Hematology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Hematology is the study of blood, its components, and related disorders. This course provides an in-depth examination of the physiology and pathology of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, as well as plasma and the coagulation system. Students will learn about the principles of blood formation, hematopoiesis, diagnostic techniques, and the etiology and management of common hematological diseases such as anemia, leukemias, lymphomas, bleeding and clotting disorders. The course also covers laboratory methods in hematology, blood transfusion practices, and the interpretation of hematological test results, emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and practical application in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3886 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average of a group of data points is defined as the:
A) Mean
B) Mode
C) Median
D) Modicum
Answer: A
Q2) Standard deviation is a measurement of precision.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Tube length when referring to the microscope is the:
A) Resolution power of the objective
B) Distance from the eyepiece to the objective
C) Numerical aperture
D) Magnitude of the image on the stage
Answer: B
Q4) Label the parts of the microscope.
Answer: 1. Objectives2. Stage3. Eye piece4. Base5. Light source6. Iris diaphragm7. Course adjustment knob8. Fine adjustment knob9. Stage adjustment knobs10. Clips11. Substage condenser 11ea8f8c_a35f_cfdc_b491_39c0cc95f0f6_TB3286_00
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Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The key organs involved in extramedullary hematopoiesis include the:
A) Kidney and thymus
B) Lymph nodes and heart
C) Liver and spleen
D) Kidney and liver
Answer: C
Q2) A patient's hemoglobin is 12.3 g/dL.On the peripheral smear, the red cells appear normochromic, normocytic.The hematocrit value that correlates with these data is:
A) 34%
B) 37%
C) 40%
D) 43%
Answer: B
Q3) Mature red blood cells leave the bone marrow and enter the circulation via the:
A) Reticuloendothelial system
B) Osteoclasts
C) Spleen
D) Bone marrow sinuses
Answer: D
4
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Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pappenheimer bodies are composed of:
A) Iron
B) Denatured hemoglobin
C) DNA
D) RNA
Answer: A
Q2) One of the key morphological features of the nucleated red cell stages is:
A) Basophilic cytoplasm through every stage of maturation
B) Granules in the cytoplasm
C) A round nucleus
D) An increase in size as the cell matures
Answer: C
Q3) Red cell inclusions that are remnants of DNA are termed:
A) Cabot rings
B) Howell Jolly bodies
C) Heinz bodies
D) Pappenheimer bodies
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an embryonic hemoglobin?
A) Hgb Portland
B) Hgb F
C) Hgb Gowers I
D) Hgb Gowers II
Q2) ____may be seen in intravascular hemolysis but not in extravascular hemolysis.
A) Hemoglobinuria
B) Splenomegaly
C) Increased LDH
D) Elevated serum bilirubin
Q3) The hemoglobin molecule will either hold onto or release oxygen depending on the:
A) Amount of alpha or beta chains
B) Relationship between the pulmonary and venous circulations
C) Viscosity of the blood
D) M:E ratio
Q4) 90% of in vivo hemolysis is intravascular.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In iron deficiency anemia, the reticulocyte count will be:
A) Normal
B) Low
C) High
D) Extremely high
Q2) Which if the following is also known as Cooley's anemia?
A) Alpha thalassemia
B) Beta thalassemia major
C) Hereditary hemochromatosis
D) IDA
Q3) The alpha thalassemic condition that is incompatible with life is:
A) Hemoglobin H disease
B) Bart's hydrops fetalis
C) Alpha thalassemia trait
D) Silent carrier condition
Q4) One of the gravest clinical problems for individuals with thalassemia major is:
A) Chronic anemia
B) Iron overload
C) Therapeutic phlebotomy
D) Collapsed veins
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell pictured above may be seen in which of the following conditions?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Megaloblastic anemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Hereditary hemochromatosis
Q2) A bone marrow aspiration/examination is not necessary for patients with megaloblastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The MCV in pernicious anemia will be in the range of:
A) 70 to 80 fL
B) 85 to 95 fL
C) 110 to 120 fL
D) 90 to 98 fL
Q4) A key substance required for the incorporation of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> in red cell nuclear synthesis is the presence of:
A) EPO
B) Transferrin
C) Intrinsic factor
D) Cytokines
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Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell at the tip of the pointer is referred to as a:
A) Stomatocyte
B) Target cell
C) Normal erythrocyte
D) Spherocyte
Q2) The inability of the red blood cell to generate ATP for membrane function is most closely associated with:
A) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
B) G6PD deficiency
C) Fanconi's anemia
D) Congenital hemolytic anemia
Q3) An osmotic fragility test is performed on a patient's sample.Initial hemolysis occurs at 0.75% NaCl and complete hemolysis occurs at 0.50% NaCl.These results are indicative of which of the following disorders?
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Hgb C disease
C) Thalassemia major
D) Hereditary spherocytosis
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Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by
Hemoglobinopathies
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the bone marrow temporarily ceases to produce cells in a sickle cell patient, a(n) _____crisis has occurred.
A) aplastic
B) hemolytic
C) vaso-occlusive
D) cardiac
Q2) Patients with sickle cell anemia generally have a hemoglobin value between:
A) 2 and 4 g/dL
B) 6 and 8 g/dL
C) 8 and 10 g/dL
D) 10 and 12 g/dL
Q3) The Benin haplotype of sickle cell disease is prevalent in which country or countries?
A) Saudi Arabia and Asia
B) Senegal
C) West Africa
D) Central and South Africa
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Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of time a granulocyte spends in the circulation before migrating into the tissues is normally:
A) 8 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 5 days
D) 20 days
Q2) One of the primary glands responsible for lymphocyte origination in the infant is the:
A) Thymus gland
B) Adrenal gland
C) Thyroid gland
D) Pituitary gland
Q3) The plasma cell is responsible for:
A) Humoral immunity
B) Cell mediated immunity
C) Tumor suppression
D) Delayed hypersensitivity
Q4) The primary function of lymphocytes is immunologic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical blood picture in infectious mononucleosis is an absolute:
A) Lymphocytosis and anemia with many reactive lymphocytes
B) Lymphocytosis without anemia and many reactive lymphocytes
C) Monocytosis and anemia with many atypical monocytes
D) Monocytosis without anemia and many atypical monocytes
Q2) The best corrective action for a patient who exhibits platelet satellitism on peripheral blood smear is to:
A) Make a duplicate slide and see if this phenomenon disappears
B) Warm the tube of blood
C) Redraw the sample in sodium citrate
D) Vortex the sample of blood
Q3) Toxic vacuolization occurs most frequently in:
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Erythrocytes
Q4) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the EBV virus, which infects B lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low-risk ALL pediatric clinical trials require the WBC count to be less than:
A) 20 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 50 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 60 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 75 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Q2) ___is the rarest form of the AMLs.
A) M1
B) M4
C) M6
D) M7
Q3) The cells pictured above are most consistent for:
A) Acute myeloid leukemia
B) Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D) Acute erythroid leukemia
Q4) The presence of CD2, CD5, and CD7 and the absence of CD10 is seen in:
A) B lymphocytes
B) T lymphocytes
C) Myeloblasts
D) Monoblasts
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pancytosis is a prominent feature of which of the following disorders?
A) Chronic myelocytic leukemia
B) Idiopathic myelofibrosis
C) Polycythemia vera
D) Essential thrombocythemia
Q2) The translocation of genetic material, t9:22, is associated with:
A) The Philadelphia chromosome
B) ALL
C) A leukemoid reaction
D) Polycythemia vera
Q3) The red cell morphology associated with IMF is:
A) Burr cells
B) Acanthocytes
C) Teardrop cells
D) Target cells
Q4) All of the following are causes of thrombocytosis except:
A) Malignancy
B) Infection
C) Smoking
D) Blood loss
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reed Sternberg cells are associated with:
A) Sézary syndrome
B) CLL
C) Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Multiple myeloma
Q2) An abnormal proliferation of dysfunctional B lymphocytes is commonly associated with:
A) Acute lymphocytic leukemia
B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C) Infectious mononucleosis
D) Hodgkin's disease
Q3) A peripheral blood picture dominated by cells that appear convoluted with an ovoid nucleus and clefting would most likely be seen in:
A) Sézary syndrome
B) Burkitt's lymphoma
C) CLL
D) Infectious mononucleosis
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell at the tip of the pointer is:
A) A basophil
B) A malignant cell
C) A degenerating neutrophil
D) Not a cell; it's an artifact
Q2) The most common hematological malignancy in the adult population is:
A) Acute leukemia
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Myelodysplastic syndrome
D) Chronic leukemias
Q3) Which of the following bone marrow blast percentages will be consistent with the FAB classification of refractory anemia with excess of blasts (RAEB)?
A) 5% to 20%
B) 20% to 30%
C) Greater than 30%
D) Less than 5%
Q4) A large percentage of the MDSs end in an acute leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prothrombin group of factors consists of factors:
A) I, V, VIII, and XIII
B) XI, XII, prekallikrein, and HMWK
C) II, VII, IX, and X
D) III, VIII, IX, and X
Q2) The anticoagulant known as heparin:
A) Inhibits PF3 activity
B) Inhibits thrombin activity
C) Degrades antithrombin activity
D) Chelates calcium
Q3) The first response of a cut vessel is:
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Platelet aggregation
C) Activation of the intrinsic pathway
D) Vasodilation
Q4) The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors include:
A) Factors I, V, VII, XIII
B) Factors II, VII, IX, X
C) Factors III, VIII, IX, X
D) Factors XI and XII
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Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A platelet release defect in which there is a severe deficiency of dense granules in platelets is known as:
A) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
B) Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Q2) A platelet release defect in which there is a severe lack of alpha granules in platelets is known as:
A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
C) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
D) Gray platelet syndrome
Q3) The autoantibody generated in ITP is directed against:
A) vWF
B) Collagen
C) GP IIb/IIIa, GP Ib/IX
D) Fibrinopeptides A and B
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18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following may lead to deficiencies of clotting factors except:
A) Renal disease
B) Liver disease
C) Autoimmune disease
D) Cardiovascular disease
Q2) Keloid scar formation is most commonly associated with:
A) Factor VIII deficiency
B) Factor IX deficiency
C) Factor XII deficiency
D) Factor XIII deficiency
Q3) Which of the following is the most useful in differentiating hemophilia A from hemophilia B?
A) A familial pattern of inheritance
B) Patient's history
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time
D) Factor assays
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19
Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmin causes the inactivation of factors:
A) V, VII, X, XI
B) V, VIII, XI, XII
C) VII, VIII, XI, XII
D) X, XI, XII, XIII
Q2) Which of the following hematology disorders will likely trigger an episode of DIC?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Idiopathic thrombocythemia
D) Acute progranulocytic leukemia
Q3) The reference range for fibrinogen is:
A) 100 to 200 mg/dL
B) 200 to 400 mg/dL
C) 400 to 600 mg/dL
D) 600 to 750 mg/dL
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Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heparin therapy is monitored best by performing routine:
A) PT/INRs
B) anti-factor Xa
C) Fibrinogen levels
D) Bleeding time tests
Q2) Heparin:
A) Inhibits PF3
B) Inhibits thrombin
C) Degrades antithrombin
D) Complexes with protein C
Q3) What therapy may be used for a patient with hemophilia A who is bleeding and has a low titer of factor VIII inhibitor?
A) Fresh frozen plasma
B) Porcine factor VIII
C) Antithrombin concentrate
D) High-dosage factor VIII concentrate
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