Course Introduction
Hearing Science Exam
Practice Tests
Hearing Science explores the fundamental principles underlying the auditory system and its role in human communication. This course covers the anatomy and physiology of the ear, the processes involved in the perception of sound, auditory neuroscience, and the psychological aspects of hearing. Topics include the physics of sound, mechanisms of hearing loss, auditory development, psychoacoustics, and the impact of hearing on speech and language. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and practical demonstrations, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how humans detect, process, and interpret sounds in their environment.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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457 Verified Questions
457 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday,
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over the age of 75 years,the proportion of adults with hearing loss is approximately
Answer: One half 50%)
Q2) During which historical event was audiology conceived as a profession?
Answer: World war II
Q3) What is the current entry-level degree for the practice of audiology?
Answer: Doctor of Audiology AuD)
Q4) _____________ is considered to be the Father of Audiology.
Answer: Raymond Carhart
Q5) Up to _____in 1000 children is born with some degree of hearing impairment. Answer: Six
Q6) Which of the following is a true specialty area in audiology
A)Pediatric audiology
B)Hearing testing
C)Working in a medical clinic
D)PhD audiology
Answer: A
Q7) One of the first hearing research centers in the United States was ______ at Harvard University.
Answer: Psychoacoustic Laboratories PAL)
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loudness and intensity can be used interchangeably with each other.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The speed of sound in air is ________ m/s.
Answer: 345
Q3) Define dB SL.
Answer: The unit dB SL stands for decibel sensation level.It is defined as the level of sound that is above the threshold of audibility or detection.For example,if a persons threshold of detection for a sound is 10 dB SPL, and the same sound is presented now at 65 dB SPL, the sensation level would be 65 -10 = 55 dB SL.
Q4) A sound with a single frequency of vibration is called a __________. Answer: Sine wave
Q5) A measure of the discrimination between two sounds is the __________. Answer: Just noticeable difference JND)
Q6) The amount of force exerted on a specific area is called _____________. Answer: Pressure
Q7) The complete formula to calculate dB IL is _______________.
Answer: 10 log I<sub>2</sub>/I<sub>R</sub>)
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) List similarities and differences in the function of outer versus inner hair cells.
Answer: Outer hair cells are capable of changing their length and shape motility), and this contributes to the active processes within the cochlea cochlear amplifier). Inner hair cells do not have the property of motility. Both outer and inner hair cells are important for the normal functioning of the cochlea.
Q2) The lightest bone in the human body is the ________.
Answer: Stapes
Q3) Name two characteristics of a healthy normal tympanic membrane.
Answer: The normal tympanic membrane is shiny and pearly in color.It reflects light upon illumination cone of light).
Q4) How is intensity coded in function of the auditory nerve?
Answer: As sound intensity increases, 1) the neurons respond with increased firing rates. 2) there is spread of excitation along the basilar membrane, with the result that more neurons start firing. 3) the degree of phase locking among neurons increases.
Q5) The hair cells and other important cochlear structures are found in the organ of __________.
Answer: Corti
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cite four factors that can influence behavioral hearing test results.
Q2) The main reason the patient presents for hearing testing is called __________.
Q3) Describe briefly what is meant by the term "patient rights"
Q4) What types of noise are used to mask the non-test ear?
Q5) Always writing the patient's name on each clinic document before hearing testing begins is an example of good clinical ___________.
Q6) The abbreviation PHI refers to ____________________________.
Q7) Calibration of hearing test equipment is optional.
A)True B)False
Q8) What type of transducer offers the most and the least attenuation of ambient noise during hearing testing?
Q9) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic.
Q10) How can medical errors be prevented in audiology?
Q11) List four different types of transducers used in hearing testing.
Q13) The abbreviation HIPAA refers to _______________________. Page 6
Q12) Describe the difference between chronological age and developmental age in a child.
Q14) Prevention of medical ___________ is a serious concern in healthcare.
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Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loudspeakers are the preferred transducer of choice for hearing testing of infants and children who do not tolerate earphones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Audiometers that allow the presentation of two sounds independently and separately to two earphones are called __________ audiometers.
Q3) A warble tone is used in sound-field testing with loudspeakers to minimize the chance of
A)A hearing loss.
B)Constructive and destructive interference problems.
C)Bone conduction hearing.
D)A difference in hearing thresholds between the right ear and the left ear.
Q4) Which of the following is an advantage of insert earphones versus supra-aural earphones?
A)Attenuation of background ambient sound
B)Increased comfort
C)Better infection control
D)All of the above
Q5) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.
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Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
Q2) Two response modes used in measuring SRT in young children are _______________ and _______________.
Q3) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.
A)True
B)False
Q4) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.
Q5) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.
Q6) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA?
Q8) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
Q9) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.
9
Q10) What is meant by the term "rollover"?
Q11) What is a spondee word?
Q12) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
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Page 10
Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interaural attenuation for bone-conduction testing is ______.
Q2) What criteria are used to determine if AC masking is required?
Q3) An increase or shift in hearing threshold in the test ear when a modest amount of masking is presented to the non-test ear is known as:
A)The Bing effect
B)Under-masking
C)Central masking
D)The occlusion effect
Q4) Covering an ear during bone-conduction testing produces the __________.
Q5) Define the masking dilemma.
Q6) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q7) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
Q8) The goal in masking is to:
A)Verify accurate hearing test results
B)Ensure that the nontest ear is not contributing to the patient's response
C)Use an effective level of masking in the nontest ear
D)All of the above
Q9) Explain the difference between minimum and maximum masking. Page 11
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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Only the stapedius muscle is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
B)Only the facial nerve is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
C)Only the ossicles are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
D)Many structures in the middle ear and the central auditory pathway are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
Q2) A very high ear canal volume estimated during acoustic immittance measurement usually indicates a ____________________.
Q3) Acoustic immittance recorded at a single air pressure is called _____.
Q4) The sound used in acoustic immittance measurement is known as the _________ tone.
Q5) The abbreviation ART stands for __________.
Q6) Two acoustic immittance tests are ______________ and ______________
Q7) Name the different types of tympanograms commonly measured,with examples for when each may be found.
Q8) The acoustic reflex involves contraction of the ________________muscle.
Q9) List some applications of OAEs in clinical audiology.
Page 13
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Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ABR can be used to estimate auditory thresholds at different frequencies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Early diagnostic speech audiometry procedures were first described in publications during what decade?
A)1950s
B)1960s
C)1970s
D)1980s
Q3) What are the two major features of ABR waves that are analyzed?
Q4) Multi-talker babble is synonymous with cafeteria noise.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Word recognition measurement in quiet is an example of a diagnostic speech audiometry test.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Define what is meant by the phrase "distorted speech tests." Page 14
Q6) ________________ and his colleagues are credited with discovering Auditory Brain Stem Responses.
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Page 15
Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is nystagmus? What vestibular technique is based on nystagmus recordings?
Q3) Risk factors for infant hearing loss include each of the following EXCEPT
A)NICU stay of more than five days.
B)In utero infections.
C)Syndromes associated with hearing loss.
D)Term birth 40-week gestational age.
Q4) The two objective techniques recommended for universal newborn hearing screening are ____ and _____.
Q5) Why is an accurate diagnosis of hearing loss important in clinical audiology?
Q6) In recent years,____ combined with _____ have become accepted alternatives to pure tone screening for preschool and young school-age children.
Q7) Hearing loss associated with aging is termed ___________.
Q9) The abbreviation VNG stands for ________________ ________________ . Page 16
Q8) ______________ tests are performed with irrigation or flushing of the external ear canal with warm and cool water or air.
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Page 17
Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Q1) A disease characterized by fixation of the ossicular chain is ________________.
Q2) Identify three specific causes for a perforation of the tympanic membrane.
Q3) What are the characteristics of Meniere's disease?
Q4) Certain chemicals called _____________________ can protect the ear against the damaging effects of free radicals in noise-induced hearing loss.
Q5) Which of the following is NOT an example of a craniofacial abnormality?
A)Preauricular pit
B)Aural atresia
C)Microtia
D)Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Q6) List a few risk factors that contribute to hearing loss in aging presbycusis).
Q7) Provide two examples of craniofacial abnormalities.
Q8) Disarticulation of the ossicular chain is usually caused by ________.
Q9) Describe the effects on excessive noise exposure on the inner ear.
Q10) Explain why audiologists should have knowledge about ear diseases and disorders.
Q11) Two general categories of genetically determined hearing loss are autosomal __________________ and autosomal ____________________ .
Q12) Constriction or narrowing of the external ear canal is called Page 18
Q13) The term for an infection is the external ear canal is _________________.
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Page 19
Chapter
Central Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Q1) Why is neuroplasticity an important concept in audiology?
Q2) Define an auditory processing disorder APD).
Q3) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?
Q4) What is a major distinction between acoustic tumors and neurofibromatosis II?
Q5) Why is early identification and accurate diagnosis important for management of auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder?
Q6) Which of the following is NOT a possible site of dysfunction in auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder:
A)Middle ear
B)Inner hair cells
C)Synapse between inner hair cells and auditory nerve
D)Auditory nerve fibers
Q7) List three disorders that often coexist with auditory processing disorders in adults.
Q8) Change in the brain brought about by experience is known as brain
A)True Page 20
Q9) The term benign means a tumor will not pose any health concerns to a patient.All abnormalities affecting the central nervous system and causing auditory problems are tumors.
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Page 21
Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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Q1) Which of the following are criteria for cochlear implantation in adult patients?
A)Bilateral severe-to-profound sensory hearing loss
B)Post-lingual hearing impairment in the ear to be implanted
C)Minimal benefit from appropriate amplification
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following are examples of HATs or ALDs?
A)Pocket talker
B)iPod
C)Wireless TV listening device
D)a and c
Q3) Digital signal processing in a cochlear implant takes place within the _______.
Q4) Battery sizes are _____________________ coded.
Q5) What are the internal components of a cochlear implant?
A)A microphone,transmitter,and speech processor
B)A receiver,stimulator,and electrode array
C)A receiver and amplifier
D)An amplifier and electrode array
Q7) Briefly explain the phrase prescriptive hearing aid fitting. Page 22
Q6) The type of hearing aid technology that permits maximum flexibility in hearing aid fitting is ____________.
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Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Q1) The _______________ approach is a family-centered variation of the auditory-oral strategy that maximizes normal daily parent-child interaction to promote development of effective communication,rather than reliance on professionals to teach speech and language skills.
Q2) Patients usually remember over 80% of what they hear following an explanation of hearing test results.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ___________________ counseling is explaining the results of hearing assessment and what should be done next.
Q4) Explain in some detail why audiological habilitation is challenging for infants and young children with hearing loss.
Q5) The strategy of using visual cues from the face and lips to better understand speech is known as _____________.
Q6) Professional counseling is appropriate when a patient is clinically depressed because of his or her hearing loss or related disorder,like tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Q1) Hyperacusis is defined as:
A)Super good hearing
B)Abnormal intolerance to everyday sounds
C)A high-frequency hearing loss
D)A false or exaggerated hearing loss
Q2) Hearing aids play no role in the management of tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tinnitus and hyperacusis are_________________,not diseases.
Q4) Briefly summarize two findings or indicators on hearing assessment that raise the suspicion of false or exaggerated hearing loss.
Q5) Briefly define the term tinnitus.
Q6) Tinnitus is always heard as a ringing sound.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Risk factors for false or exaggerated hearing loss include:
A)The potential for financial compensation or gain
B)Sudden apparent hearing loss with no clear diagnosis
C)A history of physical,sexual,or emotional abuse
D)All of the above are risk factors
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Q1) An audiologist who is responsible for meeting the hearing needs of children in a school system is called ______________.
Q2) Two important goals of cochlear implant programming are estimation of _______ and the __________.
Q3) Name a vestibular disorder in which the audiologist is directly involved in rehabilitation.
Q4) Audiologists play no role in the management of persons with balance disorders. A)True
B)False
Q5) Audiologists can monitor auditory and facial nerve in the operating room during tumor removal surgery.
A)True B)False
Q6) An audiology or speech pathology report is a legal document. A)True B)False
Q7) Children with cochlear implants can never function in a regular classroom. A)True B)False
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