Hematology
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Hematology is the study of blood, blood-forming organs, and blood diseases. This course covers the fundamental aspects of normal and abnormal blood cell development, structure, and function, as well as the diagnostic techniques used in laboratory hematology. Students will explore various hematological disorders, including anemias, leukemias, lymphomas, bleeding and clotting disorders, and the principles of blood transfusion. Emphasis is placed on the pathophysiology, laboratory evaluation, and modern treatment strategies of hematological conditions, providing a solid foundation for further study or clinical practice in related health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Immunohematology 2nd Edition by Kathy D. Blaney
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16 Chapters
393 Verified Questions
393 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1436 Page 2
Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28516
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used?
A) False negatives
B) False positives
C) Hemolysis
D) No effect
Answer: A
Q2) What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the removal of antibody bound to red cells?
A) Fab fragment
B) Hinge region
C) Fc fragment
D) J chain
Answer: C
Q3) Detects IgG or complement-coated red cells
A)Indirect antiglobulin test
B)Direct antiglobulin test
C)Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
in Immunohematology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28517
Sample Questions
Q1) The indirect antihuman globulin test is incubated at what temperature?
A) 22° C
B) 37° C
C) 4° C
D) 56° C
Answer: B
Q2) Product limitations and technical considerations for each reagent can be found in the:
A) standard operating procedure.
B) product insert.
C) Food and Drug Administration code of regulations.
D) AABB standards.
Answer: B
Q3) Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples?
A) Screening cells (two vials)
B) Pooled screening cells
C) Panel cells
D) Screening cells (three vials)
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28518
Sample Questions
Q1) When using the Hardy-Weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which of the following must be true?
A) The population statistics must be large.
B) Mutations cannot occur.
C) Mating must be random.
D) All of the above are true.
Answer: D
Q2) Mitosis results in __________ chromosomes as the original.
A) four cells with half as many
B) two cells with the same number of
C) four cells with the same number of
D) two cells with half as many
Answer: B
Q3) Parents who are both phenotyped as group A cannot have a group O child.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion?
A) AB and B
B) B and A
C) O and A
D) AB and A
Q2) Group O
A)D-galactose
B)L-fucose
C)N-acetylgalactosamine
D)None of the above
Q3) Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG
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Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) r'
A)Ce
B)CE
C)DCE
D)Dce
Q2) Red cells that phenotype as D-negative indicate that:
A) they inherited two D genes.
B) there is no genetic material inherited from the RHD gene from both parents.
C) a suppressor gene was inherited that is turning off the D gene expression.
D) reagents currently in use are not detecting the D antigen.
Q3) Anti-D reagent and the Rh control were tested with red cells. Both tests were 2+ agglutination reactions. What is the interpretation of the results?
A) D-positive
B) D-negative
C) Unable to interpret without further testing
D) D-positive if the sample is from a patient
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies to Kidd, Kell, and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except:
A) can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B) usually detected only by the indirect antiglobulin test.
C) enhanced with enzyme treatment.
D) can cause transfusion reactions.
Q2) Antigen has a higher frequency in females
A)Cartwright
B)MNSs
C)Kidd
D)Bg
E)Xg<sup>a</sup>
F)Sd<sup>a</sup> antigen
G)Chido
H)Knops
I)Duffy
J)Vel
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteolytic enzymes should not be used to screen for antibodies because:
A) the reagent is too expensive for routine use.
B) clinically insignificant antibodies are enhanced.
C) red cells must be treated with enzymes first, which makes this technique impractical.
D) some antigens are destroyed by enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed.
Q2) Cold autoantibodies are typically of which specificity?
A) M
B) N
C) I
D) Le<sup>b</sup>
Q3) All the following antigens are commonly found on screening cells except:
A) D.
B) k.
C) Kp<sup>a</sup>.
D) C.
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Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your blood bank mistakenly transfused 1 unit of D-positive red blood cells to a patient who was typed as D-negative. The patient had no history of a previous transfusion or pregnancy. Antibody detection testing was negative in pretransfusion testing. The crossmatch in this case was:
A) compatible at immediate spin.
B) incompatible at immediate spin only.
C) not necessary to perform.
D) incompatible at antihuman globulin only.
Q2) An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The crossmatch, performed at immediate spin and antihuman globulin, was incompatible with 1 unit selected. The next step in the investigation would be to:
A) perform a panel on the patient's serum.
B) perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit.
C) redraw the patient and begin a new crossmatch.
D) crossmatch a new unit and discard the incompatible unit.
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28524
Sample Questions
Q1) Blood collected from a therapeutic phlebotomy is:
A) acceptable for inventory under certain Food and Drug Administration guidelines.
B) unacceptable for inventory.
C) acceptable if the "volunteer donor" label is removed.
D) acceptable if the patient meets all regular donor criteria.
Q2) During the donor screening process, the potential donor's blood drop sinks to the bottom of the copper sulfate solution within 15 seconds. What is the interpretation of this test?
A) The hemoglobin is within limits; however, the hematocrit must be checked.
B) The donor has an acceptable hemoglobin and hematocrit to donate.
C) The donor is temporarily deferred.
D) The specific gravity of the copper sulfate is incorrect.
Q3) Allogeneic whole blood donors may donate every __________ days.
A) 24
B) 36
C) 56
D) 72
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11
Chapter 10: Testing of Donor Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A thorough donor history is the only way to prevent:
A) syphilis.
B) human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I.
C) cytomegalovirus.
D) malaria.
Q2) Nucleic acid tests are used to screen for:
A) hepatitis C virus, West Nile virus, and HIV.
B) Chagas disease, malaria, and syphilis.
C) hepatitis B virus, hepatitis C virus, and HIV.
D) human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I/human T-cell lymphotropic virus-II, HIV-1/HIV-2, and hepatitis C virus.
Q3) A positive serological test for syphilis indicates:
A) that antibodies to Treponema pallidum are present.
B) past or present venereal disease infection.
C) the possibility of an infection with Treponema pallidum.
D) that antigens associated with venereal disease are present.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whole blood collected from a donor should remain at what temperature before the separation and preparation of platelet concentrates?
A) 20° to 24°<sup> </sup>C
B) 1° to 6°<sup> </sup>C
C) 1° to 10°<sup> </sup>C
D) Varies with the facility
Q2) Following a platelet concentrate transfusion, a patient did not obtain the calculated corrected count increment that was expected. The possible reason(s) this did not occur is(are) the:
A) patient had a fever.
B) patient was actively bleeding.
C) patient has leukocyte antibodies.
D) all of the above are correct.
Q3) Platelet concentrates that are prepared from whole blood have a minimum quality control limit of __________ platelets in __________ of the units tested.
A) 3 * 10<sup>11</sup>, 75%
B) 1 *10<sup>10</sup>, 75%
C) 5.5* 10<sup>10</sup>, all
D) 5.5 * 10<sup>10</sup>, 75%
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of whole blood to a patient with cardiac insufficiency could result in which of the following transfusion reactions?
A) Delayed hemolytic reaction
B) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
C) Circulatory overload
D) Febrile nonhemolytic reaction
Q2) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
A)Prevented by leukoreduced components
B)Prevented by irradiation of components
C)Symptoms include hives and itching
D)Associated with ABO incompatibilities
E)Caused by donor white cell antibodies
F)Alloantibodies to red cell antigens
G)Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
Q3) A hemolytic reaction to red blood cells can be caused by which of the following nonimmune mechanisms?
A) Incompatible intravenous solutions mixed with the unit
B) Improper storage of the unit
C) Bacterial contamination of the unit
D) All of the above
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the rosette test?
A) It is a staining procedure that differentiates fetal and adult cells.
B) The test is valid only if the mother is D-negative and the infant is D-positive.
C) Indicator cells bind to the D-positive maternal cells forming a rosette.
D) The test is a quantitative test to determine how many vials of Rh immune globulin to administer.
Q2) To prevent graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for intrauterine transfusions should be:
A) frozen and deglycerolized.
B) saline washed.
C) ABO and D-compatible with the mother.
D) irradiated.
Q3) A large fetomaternal bleed in a D-negative woman who delivered a D-positive infant should be suspected if the:
A) direct antiglobulin test on the infant is positive.
B) infant is premature.
C) fetomaternal hemorrhage screen result is positive.
D) maternal antibody screen is positive postpartum.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deficiency of factors II, V, X, and XI
A)Cryoprecipitated AHF
B)Fresh frozen plasma
C)Red blood cells
D)Platelets
E)Leukoreduced blood components
F)Washed red blood cells
G)Albumin/plasma protein fraction
H)Factor concentrates
I)Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced
J)Irradiated blood products
Q2) ABO-matched organ transplants are critical in all the following except:
A) bone marrow.
B) kidney.
C) heart.
D) liver.
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Chapter 15: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A facility does not validate a refrigerator before use. What is a potential outcome?
A) The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the Food and Drug Administration.
B) The facility is in compliance if the equipment functions properly.
C) The facility is in compliance if the blood products stored in it are not transfused.
D) The facility is in violation of AABB and may no longer be members.
Q2) Which of the following organizations are involved in the regulation of blood banks?
A) The Joint Commission
B) AABB
C) College of American Pathologists
D) Food and Drug Administration
Q3) Employee training takes place:
A) after hiring and following implementation of new procedures.
B) following competency assessment.
C) only for new inexperienced employees.
D) as procedures are validated.
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17
Chapter 16: Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28531
Sample Questions
Q1) Dry ice (carbon dioxide, frozen)
A)Corrosive
B)Corrosive and toxic
C)Toxic and flammable
D)Irritant and sensitizer
E)Toxic and irritant
F)Irritant and corrosive
G)Irritant
Q2) Ficin (powder)
A)Corrosive
B)Corrosive and toxic
C)Toxic and flammable
D)Irritant and sensitizer
E)Toxic and irritant
F)Irritant and corrosive
G)Irritant
Q3) All accidents, even minor ones, must be reported to a supervisor.
A) True
B) False
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Page 18