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Hematopathology is a specialized branch of pathology focused on the study, diagnosis, and understanding of diseases affecting blood, bone marrow, and lymphoid tissues. This course provides an in-depth exploration of the cellular and molecular abnormalities underlying various hematologic disorders, including anemias, leukemias, lymphomas, and coagulopathies. Students will learn diagnostic techniques such as morphological examination, immunophenotyping, cytogenetics, and molecular pathology, and will discuss current classification systems and treatment implications. Emphasis is placed on clinical-pathological correlation, fostering a comprehensive understanding of how laboratory findings integrate with patient management in hematologic disease.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty Ciesla
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Q1) Which of the following is the definition of a reference interval?
A) A solution of a known amount of analyte
B) Materials analyzed concurrently with unknown samples
C) Values established for a particular analyte, given a method, instrument, or patient population
D) Validation techniques on flagged samples
Answer: C
Q2) Standard deviation is a measurement of precision.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The average of a group of data points is defined as the:
A) Mean
B) Mode
C) Median
D) Modicum
Answer: A
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Q1) Bone marrow aspiration is usually required in conditions of:
A) Anemia
B) Hypoxia
C) Leukemia
D) Hepatosplenomegaly
Answer: C
Q2) Patients with moderate anemias (7 to 10 g/dL) may be asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What is the average M:E ratio for normal adult bone marrow?
A) 1:3
B) 4:1
C) 1:4
D) 6:1
Answer: B
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Q1) The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is the:
A) Pronormoblast
B) Orthochromic normoblast
C) Polychromatophilic normoblast
D) Basophilic normoblast
Answer: B
Q2) Increased plasma cholesterol may lead to the development of which of these abnormal red cell morphologies?
A) Spherocytes
B) Target cells
C) Microcytes
D) Helmet cells
Answer: B
Q3) The higher the N:C ratio, the more mature the cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Physiologic conditions in the body that can decrease hemoglobin's oxygen affinity include:
A) Increased pH
B) Decreased 2,3-DPG
C) Increased body temp
D) The presence of abnormal hemoglobins
Q2) ____may be seen in intravascular hemolysis but not in extravascular hemolysis.
A) Hemoglobinuria
B) Splenomegaly
C) Increased LDH
D) Elevated serum bilirubin
Q3) Each hemoglobin molecule consists of heme structures.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
Q4) Hemoglobin begins to be synthesized at the polychromatophilic stage of red cell development.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The alpha thalassemic condition that is incompatible with life is:
A) Hemoglobin H disease
B) Bart's hydrops fetalis
C) Alpha thalassemia trait
D) Silent carrier condition
Q2) The alpha thalassemias result from:
A) Gene deletion
B) Defective alpha genes
C) Iron overload
D) Excessive production of alpha chains
Q3) In iron deficiency anemia, the reticulocyte count will be:
A) Normal
B) Low
C) High
D) Extremely high
Q4) One of the gravest clinical problems for individuals with thalassemia major is:
A) Chronic anemia
B) Iron overload
C) Therapeutic phlebotomy
D) Collapsed veins

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Q1) A bone marrow aspiration/examination is not necessary for patients with megaloblastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A key substance required for the incorporation of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> in red cell nuclear synthesis is the presence of:
A) EPO
B) Transferrin
C) Intrinsic factor
D) Cytokines
Q3) An appropriate M:E ratio in the case of megaloblastic anemia would be:
A) 1:3
B) 4:1
C) 5:1
D) 1:10
Q4) Ineffective erythropoiesis is defined as:
A) An increase in the M:E ratio
B) A synthetic defect in hemoglobin
C) Premature destruction of red cell precursors
D) A DNA maturation defect
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Q1) The cell at the tip of the pointer is referred to as a:
A) Stomatocyte
B) Target cell
C) Normal erythrocyte
D) Spherocyte
Q2) Which of the following is most closely associated with G6PD deficiency?
A) Continuous intravascular hemolysis occurs.
B) G6PD is a sex linked inherited disease.
C) Splenectomy is commonly done to control symptoms.
D) The majority of the erythrocytes in these individuals are microcytic.
Q3) One of the least severe clinical manifestations of G6PD deficiency is:
A) Acute hemolytic anemia
B) Favism
C) Neonatal jaundice
D) Congenital non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia
Q4) The RBC inclusions that are composed of denatured hemoglobin are called:
A) Pappenheimer bodies
B) Howell-Jolly bodies
C) Heinz bodies
D) Siderotic granules
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Q1) When the bone marrow temporarily ceases to produce cells in a sickle cell patient, a(n) _____crisis has occurred.
A) aplastic
B) hemolytic
C) vaso-occlusive
D) cardiac
Q2) The Benin haplotype of sickle cell disease is prevalent in which country or countries?
A) Saudi Arabia and Asia
B) Senegal
C) West Africa
D) Central and South Africa
Q3) A blood smear from a patient with sickle cell crisis shows 80 nucleated red cells per 100 leukocytes.The total leukocyte count is 18 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L.The corrected white cell count is:
A) 17,200
B) 9,000
C) 10,000
D) 13,400
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Q1) The amount of time a granulocyte spends in the circulation before migrating into the tissues is normally:
A) 8 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 5 days
D) 20 days
Q2) The absolute WBC count refers to the percentage of a particular cell counted from the 100 WBC differential.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The N:C ratio in a myeloblast is:
A) 2:1
B) 4:1
C) 3:1
D) 5:1
Q4) There are ___ maturation stages in the neutrophil.
A) five
B) four
C) three
D) six
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Q1) Opsonization of foreign bodies is defined as:
A) Preparing a foreign body for phagocytosis
B) Degranulation of neutrophils
C) Fusion of cytoplasmic granules
D) Bacteriocidal activity
Q2) Which of the following is an unusual complication that may occur in infectious mononucleosis?
A) Splenic infarctions
B) Dactylitis
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Giant platelets
Q3) A patient who presents with a low white cell count, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, and mulberry-like inclusions in the granulocytes is most likely suffering from:
A) May-Hegglin anomaly
B) Chediak-Higashi anomaly
C) Human ehrlichiosis
D) Alder's anomaly
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Q1) A patient with AML is likely to have a cytochemical stain panel that is positive for:
A) Sodium fluoride with tartrate resistance
B) MPO, SBB, specific esterase
C) MP0, SBB, nonspecific esterase
D) SBB and TdT
Q2) Pure erythroid leukemia is defined as:
A) Erythroid precursors greater than 30%, myeloblasts less than 20%
B) Erythroid precursors greater than 50%, myeloblasts less than 40%
C) Erythroid precursors less than 50%
D) Erythroid precursors greater than 80%
Q3) The basic pathophysiology mechanism responsible for producing signs and symptoms in leukemia includes all of the following except:
A) Replacement of normal marrow precursors by leukemic cells
B) Decrease in functional leukocytes causing infection
C) Hemorrhage secondary to thrombocytopenia
D) Decreased erythropoietin production
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Q1) The LAP stain is helpful in distinguishing:
A) A leukemoid reaction from CGL
B) CML from CLL
C) CML from AML
D) CML from ALL
Q2) Tyrosine kinase is an important mediator in leukocyte metabolic pathways because it suppresses:
A) Opsonization
B) Phagocytosis
C) Leukoerythroblastosis
D) Apoptosis
Q3) The accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukemia is marked by:
A) Increased basophils
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Increase in blasts
D) Increased fibrosis
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Q1) An abnormal proliferation of dysfunctional B lymphocytes is commonly associated with:
A) Acute lymphocytic leukemia
B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C) Infectious mononucleosis
D) Hodgkin's disease
Q2) The protein electrophoresis pattern pictured above is most frequently associated with:
A) Hodgkin's lymphoma
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Thalassemia major
D) Essential thrombocytopenia
Q3) The immunoglobulin responsible for secondary immunological response is:
A) Ig A
B) Ig M
C) Ig D
D) Ig G
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Q1) The correct name for the cell at the end of the pointer is a:
A) Ringed sideroblast
B) Reticulocyte
C) Giant platelet
D) Siderocyte
Q2) The blast count in most individuals with MDS is:
A) Less than 10%
B) Less than 40%
C) Less than 5%
D) Less than 20%
Q3) The cell at the tip of the pointer is:
A) A basophil
B) A malignant cell
C) A degenerating neutrophil
D) Not a cell; it's an artifact
Q4) The cell at the tip of the pointer is a:
A) Hairy cell
B) Basket cell
C) Degenerating lymphocyte
D) Giant platelet
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Q1) Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI):
A) Prevents activation of factor X by VIIa
B) Activates the common pathway
C) Inhibits fibrinolysis
D) Inhibits the kallikrein proteins
Q2) Which of the following proteins is not made in the liver?
A) Anti-hemophiliac factor
B) Prothrombin
C) Fibrinogen
D) von Willebrand factor
Q3) Which of the following is not a component of the fibrinolytic system?
A) Thrombin
B) Plasmin
C) Tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA)
D) Urokinase
Q4) All of the coagulation factors have autosomal inheritance features except:
A) Factors I and XII
B) Factors III and VIII
C) Factors VIII and IX
D) Factors V and VII
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Q1) Which of the following is an autoimmune thrombocytopenic disease process?
A) Chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C) von Willebrand's disease
D) Thrombocytopenia with absent radii
Q2) Platelets from patients with these two disorders will not aggregate with ristocetin.
A) Glanzmann's syndrome and von Willebrand's
B) Glanzmann's syndrome and Chediak-Higashi
C) HUS and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
D) von Willebrand's disease and Bernard-Soulier
Q3) Thrombocytosis is defined as a platelet count that is:
A) Greater than 450 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) Less than 450 \(\times\)w10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) Greater than 600 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) Less than 300 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
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Q1) Treatment of patients with factor II, VII, or X deficiency consists of:
A) Administration of prothrombin complex concentrate
B) Administration of cryoprecipitate
C) Administration of FFP
D) Administration of whole blood
Q2) Which of the following is the most useful in differentiating hemophilia A from hemophilia B?
A) A familial pattern of inheritance
B) Patient's history
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time
D) Factor assays
Q3) Factor XI deficiency is also known as:
A) Christmas disease
B) Hemophilia A
C) Hemophilia C
D) Fitzgerald factor deficiency
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Q1) The process of fibrin degradation is called ______and is controlled by the enzyme
A) fibrination, plasmin
B) fibrinolysis, plasmin
C) fibrination, protease
D) fibrinolysis, protease
Q2) Plasmin causes the inactivation of factors:
A) V, VII, X, XI
B) V, VIII, XI, XII
C) VII, VIII, XI, XII
D) X, XI, XII, XIII
Q3) Which of the following hematology disorders will likely trigger an episode of DIC?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Idiopathic thrombocythemia
D) Acute progranulocytic leukemia
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Q1) Factor VIII inhibitors:
A) Are associated with thrombosis
B) Are associated with decreased fibrinogen levels
C) Are usually time and temperature dependent
D) Are corrected with the addition of normal plasma
Q2) Coumadin acts in such a way that it:
A) Alters the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors
B) Reduces the circulating level of factors III and V
C) Reduces the circulating level of factor I
D) Cleaves carboxyreductase to generate glutamic acid
Q3) All of the following statements describe factor V Leiden except:
A) It is a cause of activated protein C resistance.
B) It is associated with thrombocytopenia.
C) It is associated with increased risk of thrombosis.
D) Is an inherited disorder.
Q4) Heparin:
A) Inhibits PF3
B) Inhibits thrombin
C) Degrades antithrombin
D) Complexes with protein C
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