The Romans wanted to expel the Etruscan king.
D) The plebians wanted more power in the Republic.
E) There was no written law code to set precedents and standards.
Q2) At the end of the first Punic War in 241 B.C.E.,the
A) Roman navy was ambushed off the port of Syracuse.
B) Romans sacked Carthage.
C) Romans gained Sicily.
D) Romans were defeated by the Greek general Pyrrhus.
E) Roman Senate declared an end to an unpopular war.
Q3) What was Hannibal's surprise strategy in the second Punic War?
A) To invade southern Italy with the assistance of displaced Greeks.
B) To lay siege to the Roman provinces on Corsica and Sardinia.
C) To use Numidian land troops to provoke the Romans to attack in Gaul.
D) To use diverse forces and attack by land, crossing the Alps into northern Italy.
E) To entrap and burn the Roman navy in the straits between Sicily and Carthage.
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Q1) Why did the emperors debase the coinage in the third century?
A) The Senate had to be bought off.
B) The army had received raises that the treasury could not afford.
C) There was a trade imbalance with India.
D) Because of an outbreak of plague, there was less money collected in taxes.
E) The emperors were redirecting the wealth to their own amici.
Q2) What is considered to be one of the greatest factors of identification with Rome allowed in the provinces?
A) inclusion in the new Roman coinage system was based on denarii.
B) all official business was transacted in Latin.
C) the annual provincial councils could transmit their opinions and concerns to the emperor.
D) Roman citizenship was extended to inhabitants of the provinces.
E) provincial proconsuls in service were circulated throughout the empire.
Q3) Why did the Roman army fall out of control in the third century?
A) Their salaries became worthless with debased coinage.
B) They would overthrow an emperor to get a donative from a new one.
C) They declared their commanders as emperors.
D) They would march on Rome to force the Senate to choose their candidate.
E) All of these.
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Chapter 7: Late Antiquity,284-527
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Q1) Both Christian and pagan literary works were preserved in what form?
A) manuscript
B) inscriptions
C) codex
D) scrolls
E) books
Q2) The Vulgate was a translation of the Old and New Testament into English by Jerome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In what way was Theodosius I responsible for the advancement of Christianity within the Empire? How did this affect the relationship between Church and State?
Q4) What role did Christianity offer women? How did this contrast with opportunities in the Roman Empire?
Q5) Explain the significance of Constantine's conversion to Christianity and its effect on religion in the Roman Empire.
Q6) What was the significance of Constantine shifting the capital of the Roman Empire to Constantinople from Rome?
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Chapter 8: The Eastern Mediterranean,500-1000
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Q1) Similarities between both Muslim and Jewish populations include all of the following except
A) circumcision.
B) a ban on the consumption of pork.
C) a ban on drinking alcohol.
D) fear of idolatry.
E) polygamy.
Q2) The Muslim leaders in Spain sought to expand into which area after defeat of the Umayyads?
A) across the Pyrenees
B) across the Straits of Gibralter
C) across the Alps
D) across the Appenines
E) across the Mediterranean
Q3) The Cyrillic alphabet is derived from Greek.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Analyze the expansion of the Islamic Empire in terms of its development and assimilation.
Q5) What were the significant military reforms made in the Byzantine Middle Period?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Kingdoms of Western Europe,500-1000
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Q1) The Divine Office was a term for the religious aspirations held by a person entering a monastery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the course of their exploration and raids,the Vikings went to all of the following areas except A) Iceland.
B) Russia.
C) England.
D) America.
E) India.
Q3) In his capital at Aachen,Charlemagne created a center of learning and sophistication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What was the difference between a serf and a peasant on a medieval manor?
Q5) What criteria allowed bishops to become so powerful? What were their areas of authority and related duties?
Q6) How did Otto I effectively centralize his authority and solidify his empire?
Q7) Explain the significance of the Treaty of Verdun.
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Chapter 10: The High Middle Ages,1000-1300
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Q1) The sect that espoused the belief that the material world was evil and that everything of the spirit was good were the ____.
A) Waldensians
B) Hussites
C) Albigensians
D) Dominicans
E) Poor Clares
Q2) What contributed to the growth of universities in the Middle Ages?
Q3) The Fourth Crusade in 1204 successfully conquered Jerusalem.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pope Urban II's call for the Crusades was spread throughout Europe by A) papal decree.
B) monks.
C) knights.
D) royal messengers.
E) troubadors.
Q5) How did the Capetian dynasty in particular engage in the centralization of authority?
Q6) How did the rise of commercialism in Western Europe affect labor specialization?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Reversals and Disasters,1300-1450
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Q1) Peasant revolts in the fourteenth century were often based on their resentment over A) agricultural quotas.
B) conscription into the king's army.
C) lack of response during the plague.
D) increased taxation to pay for wars.
E) lack of trade opportunities for peasants.
Q2) Alexander Nevsky led Russia's resistance to the Golden Horde. A)True
B)False
Q3) Physicians dealing with the plague at this time tried all of the following except A) blood-letting.
B) astrology.
C) herbal medicine.
D) prayer.
E) isolation.
Q4) What were the origins of the conflict that resulted in the Avignon papacy?
Q5) What factors made the fourteenth century seem much more precarious than the thirteenth century?
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Chapter 12: The Renaissance in Italy and Northern
Europe,1350-1550
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Q1) One of the main ways families in the fifteenth century could demonstrate their wealth and status was through
A) patronage of the arts.
B) donations to a church.
C) sending their sons to universities.
D) buying material goods for decoration.
E) going on a pilgrimage.
Q2) The power of combining Poland and Lithuania defeated the Teutonic Knights. A)True
B)False
Q3) Why was Emmanuel Chrysoloras important to the Italian Renaissance?
A) He wrote The Prince.
B) He reintroduced Greek scientific works to the West.
C) He translated the New Testament from Greek.
D) He brought the political writings of Cicero to the Florentines.
E) He introduced the artistic technique of perspective to painters from the East.
Q4) What were the significant differences between the Italian and the Northern Renaissance?
Q5) Trace the shift in dynastic politics in England in the fifteenth century.
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Chapter 13: Europes Age of Expansion, 1450 1550
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Q1) The Reconquista in Spain was completed with the capture of which city?
A) Toledo
B) Aragon
C) Granada
D) Seville
E) Barcelona
Q2) A significant difference in Russian policy versus that of Spain's was that Russia
A) welcomed settlement of Jews into a region known as "The Pale"
B) forbade slavery within their Imperial territories
C) demanded adherence to the Eastern Orthodox Church
D) prohibited the Orthodox church from missionary activity
E) None of the above.
Q3) Henry VII's (Tudor)most important achievements were all of the following except
A) increasing his treasury by receiving tax money.
B) establishing judicial councils that operated in a streamlined,efficient,and speedy fashion.
C) imposing English power over Scotland and Ireland.
D) cementing political alliances through prosperous marriages.
E) allying with France against the Holy Roman Empire.
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Chapter
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Q1) Martin Luther's challenge to the church was largely over his objection to A) indulgences.
B) the concept of transubstantiation.
C) whether naturally sinful humans could choose to do good works.
D) the idea that priests were free of sin and thus able to offer sacraments.
E) any Biblical requirement of communion.
Q2) The deciding factors for what type of religious reforms would be made in Europe were chosen by
A) individual religious leaders.
B) community consensus.
C) nobles, rulers, and local communities.
D) the Treaty of Cateau Chambresis.
E) none of these.
Q3) Queen Elizabeth I's position on religion was
A) ardently in support of the Church of England.
B) sympathetic toward Catholicism.
C) strongly leaning toward Calvinism.
D) in favor of a middle way to achieve compromise.
E) completely neutral because she was an agnostic.
Q4) What role did Erasmus play in the Reformation?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: A Century of Crisis,1550-1650
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Q1) What is political absolutism?
A) The ability of the king to rule without any challenges to his authority
B) The necessity of shared governance between a king and parliament
C) The definition of a king's powers under an explicitly constructed contract or constitution
D) A king who is both head of the temporal and religious authority within his kingdom
E) None of these.
Q2) French Protestants were called
A) Huguenots.
B) Moriscos.
C) Anabaptists.
D) Puritans.
E) Presbyterians.
Q3) How did the nature of war change over the course of the seventeenth century?
Q4) What problems did the Stuart kings in England face in implementing absolutism,compared to rulers in France?
Q5) The greatest stimulation to the Dutch economy was from ships and shipping. A)True B)False
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Chapter 16: State-Building and the European State
System,1648-1789
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Q1) One reason for the success of the parlements in France was
A) they granted tax free status to the nobility.
B) service in these courts of law exempted a person from military service.
C) citizens of France believed they could get a fairer trial than with the church or local courts.
D) the parlements had intendants tracking local tax records.
E) the parlements were believed to be a stepping stone to a constitution.
Q2) The Treaty of Carlowitz united Hungary with the Habsburg territory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the 1670s,the English Parliament was controlled by which faction?
A) Anglicans
B) Catholics
C) Puritans
D) Dissenters
E) None of these
Q4) What were the major successes of Catherine the Great? What were some of her limitations?
Page 18
Q5) Analyze the transformation of England into a constitutional monarchy.Why was this transformation called the Glorious Revolution?
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Chapter 17: The Scientific Revolution and the Enlightenment,1550-1790
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Q1) What was the main purpose for the meeting of freemasons?
A) To discuss scientific progress and publications
B) To subvert Catholicism through intellectual debate
C) To form a network for the financial interests of guild members
D) To create a fraternity for social interaction
E) To conspire to overthrow the government
Q2) Which philosopher argued against slavery?
A) Hobbes
B) Locke
C) Montesquieu
D) Rousseau
E) Jefferson
Q3) How did the evolution of the coffee house and the salon advance ideas of the Enlightenment?
Q4) What factors contributed to the new way of thinking about the universe during the Scientific Age?
Q5) Abbé Raynal believed that Europeans were manifesting God's destiny in colonizing North America.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
18: Trade and Empire,1700-1800
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Q1) One of the primary goals of the Navigation Acts was to limit trade access by the Dutch in British territories.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sugar was one of the major staple crops of the Jamestown Company.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What was the main transport in the Middle Passage leg of the Atlantic Triangle Trade?
A) Cotton
B) Sugar
C) Slaves
D) Tobacco
E) Rice.
Q4) What factors led to Britain's emergence as the leader of the Industrial Revolution?
Q5) The Middle Passage brought about the three way transportation of slaves,rum,and goods between Africa,Europe and America.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Revolutionary France and Napoleonic
Europe,1775-1815
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Q1) The primary cause for the start of the French Revolution was
A) the refusal of Louis XVI to call the Estates General.
B) the refusal of the parlements to lend the government sufficient money.
C) suppression of the Parisian presses that were getting too radical.
D) the inability of Louis XVI to solve the financial deficit.
E) Marie Antoinette's purchase of a vastly expensive necklace.
Q2) The events of the October Days were characterized by
A) Louis's return to Paris to stand trial.
B) the armed seizure of power by the National Assembly.
C) the takeover of the National Assembly by the Jacobin faction.
D) Louis's resignation as king.
E) the shift of power from Versailles to Paris.
Q3) The attempt to take Russia in 1812 cost Napoleon 85% of his troops.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In what sense did Napoleon's rise to power represent the best of the possibilities offered by the Revolution?
Q5) What were the effects of the Napoleonic Code?
Page 21
Q6) Explore the reasons and effects for the policies regarding the Catholic Church during the French Revolution.
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Chapter 20: Restoration and Reform: Conservative and Liberal Europe,1814-1847
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Q1) Political liberalism is best embodied by the work of A) David Hume.
B) Adam Smith.
C) John Stuart Mill.
D) Jeremy Bentham.
E) Thomas Malthus.
Q2) One of the greatest speakers for conservativism in Britain was Edmund Burke.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Using Italy as an example,how did the model of the French Revolution and Enlightenment ideals bring about political reforms for the better?
Q4) Louis XVIII was known as the "bourgeoise king" because of his political modernism and appeal to the middle classes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How was language a significant social and political component of unrest within the Ottoman Empire in the nineteenth century? Use the case of Serbia as a focus.
Page 23
Q6) By nineteenth-century standards,why was the French Revolution seen as a failure?
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Chapter 21: Industrialization and Society,1800-1850
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Q1) The rapid spread of the steam engine made England dependent on which natural resource?
A) Water
B) Timber
C) Coal
D) Electricity
E) Copper
Q2) The point at which industry becomes self-perpetuating is called
A) the industrial revolution.
B) the market revolution
C) supply and demand.
D) industrial take-off
E) free market economy.
Q3) Charles Fourier applied his ideas of egalitarianism within all classes of men,but not women,as he felt they were not sufficiently developed in the capitalist market to be a significant force of change.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What changes in western Europe had the longest lasting effect in the nineteenth century?
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Chapter 22: The Triumph of the Nation-State,1848-1900
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Q1) To assist the poor and unemployed,what did the French government establish in 1848?
A) a welfare program
B) poorhouses
C) debt slavery
D) national workshops
E) laws against homelessness
Q2) What was the purpose of the Slavic Congress in 1848?
A) To negotiate the release of territories in the Russian Empire that wanted to be part of eastern Europe
B) To return Poland to the control of its own government instead of being a dependent state of Russia
C) To form the nation of Yugoslavia
D) To reserve the right to use Czech, Slovak, and Croation languages, while remaining part of the Habsburg Empire
E) To gain independence from the Habsburg Empire under a protectorate state of Russia
Q3) Compare the processes of unification in Germany and Italy.
Q4) How did technology play a role in nation building?
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Chapter 23: The Culture of Industrial Europe,1850-1914
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Q1) What were some of the internal conflicts in the feminist movement of the late nineteenth century?
Q2) The telephone was invented by
A) Alexander Graham Bell.
B) Werner von Siemens.
C) Thomas Edison.
D) Samuel Morse.
E) Baron Schilling.
Q3) In what category of painting would you place Ilya Repin?
A) Expressionism
B) Impressionism
C) Realism
D) Fauvism
E) Portraiture
Q4) Who was the leader of the Social Darwinist movement?
A) Herbert Spencer
B) Gregory Mendel
C) Carl Linnaeus
D) Albert Einstein
E) Nels Bohr
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Chapter 24: The Age of Imperialism,1870-1914
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Q1) The British claim for their intentions in India included all of the following except
A) creating a market economy.
B) instilling order and efficiency.
C) teaching individual self-development.
D) converting the Indians to Christianity.
E) introducing culture and hygiene.
Q2) Analyze the reasons and motivations for imperialism.What are the weaknesses and strengths of these ideas?
Q3) What was the goal of the Indian National Congress?
A) To gain a seat in British Parliament
B) To expel British businesses and missionaries
C) To end British colonial rule in India
D) To petition for Home Rule
E) All of these.
Q4) How did Europeans justify the extension of imperialism into countries that became colonies?
Q5) One of the most important tools in administering colonies was the telegraph. A)True B)False
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Chapter 25: War and Revolution,1900-1918
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Q1) The "hot spot" for contention over upsetting the balance of power in Europe was in A) Poland.
B) the Balkan states.
C) the Baltic States.
D) Finland.
E) Persia.
Q2) What was the "entente cordiale"?
A) A diplomatic arrangement between England and other European nations to remain neutral.
B) A formal alliance system between France, Russia, and Britain.
C) A friendly agreement to support France against Germany, which was later extended to Russia.
D) A formal agreement to recognize Italian neutrality.
E) A European-wide agreement to divide the European holdings of the Ottoman empire.
Q3) The Japanese and American economies prospered during World War I.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why was 1917 the most decisive year of the war?
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Chapter 26: A Decade of Revolutionary Experiments,1918-1929
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Q1) Why were doctors and engineers seen as potential threats to the Party in the USSR?
A) Because of their higher education.
B) Their professions held standards independent of the political regime.
C) They usually spoke other languages.
D) They were seen as susceptible to espionage.
E) Because they were reluctant to join the Red Army during the Civil War.
Q2) Germany was crippled in the interwar years by
A) hyper-inflation.
B) the growth of the Nazi (National Socialist) Party.
C) suppression of economic activity by the League of Nations.
D) the seizure of power by Bavaria in displacing Prussia.
E) a devastating influenza that killed millions.
Q3) Which was the first state in Eastern Europe to establish a post-war political stability under democracy?
A) Poland.
B) Yugoslavia.
C) Hungary.
D) Romania.
E) Czechoslovakia.
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Democracy Under Siege,1929-1945
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Q1) Jewish resistance under the Holocaust developed slowly in part due to the diversity of the Jewish population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What was the Luftwaffe?
A) The German program of eugenics
B) The new air force
C) A program of managed economy that reduced unemployment to less than 1 percent
D) The attack policy to expand the Reich to the East
E) The secret police
Q3) Resistance to Stalinization was found mostly among which population in Russia?
A) Urban factory workers
B) Conscripted labor forces
C) Labor unions
D) Workers' Soviets
E) Peasants
Q4) Explain the rise to power of Hitler and the Nazi Party.
Q5) Why did Stalin initiate and sustain the Great Purges in the 1930s and what effects did they have?
Q6) Why did the policy of appeasement fail?
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Chapter 28: Europe Divided,1945-1968
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although there were significant advances for women in Britain in the recovery period,real wages still lagged behind men's wages by
A) 15 to 20 percent.
B) 20 to 30 percent.
C) 30 to 50 percent.
D) more than 50 percent.
E) nothing; wages were required to be equal under the Labour Party reforms.
Q2) All of the following were areas of cooperation among the EEC members except
A) administrative.
B) legislative.
C) executive.
D) judicial.
E) economic.
Q3) What was the primary reason for France's refusal to relinquish Algeria?
A) Racial divide
B) Algeria's majority Muslim population
C) Oil deposits made it too valuable
D) Humiliation at their defeat at Dem Bien Phu
E) The demand came from the United Nations, which De Gaulle rejected
Q4) What are the origins of the cold war?
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Chapter 29: Lifting the Iron Curtain,1969-1991
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thatcher's appeal to British imperialism was best demonstrated in A) the Falklands War.
B) England's fight for unity in Ireland and Scotland.
C) her support of striking coal miners.
D) an open emigration policy for all former British imperial territories.
E) her support of apartheid in South Africa.
Q2) The Helsinki Final Act of 1975 was
A) committed to ensuring the human rights of all the signatories' citizens.
B) an international agreement to ban above-ground nuclear testing.
C) the negotiated end of the Vietnam War.
D) the creation of the European Union.
E) the recognition of the final terms of Berlin's occupation at the end of World War II.
Q3) Glasnost was Gorbachev's call for openness in
A) expressing political dissatisfaction.
B) international diplomacy.
C) disclosure of nuclear arms.
D) discussing forbidden cultural literature.
E) creating a market economy.
Q4) What were the difficulties Gorbachev faced in implementing economic reform?
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Chapter 30: Europe in a Globalizing World,1991 to the Present
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Q1) How have concerns about the environment been raised in globalized political entities and in international diplomatic debates?
Q2) Who was the first conservative woman to become chancellor of Germany?
A) Petra Kelly
B) Margaret Thatcher
C) Angela Merkel
D) Annagret Kramp-Karrenbauer
E) Christine Leberknecht
Q3) The only nation that refused to sign the Kyoto Accord was A) China.
B) Argentina.
C) Iran.
D) the United States.
E) Russia.
Q4) Compare Yugoslavia and Czechoslovakia in the transition to a market economy.What factors made this transition more smooth in some areas than it was in others?
Q5) What are some of the primary concerns of social activists since 1991?
Q6) What main factors led to the success of the Visegrád Four in implementing democratic reforms? Page 33
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