Histopathology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Histopathology is the study of disease processes through the microscopic examination of tissue samples, enabling the diagnosis and understanding of various pathological conditions. This course covers the principles of tissue preparation, staining techniques, and the identification of cellular and structural changes associated with major diseases. Students will learn to correlate histological findings with clinical presentations, gaining insights into the mechanisms of diseases such as cancer, inflammation, and degenerative disorders. The course emphasizes diagnostic reasoning, interpretation of slides, and the critical role of histopathology in guiding patient management and treatment decisions.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology Secrets 3rd Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
386 Verified Questions
386 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1036
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20520
Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic hemolysis is characterized by accumulation of an iron-containing brown pigment in the cytoplasm of liver cells.This brown pigment is called:
A) Melanin
B) Tyrosin
C) Hemosiderin
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) Bilirubin
Answer: C
Q2) Columnar bronchial epithelium irritated by chronic exposure to cigarette smoke changes into stratified squamous epithelium.This change is an example of:
A) Hypertrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia
E) Degeneration
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The center of an abscess contains:
A) Caseous necrosis
B) Calcification
C) Pus
D) Eosinophils
E) Fibrous tissue
Answer: C
Q2) All the following are cardinal signs of inflammation except:
A) Calor (heat)
B) Rubor (redness)
C) Tumor (swelling)
D) Dolor (pain)
E) Odor (smell)
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which set of lymphocytes is decreased the most in the blood of patients with AIDS?
A) B lymphocytes
B) T-helper lymphocytes
C) T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes
D) Natural killer cells
E) Bone marrow stem cell precursor of lymphocytes
Answer: C
Q2) For the diagnosis of AIDS,it is important to test the patient for antibodies to:
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
D) Pneumocystis carinii
E) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following physical carcinogens is the cause of most skin cancers in humans?
A) Ultraviolet light
B) Infrared light
C) X-rays
D) Radon
E) Gamma rays
Q2) Hodgkin's lymphoma is a neoplasm that typically involves the:
A) Brain
B) Lungs
C) Heart
D) Liver
E) Lymph nodes
Q3) Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumor marker for malignant tumors originating in the:
A) Brain
B) Lung
C) Liver
D) Uterus
E) Thyroid
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most congenital malformations in humans are:
A) Of unknown cause
B) Related to infection during pregnancy
C) Caused by physical agents
D) Caused by drugs
E) Caused by environmental pollution
Q2) The most important intracranial complication of the neonatal respiratory syndrome is:
A) Hydrocephalus
B) Periventricular hemorrhage possibly expanding into a hematocephalus
C) Calcification of the basal ganglia
D) Kernicterus
E) Microcephaly
Q3) Sudden infant death syndrome typically occurs:
A) At the time of birth
B) During the first few hours after birth
C) During the first week after birth
D) During the first month of life
E) Any time between 2 and 9 months of the first year of life
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red cheeks in a person who is blushing are an example of:
A) Hemorrhage
B) Petechia
C) Ecchymoses
D) Active hyperemia
E) Passive hyperemia
Q2) In decompression sickness or caisson disease,the emboli are composed of:
A) Air
B) Fat
C) Platelets
D) Fibrin
E) Plasminogen
Q3) Abscess is a complication of:
A) Septic embolism
B) Marantic endocarditis
C) Air embolism
D) Fat embolism
E) Pulmonary saddle embolism
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Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infarction of the posterior half of the interventricular septum is caused by an occlusion of the:
A) Main trunk of the left coronary artery
B) Anterior descending branch of the left coronary artery
C) Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
D) Right coronary artery
E) Coronary sinus
Q2) Rheumatic carditis is typically preceded by:
A) Streptococcal throat infection
B) Staphylococcal skin infection
C) Gonococcal arthritis
D) Coxsackie B virus myositis
E) Influenza
Q3) The most common cause of infectious myocarditis in the United States is:
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Trypanosoma cruzi
C) Coxsackie B virus
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pleural tumors are usually associated with:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Pyothorax
D) Pleural effusion
E) Empyema
Q2) Approximately 90% of all patients with lung cancer present with a history of:
A) Alcoholism
B) Hereditary cancer syndromes
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Exposure to chemical carcinogens in food and water
E) Obesity
Q3) The major pulmonary complication of congenital alpha -antitrypsin deficiency is:
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Atelectasis
D) Emphysema
E) Mesothelioma
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10
Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following findings are typical of secondary polycythemia except:
A) Increased number of red blood cells in circulation
B) Hyperviscosity of the blood
C) Increased number of erythroid precursors in the bone marrow
D) Increased incidence of thrombi
E) Association with myelodysplastic syndromes
Q2) Which of the following lymphomas is classified as a low-grade lymphoma?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Diffuse large-cell lymphoma
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Immunoblastic lymphoma
E) Lymphoblastic lymphoma
Q3) The most common symptom of lymphomas is:
A) Lymph node enlargement
B) Infection
C) Fever
D) Pruritus
E) Sweating
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Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diverticula of the intestine are most often located in the:
A) Jejunum
B) Ileum
C) Cecum
D) Transverse colon
E) Sigmoid colon
Q2) Carcinoma of the oral cavity presenting as a white,slightly elevated plaque is clinically described as:
A) Leukoplakia
B) Erythroplakia
C) Ulcer
D) Crater
E) Nodule
Q3) The best serologic marker of colonic carcinoma is:
A) Alpha-fetoprotein
B) Carcinoembryonic antigen
C) Chorionic gonadotropin
D) Alkaline phosphatase
E) Acid phosphatase
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are major functions of the liver except:
A) Excretory
B) Metabolic
C) Storage
D) Neuroendocrine
E) Synthetic
Q2) The nutrients reach the liver from the intestine through the:
A) Splenic vein
B) Vena cava inferior
C) Vena cava superior
D) Portal vein
E) Hepatic vein
Q3) Yellow cholesterol gallstones are typically found in association with:
A) Hemochromatosis
B) Viral hepatitis
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Chronic autoimmune hemolytic anemia
E) Obesity
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13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common form of diabetes mellitus?
A) Insulin-dependent diabetes
B) Non-insulin-dependent diabetes
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Autosomal dominant form of diabetes
E) Autosomal recessive form of diabetes
Q2) Which is the most important and most abundant hormone secreted by the pancreas?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Somatostatin
D) Gastrin
E) Cholecystokinin
Q3) Which of the following is a late complication of acute pancreatitis?
A) Diverticulosis
B) Amyloidosis
C) Pseudocysts
D) Carcinoma of the ducts of pancreas
E) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are features of acute glomerulonephritis except:
A) Proteinuria
B) Hematuria
C) Polyuria
D) Hypertension
E) Edema
Q2) A solid renal tumor of a 4-year-old child was histologically composed of immature cells reminiscent of fetal tubules.This tumor represents a(n):
A) Renal cell adenoma
B) Renal cell carcinoma
C) Wilms' tumor
D) Interstitial cell fibroma
E) Teratoma
Q3) All the following findings are typical of membranous nephropathy except:
A) Proteinuria
B) Pyuria
C) Hypoalbuminemia
D) Edema
E) Deposits of immunoglobulin G in the glomeruli
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a tumor marker of nonseminomatous germ cell tumors?
A) Alkaline phosphatase
B) Acid phosphatase
C) Albumin
D) Alpha-fetoprotein
E) Alpha-antitrypsin
Q2) Genital herpes typically presents as:
A) Painful prostatic enlargement
B) Epididymitis
C) Infertility
D) Urethral papilloma
E) Vesicles on the penis
Q3) Invasive carcinoma of the prostate:
A) Occurs mostly in old age
B) Occurs more often in castrated men
C) Is caused by HPV
D) Is related to HIV infection
E) Is a squamous cell carcinoma
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Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most tumors of the endometrium are:
A) Benign
B) Premalignant
C) Composed of striated muscle cells
D) Found in postmenopausal women
E) Found in prepubertal girls
Q2) Inflammation of the fallopian tubes is called:
A) Cervicitis
B) Endometritis
C) Salpingitis
D) Oophoritis
E) Vulvovaginitis
Q3) Vaginal "spotting" (mild bleeding)after intercourse is most often seen in women who have:
A) Carcinoma of the vulva
B) Carcinoma of the cervix
C) Carcinoma of the ovary
D) Uterine leiomyoma
E) Carcinoma of the fallopian tube
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Breast
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who was diagnosed with a stage I breast cancer,with no metastases,underwent a lumpectomy.Her chances of surviving 5 years are:
A) 0%
B) 10%
C) 25%
D) 50%
E) 80%
Q2) Fine-needle aspiration biopsy of breast masses has an accuracy of:
A) 100%
B) 95%
C) 75%
D) 50%
E) 25%
Q3) All the following are used successfully in the treatment of breast cancer except:
A) Antiestrogen drugs
B) Cytotoxic drugs
C) Surgery
D) Radiation therapy
E) Hypnosis
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged adrenal stimulation with ACTH results in:
A) Adrenal medullary hyperplasia
B) Adrenal cortical hyperplasia
C) Adrenal adenoma formation
D) Adrenal cortical atrophy
E) Adrenal medullary atrophy
Q2) Which of the following hormones regulates the homeostasis of potassium and sodium?
A) Calcitonin
B) Parathyroid hormone
C) Androgen
D) Aldosterone
E) Glucagon
Q3) Acromegaly is typically produced by tumors of the:
A) Pituitary
B) Thyroid
C) Parathyroid
D) Adrenals
E) Testis
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flat,slightly pigmented skin patch measuring 1 cm is best classified as a:
A) Macule
B) Papule
C) Pustule
D) Vesicle
E) Bulla
Q2) Which of the following neoplastic lesions originates in the dermis rather than in the epidermis?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Dermatofibroma
E) Seborrheic keratosis
Q3) Which of the following pigmented lesions has the highest propensity to progress to malignant melanoma?
A) Ephelis
B) Lentigo
C) Dermal nevus
D) Blue nevus
E) Dysplastic nevus
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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subcutaneous nodules composed of a central area of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by macrophages and lymphocytes are typical of:
A) Infectious arthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Gout
E) Rickets
Q2) The extracellular organic matrix of bones is called:
A) Osteon
B) Osteoid
C) Osteoblast
D) Osteocyte
E) Osteoclast
Q3) The most common primary malignant tumor of bones is called:
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Paget's disease
D) Ewing's disease
E) Giant cell tumor of bone
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a typical "upper neuron injury"?
A) Polymyositis
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome
C) Spinal cord injury in traffic accident
D) Diabetic neuropathy
E) Lead poisoning
Q2) All the following are autoimmune diseases affecting the muscles except:
A) Myasthenia gravis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Duchenne-type muscular dystrophy
E) Dermatomyositis
Q3) The first symptoms of myasthenia gravis among women appear most often in which age group?
A) 0-5 years
B) 5-20 years
C) 20-35 years
D) 35-50 years
E) Older than 50 years
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Highly malignant tumors exclusively found in the cerebellum of children are called:
A) Glioblastoma multiforme
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Ependymoma
D) Oligodendroglioma
E) Meningioma
Q2) In myelomeningocele the protrusion of the defective spinal canal contains:
A) Skin only
B) Meninges only
C) Meninges and portion of the spinal cord
D) Meninges and vertebral bodies
E) Meninges and displaced parts of the cerebellum
Q3) Multiple plaques of demyelination visible by CT scanning are typical of:
A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B) Huntington's disease
C) Viral encephalitis
D) Multiple sclerosis
E) Brain abscess
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23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sensory innermost layer of the eye composed of rods and cones is called:
A) Iris
B) Cornea
C) Sclera
D) Retina
E) Choroid
Q2) The most important complication of untreated glaucoma is:
A) Conjunctivitis
B) Keratitis
C) Iridocyclitis
D) Retinitis
E) Loss of eyesight
Q3) The most common cause of cataracts in the United States is:
A) Old age
B) Trauma
C) Endophthalmitis
D) Trachoma
E) Radiation
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24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tumors may cause vertigo?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma of the auricle
B) Basal cell carcinoma of the external ear
C) Schwannoma of the VIII nerve
D) Neurilemoma of the VII nerve
E) Pituitary adenoma
Q2) Tympanic cavity is part of the:
A) Auricle
B) External ear
C) Auditory meatus
D) Middle ear
E) Internal ear
Q3) Conductive hearing loss may be caused by:
A) Impacted cerumen
B) Streptomycin
C) Antimalarial drugs
D) Tumor of the acoustic nerve
E) Brain injury
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