Hearing Science
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Hearing Science explores the fundamental principles underlying auditory perception, covering the anatomy and physiology of the auditory system, the physics of sound, and the neural processes involved in hearing. The course examines how sound waves are generated, transmitted, and interpreted by the human ear and brain. Topics include auditory development, psychoacoustics, hearing loss, and the impact of various environmental and genetic factors on auditory function. Students will also learn about current research methodologies and technologies used in the assessment and rehabilitation of hearing disorders. This course serves as a foundation for advanced study in audiology, speech-language pathology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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16 Chapters
457 Verified Questions
457 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday, Today, and Tomorrow
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Audiologists started becoming involved in the fitting and dispensing of hearing aids in the 19___s.
Answer: 1970s
Q2) The medical specialty that treats diseases of the ear is called ______________.
Answer: Otology/Otolaryngology
Q3) Who won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his work on the physiology of the ear?
Answer: Georg von Bekesy
Q4) The first academic program in audiology was established by Raymond Carhart at ___________ University.
Answer: Northwestern
Q5) Harvey Fletcher worked at the _______ Laboratories. Answer: Bell
Q6) _____________ is considered to be the Father of Audiology. Answer: Raymond Carhart
Q7) When was the AuD first introduced?
Answer: In the 1990s
Q8) During which historical event was audiology conceived as a profession? Answer: World war II
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimum amount of force that can be detected by a healthy human ear is _________ dynes/cm<sup>2 </sup> or __________ µPa.
Answer: 0.0002, 20
Q2) The faintest intensity level that can be detected is termed ___________________.
Answer: Threshold of audibility
Q3) The subjective attribute of intensity is called _________. Answer: Loudness
Q4) The three factors that influence the speed of sound are _________,_________,and _________.
Answer: Temperature, humidity, barometric pressure
Q5) The complete formula to calculate dB IL is _______________. Answer: 10 log I<sub>2</sub>/I<sub>R</sub>)
Q6) A sound with a single frequency of vibration is called a __________. Answer: Sine wave
Q7) A measure of the discrimination between two sounds is the __________. Answer: Just noticeable difference JND)
Q8) The repeated back and forth movement of a vibrating object is called _______ motion.
Answer: Simple harmonic motion
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary auditory cortex is known as __________________ gyrus.
Answer: Heschl's
Q2) What is the function of the middle ear?
Answer: The middle ear compensates for the loss of sound that occurs due to the mismatch of impedance between air in the external ear and fluid in the inner ear.It does so through three mechanisms:
1)The area ratio between the tympanic membrane and the stapes footplate
2) ossicular lever action
3) the conical shape of the tympanic membrane. The middle ear is also involved in the acoustic reflex, a protective mechanism that attenuates intense low- and mid-frequency sounds.
Q3) The three ducts or scala within the cochlea are the scala ________,scala _________,and scala _________.
Answer: Vestibuli, Media, and Tympani
Q4) How is intensity coded in function of the auditory nerve?
Answer: As sound intensity increases, 1) the neurons respond with increased firing rates. 2) there is spread of excitation along the basilar membrane, with the result that more neurons start firing. 3) the degree of phase locking among neurons increases.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation HIPAA refers to _______________________.
Q2) What types of noise are used to mask the non-test ear?
Q3) What type of transducer offers the most and the least attenuation of ambient noise during hearing testing?
Q4) An earphone for the right ear is colored-coded ______________,and the left earphone is color-coded _______________.
Q5) Hearing testing is not possible for children under the age of 3 years.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the best setting for hearing testing?
Q7) Prevention of medical ___________ is a serious concern in healthcare.
Q8) Which of the following is NOT a typical response mode for a cooperative adult patient?
A)Lifting a finger
B)Raising a hand
C)A head turn response
D)Pushing a response button
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Q9) A purpose of masking is to prevent _________________ hearing and to obtain _______ information.
Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loudspeakers are the preferred transducer of choice for hearing testing of infants and children who do not tolerate earphones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Give some examples of hearing loss configuration.
Q3) Which of the following audiometer features are often used in pure tone hearing testing?
A)Hearing level dial
B)Stimulus switch control
C)Frequency control
D)All of the above
Q4) There is a one-to-one correspondence between hearing loss expressed in dB HL and percentage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a hearing threshold?
Q6) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.
Q7) Describe how the traditional PTA is calculated.
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Q8) What are the advantages of forehead and mastoid approaches for bone conduction testing?
Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a spondee word?
Q2) Word recognition is more accurate with a fifty-word list than with a twenty-five-word list.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA?
Q4) What is the purpose of the VU meter on an audiometer?
Q5) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.
Q6) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.
Q7) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.
Q8) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.
A)True
B)False
Q9) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
Page 8
Q10) In word recognition testing,the phrase "Say the word " is known as a _________________ phrase.
Q11) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal in masking is to:
A)Verify accurate hearing test results
B)Ensure that the nontest ear is not contributing to the patient's response
C)Use an effective level of masking in the nontest ear
D)All of the above
Q2) The most effective masking noise in pure tone hearing testing is:
A)Broadband noise BBN)
B)White noise
C)Speech noise
D)Narrowband noise
Q3) In Hood's plateau method,what is the definition of a masked threshold?
A)The level at which the signal is still audible even though the masker level is increased by several steps.
B)The level at which the signal remains inaudible even though the masker level is increased by several steps.
C)The masker level at which the signal first becomes inaudible.
D)The masker level at which the signal first becomes audible.
Q4) The interaural attenuation for bone-conduction testing is ______.
Q5) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
Q6) Explain the difference between minimum and maximum masking.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) OAEs are always normal when pure tone audiometry is normal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) OAEs presence is defined by amplitude that is at least _________ above the noise floor.
Q3) Which of the following is the correct description of the measurement of a contralateral acoustic reflex in the right ear?
A)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the left ear
B)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the right ear
C)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the right ear
D)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the left ear
Q4) List some applications of OAEs in clinical audiology.
Q5) Acoustic immittance tests can be performed with the ear canal open.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Two acoustic immittance tests are ______________ and ______________
Q7) A very high ear canal volume estimated during acoustic immittance measurement usually indicates a ____________________.
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Q8) A perforated tympanic membrane would result in a _____ type tympanogram.
Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early diagnostic speech audiometry procedures were first described in publications during what decade?
A)1950s
B)1960s
C)1970s
D)1980s
Q2) ABR responses are elicited using _____ or ______.
Q3) Dichotic tests utilize which of the following kinds of speech materials?
A)CV syllables
B)Spondee words
C)Sentences
D)All of the above
Q4) In which of the following tests are different words,digits,or sentences are presented to each ear at the same time?
A)Dichotic tests
B)Filtered word tests
C)Speech-in-noise tests
D)PI-PB test
Page 12
Q5) Why the ABR is important in pediatric hearing assessment?
Q6) What are the two major features of ABR waves that are analyzed?
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Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) OSHA guidelines require that employers monitor an employee's hearing at least ______ a year.
Q2) The radiological technique that is best suited for detection of tumors involving the auditory system is ________.
Q3) What is the first step in the diagnostic process?
Q4) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name some characteristics of test performance of a screening procedure.
Q6) The process of narrowing down possible causes of a hearing loss or any medical problem is known as ___________________.
Q7) The abbreviation VNG stands for ________________ ________________ .
Q8) The process of screening all babies for hearing loss within the first three months of birth is called _________.
Page 14
Q9) Why is an accurate diagnosis of hearing loss important in clinical audiology?
Q10) Hearing loss associated with aging is termed ___________.
Q11) What is nystagmus? What vestibular technique is based on nystagmus recordings?
Q12) Best practice is ___________-based practice.
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Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provide two examples of craniofacial abnormalities.
Q2) Two general categories of genetically determined hearing loss are autosomal __________________ and autosomal ____________________ .
Q3) What are the characteristics of Meniere's disease?
Q4) Certain chemicals called _____________________ can protect the ear against the damaging effects of free radicals in noise-induced hearing loss.
Q5) A common factor in the development of middle ear disorders in children is _________________ tube dysfunction.
Q6) The term used for the period around birth is ______________________ .
Q7) Fluid in the middle ear space is called otitis media with ________________.
Q8) Which of the following is NOT an example of a craniofacial abnormality?
A)Preauricular pit
B)Aural atresia
C)Microtia
D)Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Q9) A common surgical treatment of otitis media is insertion of _____________________ tubes into the tympanic membranes.
Q10) A _________________ is a growth of skin,a cyst,in the middle ear space.
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Central Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term APD stands for _________________________.
Q2) One risk factor for auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder in infants is graduation from the ____________________.
Q3) Children with APD usually have abnormal pure tone hearing thresholds.. A)True B)False
Q4) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?
Q5) The 1990s was known as the _______________of the
Q6) Why is neuroplasticity an important concept in audiology?
Q7) What are some major features of ANSD?
Q8) What is a major distinction between acoustic tumors and neurofibromatosis II?
Q9) Change in the brain brought about by experience is known as brain
Q10) Which of the following are tumors that can be found in the central nervous system?
A)Astrocytoma
B)Glioma
C)Meningioma Page 17
D)All of the above
True or False
Q11) Define an auditory processing disorder APD).
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Page 18
Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the main differences between personal and classroom FM systems.
Q2) What is hearing aid validation?
Q3) What types of patients are generally considered candidates for a Baha device?
Q4) Identify three advantages of binaural hearing aid fittings over monaural fittings.
Q5) Which of the following are examples of HATs or ALDs?
A)Pocket talker
B)iPod
C)Wireless TV listening device
D)a and c
Q6) When output amplified sound is proportional or directly related to the input sound,it is known as _____________ amplification.
Q7) Surveys show that completion of the verification and validation process reduces the number of visits a hearing aid patient makes to a clinic.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What are some of the advantages of an open-fit hearing aid design?
Q9) What are some common problems with hearing aids?
Q10) Briefly explain the phrase prescriptive hearing aid fitting. Page 19
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Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consequences of complete unilateral hearing loss include:
A)Problem localizing the source of sound
B)Risk for academic problems
C)Risk for language impairment
D)All of the above
Q2) Patients usually remember over 80% of what they hear following an explanation of hearing test results.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hearing aids are the only management option for adults with hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What do the acronyms ASL and SEE stand for?
Q5) The _______________ approach is a family-centered variation of the auditory-oral strategy that maximizes normal daily parent-child interaction to promote development of effective communication,rather than reliance on professionals to teach speech and language skills.
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Q6) What is the oral approach to communication?
Q7) What is the difference between habilitation and rehabilitation?
Q8) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf.
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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The origin of tinnitus in the auditory system is usually dysfunction in the:
A)Tympanic membrane
B)Ossicular chain
C)Cochlea
D)Limbic system
Q2) Which of the following terms is sometimes used for false or exaggerated hearing loss?
A)Hyperacusis
B)Anacusis
C)Pseudohypacusis
D)Phonophobia
Q3) A behavioral hearing test designed to detect of false or exaggerated hearing loss is the
A)Count-the-dots test
B)Carhart test
C)Stenger test
D)Tone decay test
Q4) Explain two components of general management of a patient with bothersome tinnitus.
Q5) Tinnitus and hyperacusis are_________________,not diseases.
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to determine the location of auditory dysfunction in patients with ANSD?
Q2) An audiology or speech pathology report is a legal document.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name a vestibular disorder in which the audiologist is directly involved in rehabilitation.
Q4) An audiologist who is responsible for meeting the hearing needs of children in a school system is called ______________.
Q5) The recommended ANSI standards for classrooms require a signal-to-noise ratio of at least ______,with a background noise level not exceeding ______.
Q6) Team members for management of auditory processing disorders may include:
A)Audiologists and Speech pathologists
B)Educators
C)Psychologists
D)All of the above
Q7) Neurofibromas generally grow on only one side.
A)True
B)False
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