Hematology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Hematology is the study of blood, blood-forming organs, and blood diseases. This course explores the physiology and pathology of blood cells and plasma, examining their production, function, and disorders. Students will learn about hematopoiesis, anemia, leukemias, coagulopathies, and other hematological conditions, as well as the principles behind laboratory hematology techniques. The course also covers the interpretation of hematological tests, provides an introduction to transfusion medicine, and discusses current advances in the treatment and management of blood diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Immunohematology 2nd Edition by Kathy D. Blaney
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16 Chapters
393 Verified Questions
393 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1436 Page 2
Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28516
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the cell involved in acquired immunity.
A) Neutrophils
B) Platelets
C) Lymphocytes
D) Red cells
Answer: C
Q2) What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used?
A) False negatives
B) False positives
C) Hemolysis
D) No effect
Answer: A
Q3) Tests for certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia
A)Indirect antiglobulin test
B)Direct antiglobulin test
C)Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications in
Immunohematology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?
A) Polyclonal-based
B) Monoclonal-based
C) Heterophile antibody-based
D) Alloantibody-based
Answer: A
Q2) Select the method that uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix.
A) Solid-phase red cell adherence
B) Microplate
C) Gel technology
D) Tube techniques
Answer: C
Q3) Following centrifugation of the gel card, red cells are observed to be evenly dispersed throughout one of the microtubes. This reaction could be graded as a:
A) 4+.
B) 3+.
C) 2+.
D) 1+.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA
A)Restriction fragment-length polymorphism
B)Polymerase chain reaction
C)Hybridization
D)Probe
E)Amplicon
Answer: C
Q2) Of the following markers that can be used to test for paternity, which marker provides the most useful statistical value?
A) Human leukocyte antigen typing
B) D antigens
C) ABO system antigens
D) The Kidd system (Jk<sup>a</sup>, Jk<sup>b</sup>)
Answer: B
Q3) Mitosis results in __________ chromosomes as the original.
A) four cells with half as many
B) two cells with the same number of
C) four cells with the same number of
D) two cells with half as many
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG
Q2) What substances are found in the saliva of a group A person who also inherited the secretor gene?
A) A, H
B) H
C) A, Se
D) A, B, H
Q3) Group B
A)D-galactose
B)L-fucose
C)N-acetylgalactosamine
D)None of the above
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6
Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is it genetically possible for a child to phenotype as D-negative?
A) Both parents are heterozygous D-positive.
B) Both parents are homozygous D-positive.
C) Mom is homozygous D-positive, and Dad is heterozygous D-positive.
D) The sibling is D-positive.
Q2) Current theory regarding the genetics of the Rh system suggests that:
A) each Rh system antigen is coded by its own gene locus.
B) Rh system antigens are coded by two closely linked genes.
C) one gene locus with multiple alleles codes for the protein antigens.
D) the Rh system genes are a haplotype that codes for three sets of alleles.
Q3) All of the following can cause the D antigen expression to be weaker except:
A) inheriting the G gene.
B) inheriting the C antigen in trans to the D antigen.
C) an RHD gene that is genetically weaker.
D) partial D expression.
Q4) DcE
A)R<sub>1</sub>r
B)R<sub>1</sub>R<sub>1</sub>
C)R<sub>2</sub>R<sub>2</sub>
D)rr
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies to Kidd, Kell, and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except:
A) can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B) usually detected only by the indirect antiglobulin test.
C) enhanced with enzyme treatment.
D) can cause transfusion reactions.
Q2) Which of the following facts is not a characteristic of Kell system antibodies?
A) Usually clinically significant IgG antibodies
B) Best detected in indirect antiglobulin test phases
C) Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents
D) Do not bind complement proteins
Q3) Antigens of the P system are structurally related to which of the following blood group systems?
A) MNS
B) ABH
C) Kell
D) Duffy
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Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel at the immediate spin phase. These reactions disappeared following incubation at 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C and the antihuman globulin phase of testing. The antibody most likely to be responsible is:
A) anti-E.
B) anti-D.
C) anti-I.
D) anti-Le<sup>a</sup>.
Q2) DTT (dithiothreitol) would be useful in the identification of which of the following antibodies?
A) Anti-Js<sup>a</sup>
B) Anti-Kp<sup>b</sup>
C) Anti-Vel
D) Anti-K
Q3) Rh system antibodies characteristically give:
A) mixed-field reactions on panels.
B) weak reactions with panel cells.
C) strong reactions with panel cells when read at immediate spin phase.
D) reactions that are enhanced with enzymes.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following may be used to perform an antibody screen for an infant less than 4 months old except:
A) infant serum.
B) paternal serum.
C) maternal serum.
D) infant eluate.
Q2) An infant less than 4 months old requires which procedures for compatibility testing?
A) Antibody screen with each unit released in a 48-hour period
B) ABO and D typing and antibody screen initially only; units released without additional testing if the screen is negative
C) Immediate spin crossmatch with each unit released
D) Group O, D-negative units; no testing is necessary
Q3) In which phase of reactivity would rouleaux typically be detected in the screen?
A) 4<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B) 15<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C
C) 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C
D) Antihuman globulin
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a cause for temporary deferment of a whole blood donor?
A) Aspirin ingestion 12 hours previously
B) Hepatitis B immunoglobulin taken 4 weeks previously
C) Oral polio vaccine taken 1 week previously
D) Rubella injection 1 week previously
Q2) Which of the following contributes to permanent rejection status of a donor?
A) A tattoo 5 months previously
B) Contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
C) Two units of blood transfused 4 months previously
D) Confirmed positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen 10 years previously
Q3) Which type of autologous donation procedure is the most common for most types of surgery?
A) Preoperative hemodilution
B) Postoperative salvage
C) Intraoperative blood salvage
D) Preoperative donation
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11
Chapter 10: Testing of Donor Blood
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common transfusion-transmitted disease?
A) AIDS
B) Syphilis
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Hepatitis
Q2) When are surrogate marker tests useful?
A) When the required test is too expensive
B) When direct testing is not yet available
C) If the required test detects too many false-positive results
D) When the internal controls are not valid
Q3) What is the advantage of testing donor blood using nucleic acid test methods?
A) Detection of small amounts of the virus
B) Reduction of costs involved in testing
C) Quicker and easier to perform than other methods
D) All of the above
Q4) Transfusion-associated hepatitis can be caused by hepatitis __________ virus.
A) B
B) C
C) D
D) all of the above
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Chapter 11: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28526
Sample Questions
Q1) The correct storage temperature and time limit for pooled platelets are:
A) 20° to 24°<sup> </sup>C, 5 days.
B) 1° to 6°<sup> </sup>C, 7 days.
C) 1° to 10°<sup> </sup>C, 24 hours.
D) 20° to 24°<sup> </sup>C, 4 hours.
Q2) Cryoprecipitated AHF, pooled
A)20° to 24° C, 4 hours
B)1° to 6° C, 24 hours
C)20° to 24° C, 6 hours
D)< -18° C, 1 year from collection
E)1° to 6° C, < 5 days
F)< -65° C, 7 years
G)20° to 24° C, 48 hours
Q3) Whole blood collected from a donor should remain at what temperature before the separation and preparation of platelet concentrates?
A) 20° to 24°<sup> </sup>C
B) 1° to 6°<sup> </sup>C
C) 1° to 10°<sup> </sup>C
D) Varies with the facility
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is necessary to prevent an anaphylactic reaction due to a known IgA antibody in a patient?
A) All red blood cell units should be irradiated.
B) Red blood cell units should be washed.
C) All blood components should be leukoreduced.
D) Patient should be given antihistamine before transfusion.
Q2) Administration of whole blood to a patient with cardiac insufficiency could result in which of the following transfusion reactions?
A) Delayed hemolytic reaction
B) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
C) Circulatory overload
D) Febrile nonhemolytic reaction
Q3) Which blood product is recommended for transfusions to individuals with a history of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions?
A) Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells
B) Packed red blood cells
C) Frozen red blood cells
D) Whole blood
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14
Chapter 13: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgE
Q2) Which elution method is ideal in the investigation of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
A) Glycine-acid
B) Freeze-thaw
C) Xylene
D) Chloroform
Q3) Rh immune globulin contains:
A) IgG anti-D.
B) immune serum globulin.
C) IgM anti-D.
D) gamma globulin.
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Chapter 14: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Massive transfusion is defined as the replacement of 1 blood volume. In a 70-kg adult, this is equivalent to __________ units of whole blood.
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
Q2) The most effective component to treat a patient with von Willebrand's disease is:
A) fresh frozen plasma.
B) red blood cells.
C) platelets.
D) cryoprecipitated AHF.
Q3) Which of the following contributes to red cell loss in chronic renal disease?
A) Below normal erythropoietin levels
B) Shearing of red cells from kidney dialysis
C) Elevated uremia
D) All of the above
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Chapter 15: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A facility does not validate a refrigerator before use. What is a potential outcome?
A) The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the Food and Drug Administration.
B) The facility is in compliance if the equipment functions properly.
C) The facility is in compliance if the blood products stored in it are not transfused.
D) The facility is in violation of AABB and may no longer be members.
Q2) Which of the following organizations are involved in the regulation of blood banks?
A) The Joint Commission
B) AABB
C) College of American Pathologists
D) Food and Drug Administration
Q3) Employee training takes place:
A) after hiring and following implementation of new procedures.
B) following competency assessment.
C) only for new inexperienced employees.
D) as procedures are validated.
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17
Chapter 16: Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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Sample Questions
Q1) FDA
A)Ensures safe and healthful working conditions
B)Government agency that determines whether a health facility meets standards for reimbursement for Medicare
C)Assessment of medical wastes
D)Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices
E)Voluntary accrediting agency for hospitals
F)Writes fire safety standards
G)Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories
H)Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services
I)Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission
J)Governs all transportation except by mail
Q2) In safety training, the employees must become familiar with all of the following except:
A) tasks that have an infectious risk.
B) limits of protective clothing and equipment.
C) the appropriate action to take if exposure occurs.
D) how to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a donor or other employee.
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Page 18