Hematology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Hematology is the study of blood, blood-forming organs, and blood diseases. This course explores the physiology and pathology of blood cells, hemoglobin, bone marrow, and coagulation systems, with an emphasis on understanding normal blood function and diagnosing hematological disorders such as anemia, leukemia, lymphomas, bleeding and clotting disorders. Students will examine laboratory techniques for blood analysis and gain insights into current advances in hematologic research and therapies, preparing them for clinical practice or further specialization in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Linne Ringsruds Clinical Laboratory Science 7th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon
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17 Chapters
529 Verified Questions
529 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Fundamentals of the Clinical Laboratory
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ASCP
A)American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science
B)National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences
C)American Society of Clinical Pathologists
Answer: C
Q2) Chain of custody is defined as:
A) physical transport of a specimen needed for legal reasons.
B) escorting patients who are prison inmates.
C) beginning with the moment the specimen is collected and transported to the laboratory, to the analysis itself and the reporting of the results, each step must be documented.
D) documentation of quality control when reporting a patient's laboratory results.
Answer: C
Q3) The fastest growing segment of laboratory testing is:
A) dry reagent chemistry.
B) lab on a chip technology.
C) molecular diagnostics.
D) automation of blood cell counting.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Safety in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipstick or makeup should not be applied in the clinical work area.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A carcinogen:
A) is any substance that can cause the development of cancerous growth in living tissue.
B) is related to the spread of viral diseases.
C) cannot be used in the laboratory.
D) is both a and b.
Answer: A
Q3) An important change in the newly revised OSHA Hazard Communication Standard (HCS)is:
A) labels on chemicals must be in different colors.
B) new safety data sheets can be abbreviated documents.
C) a single set of harmonized criteria for classifying chemicals is used.
D) the chemical mixtures must be stated on the container label.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Quality Assessment and Quality Control in the Clinical Laboratory
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) trend or drift
A)a gradual change in the control sample results
B)a sudden and sustained change in one direction in control sample values
C)when random error or lack of precision increases
Answer: A
Q2) An example of a preanalytical error is:
A) specimen obtained from a wrong patient.
B) lack of frequent preventive maintenance.
C) reporting of laboratory results by phone.
D) poorly trained phlebotomists.
Answer: A
Q3) If a violation of Westgard rules occurs,the correct action is:
A) accept the results if only a warning is violated.
B) reject the results when a mandatory rule is violated.
C) increase the retesting range if either a warning or a mandatory rule is violated.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Phlebotomy: Collecting and Processing Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shelf life of an evacuated tube is determined by:
A) stability of the additive.
B) vacuum retention.
C) clinical use of the additive.
D) both a and b.
Q2) Major errors in the identification of patients can include:
A) absent wristband.
B) erroneous information on the wristband.
C) partially missing information on the wristband.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Most mistakes in laboratory testing involve ____ errors.
A) preanalytical (pre-evaluation)
B) analytical (evaluation)
C) postanalytical (post-evaluation)
D) a combination of any of the above
Q4) The anticoagulant of choice for blood cell counting and sizing is:
A) EDTA.
B) sodium citrate.
C) heparin.
D) sodium fluoride.
6
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Chapter 5: The Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a polarizing microscope,the polarizing filters are:
A) placed on top of each other.
B) placed at right angles to each other.
C) red and blue in color.
D) used to brighten the field being observed.
Q2) The most common type of microscope illumination system used in the clinical laboratory is:
A) brightfield.
B) phase contrast.
C) polarizing.
D) fluorescent.
Q3) Oil needs to be removed from the:
A) ocular.
B) 10× objective.
C) 40× objective.
D) 100× objective.
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Chapter 6: Systems of Measurement, laboratory
Equipment, and Reagents
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of a material safety data sheet (MSDS)is to provide information about:
A) possible hazards.
B) safe handling instructions.
C) storage and disposal of the specific chemical that it accompanies.
D) all of the above.
Q2) The ____ balance is the most commonly used balance in a clinical laboratory.
A) mechanical analytical
B) electronic analytical
C) triple beam
D) None of the above are correct.
Q3) Solutions prepared from the most highly purified types of chemicals available are ____ solutions.
A) reagent
B) standard
C) molar
D) acidic
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Chapter 7: Laboratory Mathematics and Solution Preparation
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term dilution refers to:
A) the volume or number of parts of the substance to be diluted in the total volume.
B) the volume or number of parts of the substance to be diluted in the parts of the final solution.
C) an expression of concentration that indicates the relative amount of substance in solution.
D) all of the above.
Q2) standard solution
A)a solution prepared from a stock solution and usually stored in the refrigerator
B)one that contains a known, exact amount of the substance being measured
C)one that contains reagents used in the procedure but not the substance to be measured
Q3) Laboratory results should only contain the digits necessary for the precision of the determination.
A)True
B)False
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9
Chapter 8: Basic and New Techniques in the Clinical Laboratory
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newer analytic technology that is becoming the technology of choice by most immunodiagnostic manufacturers is:
A) chemiluminescence.
B) electrophoresis.
C) spectrophotometry.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) A reaction format used in noncompetitive immunochemical assays includes:
A) sandwich assays.
B) two-site assays.
C) excess reagent assays.
D) all of the above.
Q3) A popular at-home application of reflectance spectrophotometry in point-of-care testing (POCT)is:
A) blood volume estimation.
B) drug monitoring.
C) glucose monitoring.
D) pH determination.
Q4) Quality control tests for spectrophotometers consist of checking stray light.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Delivery of Laboratory Testing From Point of
Care to Total Automation
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systems for automated or semiautomated urinalysis chemical testing systems use:
A) visual reading.
B) reflectance photometers.
C) flow-cell analysis.
D) any of the above.
Q2) moderately complex
A)slide examinations of freshly collected body fluids
B)simple procedures with little chance of negative outcomes if performed inaccurately
C)usually nonautomated, requiring considerable judgment
D)more complex than waived, usually automated
Q3) Leukocytes can be differentiated by:
A) automated three-part differential.
B) automated five-cell differential.
C) digital imaging.
D) all of the above.
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11
Chapter 10: Introduction to Clinical Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) respiratory alkalosis
A)decreased plasma bicarbonate
B)excess elimination of acid
C)acid-rich fluids are lost
D)decreased elimination of CO
Q2) Which of the following methods is not used to quantitate glucose levels?
A) Glucose oxidase
B) Glucose dehydrogenase
C) Clinitest
D) Hexokinase
Q3) Estimation of the blood glucose level over the previous 4 to 6 weeks is determined with which test?
A) HbA<sub>1c</sub>
B) Ketones
C) Clinitest
D) Microalbumin
Q4) Free T is ____ and thyroid stimulating hormone is ____ in hypothyroidism.
A) increased; decreased
B) decreased; increased
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Chapter 11: Principles and Practice of Clinical Hematology
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mature platelets are brightly colored oval bodies on a peripheral blood smear.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Observation of many smudge cells on a blood smear can be associated with a diagnosis of:
A) chronic myelogenous leukemia.
B) chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
C) acute bacterial infection.
D) acute viral infection.
Q3) lymphocyte
A)usually the most numerous of the mature leukocytes (WBCs)
B)dark-purple or black granules in the cytoplasm
C)orange granules in the cytoplasm
D)cytoplasm usually stains a light blue
E)the largest mature WBC
Q4) The reference range of the microhematocrit in adult males is:
A) 32% to 36%.
B) 36% to 45%.
C) 41.5% to 50.4%.
D) 45% to 55.5%.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) An unbalanced hemostatic mechanism can produce:
A) thrombosis.
B) bleeding.
C) inadequate number of platelets.
D) both a and b.
Q2) A function or activity of platelets is to help activate and be a participant in plasma coagulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A function or activity of platelets is to form an aggregate plug or platelet mass that can physically slow down or stop blood loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Natural anticoagulants include:
A) antithrombin III (AT-III).
B) protein C.
C) protein S.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 13: Renal Physiology and Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) acyclovir
A)found in acid urine
B)envelope-shaped, glistening and colorless
C)coffin lids
D)colorless slender needles that are strongly birefringent with polarized light
E)yellow or reddish-brown shapes (e.g., lemon- or barrel-shaped forms)
Q2) triple phosphate
A)found in acid urine
B)envelope-shaped, glistening and colorless
C)coffin lids
D)colorless slender needles that are strongly birefringent with polarized light
E)yellow or reddish-brown shapes (e.g., lemon- or barrel-shaped forms)
Q3) RBC casts and RBCs
A)exposure to nephrotoxic substances
B)urinary tract infection
C)acute pyelonephritis
D)glomerular damage
Q4) Casts disintegrate as urine becomes alkaline.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Examination of Body Fluids and Miscellaneous Specimens
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Sample Questions
Q1) A macroscopically turbid cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)may indicate:
A) blood clots.
B) increased white blood cell count.
C) presence of hemorrhage.
D) viral infection.
Q2) An assay for fetal fibronectin (fFN)is performed,if the:
A) mother is having symptoms of premature labor.
B) fetus is suffering from hemolytic anemia.
C) parents want to know the gender of the fetus.
D) obstetrician wants to know if the fetus has a genetic disorder.
Q3) CSF specimens should be delivered to the laboratory:
A) immediately.
B) within an hour.
C) within 12 hours.
D) within 24 hours.
Q4) Normally,____% or more of sperm are motile.
A) 15
B) 25
C) 50
D) 100
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Chapter 15: Introduction to Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are structures found in prokaryotic organisms except:
A) mitochondria.
B) capsules.
C) ribosomes.
D) cell wall.
Q2) Which of the following tests identifies Staphylococcus aureus?
A) PYR and catalase
B) Catalase and coagulase
C) Bile solubility and optochin
D) Indole and oxidase
Q3) Which of the following is a differential stain used routinely in microbiology laboratories?
A) Methylene blue
B) Flagella stain
C) Gram stain
D) Capsule stain
Q4) Interpret the following Gram stain of urethral discharge from a male: Many polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
Few gram-negative intracellular diplococci
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Chapter 16: Immunology and Serology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in several important aspects.IgG-type antibodies are the principal class of antibody formed in a primary response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Direct immunofluorescent assay (DFA)
A)A conjugated antibody is used to detect antigen-antibody reactions.
B)Antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins.
Q3) A convalescent blood specimen should be collected ____ after the onset of symptoms.
A) 24 hours
B) 72 hours
C) 1 week
D) 2 weeks
Q4) An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in several important aspects.In a secondary response,antibody concentrations reach a higher titer.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Immunohematology and Transfusion Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transfusion reactions that are the most life threatening are:
A) hemolytic.
B) febrile.
C) nonimmune.
D) iron-overload.
Q2) Whole blood
A)Best used when oxygen-carrying capacity is needed
B)Rarely used but can meet a patient's need for volume replacement, oxygen-carrying capacity, and heat-labile coagulation factors
C)Used to treat multiple coagulation deficiencies
D)Used to treat hemophilia
Q3) The first stage of red cell agglutination is sensitization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The concentration of RBCs used in blood banking testing is important.
A)True
B)False
Q5) direct antihuman globulin test
A)used to detect antibody
B)used to detect antibody-coated RBCs
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