Historical Geology
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Course Introduction
Historical Geology explores the origin and development of the Earth through geological time, focusing on the changes in our planets landscapes, climates, and life forms. The course examines rock formations, fossil records, plate tectonics, and major geologic events to understand Earth's past environments and biological evolution. By integrating physical geology principles with paleontological evidence, students gain insights into how Earths surface and life have co-evolved, and learn to interpret geological maps and timelines.
Recommended Textbook
EARTH 1st Edition by Graham R. Thompson
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Chapter 1: Earth Systems
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Q1) The hydrosphere includes water in streams, lakes, and oceans; in the atmosphere; and frozen in glaciers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The Earth is about 460 million years old.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The rigid, outer part of Earth, including the crust and the uppermost mantle, is called the __________.
A) atmosphere
B) geosphere
C) lithosphere
D) hydrosphere
Answer: C
Q4) Ground water accounts for 71 percent of the Earth's water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Minerals
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Q1) __________ __________ are a small class of minerals, including gold and silver.
Answer: Native elements
Q2) Feldspar is a __________ mineral.
A) silicate
B) clay
C) oxide
D) carbonate
Answer: A
Q3) Copper, lead, and zinc commonly form:
A) native elements.
B) gems.
C) sulfide ore minerals.
D) carbonate minerals.
Answer: C
Q4) On the Mohs hardness scale, diamond has the value __________.
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 100
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Rocks
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Q1) A large river carrying massive amounts of sediment to the ocean every year and accumulates on the delta produces __________ metamorphism.
A) regional dynamothermal
B) hydrothermal
C) contact
D) burial
Answer: D
Q2) Major crustal movements build mountains and deform rocks in a process known as hydrothermal metamorphism.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The most abundant igneous rock in continental crust is:
A) basalt.
B) granite.
C) rhyolite.
D) gabbro.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Geologic Time: a Story in the Rocks
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Q1) In a disconformity, older sedimentary beds were tilted and eroded before younger layers were deposited.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Matching rocks of similar ages from different localities is __________.
Q3) A/an __________ is an unconformity in which the sedimentary layers above and below the unconformity are parallel.
Q4) Scientists have determined the Earth's age to be about __________ years.
A) 65 million
B) 248 million
C) 543 million
D) 4.6 billion
Q5) The principle of original horizontality is based on the fact that:
A) sediment usually accumulates in horizontal layers.
B) sedimentary rocks generally become younger from bottom to top.
C) sedimentary rocks must be older than an intruding dike.
D) rocks can be dated by studying radioactive decay of the elements.
Q6) The largest time units in the geologic column are periods.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Geologic Resources
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Q1) __________ is any rock sufficiently enriched in one or more minerals to be mined profitably.
Q2) Placer ore deposits form:
A) whenever metal-bearing solutions encounter changing conditions that cause precipitation.
B) when magma cools slowly deep underground.
C) when landlocked lakes dry up.
D) when streams or waves sort sediment according to density.
Q3) Crystal settling from magma occurs:
A) whenever metal-bearing solutions encounter changing conditions that cause precipitation.
B) when surface streams slow down and deposit sediment.
C) when the lightest crystals rise to the top of a magma chamber.
D) when early formed crystals sink to the bottom of a magma chamber.
Q4) If conditions are favorable, petroleum is forced out of the source rock and migrates to a nearby layer of sandstone or limestone to accumulate in a reservoir.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ __________ are the known amount of ore in the ground.
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Chapter 6: The Active Earth: Plate Tectonics
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Q1) The asthenosphere is:
A) hot, weak, and plastic.
B) mostly liquid magma.
C) composed mostly of sedimentary rocks.
D) hard, strong rock.
Q2) Fossil distribution on continents had no bearing on Alfred Wegener's theory about continental drift.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a plate carrying continental crust converges with a plate carrying oceanic crust:
A) the oceanic plate floats above the continental plate.
B) the continental plate sinks into the mantle.
C) a divergent boundary forms.
D) the oceanic plate sinks beneath the continental plate and dives into the mantle.
Q4) The inner core is molten.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ is the hot, weak, and plastic uppermost portion of the mantle.
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Chapter 7: Earthquakes and the Earths Structure
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Q1) When rock retains its new shape (without fracturing) after stress has been removed, it has undergone __________ __________.
Q2) A seismograph measures __________.
A) Earth's temperature
B) magnetic anomalies
C) ground vibrations
D) isostasy
Q3) Geologists learned that the outer core is liquid because __________ do not travel through the outer core.
A) surface waves
B) tsunamis
C) P waves
D) S waves
Q4) When solid rock deforms and returns to its original shape, it has undergone:
A) elastic deformation.
B) plastic deformation.
C) liquefaction.
D) brittle fracture.
Q5) __________ __________ are body waves that move much more slowly than P waves.
Q6) A/an __________ is a sudden motion or trembling of the Earth.
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Chapter 8: Volcanoes and Plutons
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Q1) Volcanic eruptions have no effect on global climate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The magma of andesite and diorite contains __________ silica than granite.
Q3) Mount St. Helens in the state of Washington is an example of a stratovolcano.
A)True
B)False
Q4) About 75 percent of the Earth's volcanic activity occurs along a circle of subduction zones in the Pacific Ocean called the __________ __________ __________.
Q5) A sill forms when magma oozes between layers of country rock.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The circular depression left when the roof of a magma chamber collapses is called a/an __________.
Q7) A granitic pluton that is exposed for less than 100 square kilometers is called a/an
Q8) Basaltic magma forms at the Mid-Oceanic Ridge.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Mountains
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Q1) A subduction complex contains slices of continental crust scraped from the top of a subducting plate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where two oceanic plates converge, one sinks beneath the other and dives into the mantle forming a/an:
A) Mid-Oceanic Ridge.
B) island arc.
C) Andean margin.
D) Himalaya-type margin.
Q3) The Himalayas were formed by convergence of the __________ plate and the __________ plate.
A) Antarctic, Indian
B) Pacific, Eurasian
C) Indian, Eurasian
D) Antarctic, Pacific
Q4) A/an __________ is a fracture in rock where rocks on either side of the fracture have not moved.
Q5) A/an _________ _________ is a special type of reverse fault that is nearly horizontal.
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Chapter 10: Weathering, Soil, and Erosion
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Q1) In the weathering process of pressure-release fracturing:
A) salts crystallize in cracks, enlarging fractures.
B) bedrock minerals decompose to clay.
C) bedrock expands and fractures when the overlying rock erodes away.
D) bedrock dissolves and ground water carries the dissolved ions away.
Q2) The __________ is the maximum slope or steepness at which loose material remains stable.
A) dip slope
B) mass wasting angle
C) angle of repose
D) slip slope
Q3) __________ is the only rock-forming silicate mineral that does not weather to clay.
A) Feldspar
B) Quartz
C) Biotite
D) Muscovite
Q4) Vegetation has a great influence on the probability of landslides.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Fresh Water: Streams, Lakes, Ground Water, and Wetlands
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Q1) The top of a saturated zone created by an impermeable layer that lies above the main water table is called a/an __________ __________ __________.
Q2) The constant circulation of water among sea, land, and the atmosphere is called the __________ __________.
Q3) The water on the outside of a stream curve moves:
A) slower than the water on the inside.
B) faster than the water on the inside.
C) the same speed as the water on the inside.
D) mostly vertically in a process called upwelling.
Q4) Stream gradient, discharge, and __________ determine the velocity of a stream.
A) age
B) color
C) channel shape
D) salinity
Q5) __________ is the steepness of a stream.
Q6) Most streams carry the largest part of their load as bed load.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
Q7) Ions dissolved in water are called __________ __________.
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Chapter 12: Water Resources
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Q1) Domestic water use accounts for about __________ percent of all water used in the United States.
A) 50
B) 38
C) 25
D) 10
Q2) Electric power generating plants account for about __________ percent of all water used in the United States.
A) 38
B) 23
C) 7
D) 93
Q3) Sewage can contain high concentrations of:
A) radioactive materials.
B) disease organisms.
C) industrial organic compounds.
D) nonbiodegradable pollutants.
Q4) A/an __________ __________ __________ forms near a well where water is withdrawn faster than it can flow.
Q5) A __________ __________ is a canal or pipe constructed to use water.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Glaciers and Ice Ages
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Q1) __________ is sediment that was deposited directly by a glacier.
Q2) Glacial __________ form as rocks are dragged along at the base of a glacier.
A) crevasses
B) snow lines
C) cirques
D) striations
Q3) The Matterhorn is an example of a glacial __________.
Q4) Geologic evidence shows that the Earth has been cold and ice covered for about 90 percent of the past 2.5 billion years.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sediment particles carried by a glacier are likely to be sharp and jagged.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A glacier forms wherever the amount of snow that falls in winter equals the amount that melts in summer.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The most recent ice age occurred during the __________ Epoch.
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Q8) A series of tarn lakes in the valley below a cirque are called __________ lakes.
Chapter 14: Deserts and Wind
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Q1) Erosion of soil by wind is __________.
A) deflation
B) saltation
C) inflation
D) desertification
Q2) A dune that accumulates as long ridges that align perpendicularly to the prevailing wind is a __________ dune.
A) parabolic
B) transverse
C) barchan
D) longitudinal
Q3) The leeward side of a dune is called the __________ face.
A) slip
B) shadow
C) saltation
D) ocean
Q4) Large __________ deposits accumulated in North America during the Pleistocene Ice Age from wind transporting and depositing big amounts of silt.
Q5) __________ __________ __________ form on the leeward sides of a mountain range.
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Chapter 15: Ocean Basins
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Q1) At sea-floor vents, bacteria produce energy from hydrogen sulfide in a process called:
A) sea-floor spreading.
B) photosynthesis.
C) subduction.
D) chemosynthesis.
Q2) The Mid-Oceanic Ridge rises high above the surrounding sea floor because new lithosphere forming at the ridge axis is __________ and of relatively __________ density.
A) hot, low
B) hot, high
C) cool, high
D) cool, low
Q3) Island arcs grow from __________.
A) atolls
B) passive continental margins
C) submarine volcanoes near a subduction zone
D) abyssal fans
Q4) Oceanic crust is mostly composed of __________.
Q5) Modern sea-floor maps are made with __________ __________ instruments.
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Chapter 16: Oceans and Coastlines
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Q1) When the Gulf Stream reaches the northern part of the Atlantic Ocean, it sinks to the ocean floor and deflects to become the North Atlantic Deep Water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The world's largest and deepest ocean is the __________ Ocean.
A) Atlantic
B) Pacific
C) Indian
D) Arctic
Q3) Eustatic sea-level change occurs because of:
A) the growth or melting of glaciers.
B) changes in the volume of the Mid-Oceanic Ridge.
C) changes in water temperature.
D) all of the above
Q4) A wave-cut platform is a common feature of sediment-poor coastlines.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The highest part of a wave is called the trough.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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Q1) The most abundant constituent of our atmosphere is __________.
A) nitrogen
B) oxygen
C) helium
D) ozone
Q2) At the time of the First Great Oxidation Event, the oxygen concentration in Earth's atmosphere increased:
A) from 15 to 21 percent.
B) due to oxygen production by zooplankton.
C) from trace amounts to appreciable quantities.
D) due to accelerated weathering caused by lichens.
Q3) In the United States, the cost of deterioration of buildings and materials from acid precipitation:
A) is a minor problem.
B) is estimated at several million dollars per year.
C) is estimated at several billion dollars per year.
D) was high a decade ago but is now minimal due to the implementation of the Clean Air Act.
Q4) Smog is produced when automobile exhaust is exposed to __________.
Q5) The ozone hole occurs in the layer of the atmosphere known as the __________.
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Chapter 18: Energy Balance in the Atmosphere
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Q1) Visible light is a large portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On __________, every place on Earth receives 12 hours of sunlight and 12 hours of darkness.
A) the equinox
B) the solstice
C) the 4<sup>th</sup> of July
D) Thanksgiving Day
Q3) If the air is filled with dust or water droplets, all of the wavelengths scatter, and the sky becomes red.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Photons travel through space at only one speed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Clouds warm the Earth's surface at night.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ is the transport of heat by collisions between atoms and molecules.
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Chapter 19: Moisture, Clouds, and Weather
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Q1) When a warm air mass overtakes a cold air mass, precipitation is widespread.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A/an __________ is a broad, circular storm with intense low pressure that forms over warm oceans.
A) tornado
B) tropical cyclone
C) surge
D) El Niño
Q3) Pressure gradients can change hourly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During an adiabatic temperature change:
A) the temperature rises or falls as air pressure changes.
B) air is cooled by the polar ice caps.
C) air cools by evaporation.
D) air is heated by the sun.
Q5) __________ fog occurs when warm, moist air from the sea blows onto cooler land.
Q6) When relative humidity exceeds 100 percent, the air becomes __________.
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Q7) __________ clouds are fluffy clouds with flat bottoms and billowy tops.
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Chapter 20: Climate
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Q1) Descending air at the horse latitudes:
A) flows toward the equator only.
B) flows toward the poles only.
C) splits and flows west and east.
D) splits and flows toward the equator and toward the poles.
Q2) Continental interiors where the temperature can fluctuate greatly between hot summers and cold winters are in the __________ climate zone.
A) Mediterranean
B) marine west coast
C) humid continental
D) tropical savanna
Q3) The __________ __________ __________ is used by climatologists throughout the world to define principle climate groups.
Q4) When geologists study the climate of a region over time, they must separate the effects of tectonic movement from global climate change.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Warm air rises near the equator, forming a low-pressure region called the
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Chapter 21: Climate Change
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Q1) When carbon dioxide gas dissolves in seawater, it reacts to form bicarbonate and __________ ions.
Q2) The presence of tillite indicates that the sediment was deposited during a period of cold climate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Methane gas is stored in sea-floor sediments under certain temperature and pressure conditions as frozen __________ __________.
Q4) Snowfields and glaciers have high albedos and cool Earth by __________ sunlight.
Q5) The Mount Pinatubo eruption in 1991:
A) warmed the atmosphere by releasing carbon dioxide.
B) cooled the atmosphere by releasing ash and sulfur compounds.
C) warmed the atmosphere by releasing ash and sulfur compounds.
D) cooled the atmosphere by releasing carbon dioxide.
Q6) The Sun produces energy by __________ __________.
Q7) Climate change does not follow linear relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q8) __________ impacts can cause rapid and catastrophic climate changes.
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Chapter 22: Motions in the Heavens
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Q1) Constellations as observed from Earth do not change with the seasons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Planets show sometimes __________ motion with respect to the stars.
A) retrospect
B) returning
C) repeated
D) retrograde
Q3) When the Moon passes directly between the Earth and Sun, it produces a/an:
A) solar eclipse.
B) absorption spectrum.
C) constellation.
D) lunar eclipse.
Q4) The __________ is the narrow band on Earth where the Sun is completely blocked out during a solar eclipse.
A) corona
B) umbra
C) penumbra
D) resolution
Q5) A Doppler shift to a lower frequency is called a __________ shift.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Planets and Their Moons
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Q1) The rings of Saturn are believed to be:
A) an auroral display of ionized gases.
B) small particles of dust, rock, and ice.
C) the remains of a hurricane-like storm that was first recorded by Galileo.
D) particles of pure ice.
Q2) Mercury orbits around the Sun in about __________ Earth days.
A) 22
B) 55
C) 88
D) 222
Q3) Venus has mountains higher than Mount Everest.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A __________ is composed of ice mixed with bits of silicate rock, metals, and frozen crystals of methane, ammonia, carbon dioxide, and other compounds.
A) meteoroid
B) comet
C) chondrule
D) meteor
Q5) __________ was reclassified as a dwarf planet in 2006.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Stars, Space, and Galaxies
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Q1) The Sun's turbulent, diffuse 2,000 to 3,000 kilometer outer layer is called the
Q2) The Sun is composed primarily of hydrogen and __________.
Q3) All main-sequence stars are composed primarily of __________ and __________.
A) helium, carbon
B) hydrogen, oxygen
C) hydrogen, helium
D) helium, oxygen
Q4) The __________ brightness of a star is how bright a star would appear if it were 10 parsec away from Earth.
A) absolute
B) relative
C) apparent
D) main
Q5) A cloud of interstellar gas and dust is called a __________.
A) nebula
B) big bang
C) star fog
D) sunspot
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Q6) During a full solar eclipse, the __________ appears as a halo around the Sun.