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Hearing Healthcare Final Exam - 457 Verified Questions

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Hearing Healthcare Final Exam

Course Introduction

Hearing Healthcare is an interdisciplinary course that explores the science, technology, and practice of preventing, diagnosing, and managing hearing loss. The course covers key topics such as auditory anatomy and physiology, common causes and types of hearing impairment, and the impact of hearing loss on communication and quality of life. Students will examine the principles of audiological assessment, rehabilitation techniques, and the use of hearing aids and cochlear implants. Public health strategies, patient counseling, and emerging innovations in hearing care are also discussed, with an emphasis on holistic and community-based approaches to hearing health.

Recommended Textbook

Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall

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16 Chapters

457 Verified Questions

457 Flashcards

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the United States,audiometers started being used in clinical hearing assessment during the 19___s.

Answer: 1920s

Q2) According to the American Academy of Audiology 2011 Compensation and Benefits Report,which setting employs the highest percentage of audiologists?

A)Veterans Administration

B)Otolaryngology practice

C)Private practice

D)University hospital

Answer: B

Q3) Which of the following is a true specialty area in audiology

A)Pediatric audiology

B)Hearing testing

C)Working in a medical clinic

D)PhD audiology

Answer: A

Q4) Who won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his work on the physiology of the ear?

Answer: Georg von Bekesy

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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics

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54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A measure of the discrimination between two sounds is the __________.

Answer: Just noticeable difference JND)

Q2) The three factors that influence the speed of sound are _________,_________,and _________.

Answer: Temperature, humidity, barometric pressure

Q3) The units dB SPL,dB SL,and dB HL can all be interchangeably used.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) The amount of force exerted on a specific area is called _____________.

Answer: Pressure

Q5) Define dB SL.

Answer: The unit dB SL stands for decibel sensation level.It is defined as the level of sound that is above the threshold of audibility or detection.For example,if a persons threshold of detection for a sound is 10 dB SPL, and the same sound is presented now at 65 dB SPL, the sensation level would be 65 -10 = 55 dB SL.

Q6) Sound is produced by the _________of objects.

Answer: Vibration

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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify at least five different centers in the central auditory nervous system.

Answer: Cochlear nucleus, Superior Olivary Complex, Lateral Lemniscus, Inferior Colliculus, Thalamus, Auditory Cortex.

Q2) The Eustachian tube is normally open.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Name at least four anatomical landmarks found in the middle ear space.

Answer: Round window, Oval window, Promontory, Stapedius muscle, Eustachian tube

Q4) The main parts of the outer ear are ______ and ________. Answer: Auricle/Pinna, External ear canal

Q5) The abbreviation "CPA" stands for ___________________.

Answer: Cerebellopontine angle

Q6) Thin strands projecting from the apex the top)of hair cells are called _______________.

Answer: Stereocilia

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Q7) The three ducts or scala within the cochlea are the scala ________,scala _________,and scala _________.

Answer: Vestibuli, Media, and Tympani

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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) A purpose of masking is to prevent _________________ hearing and to obtain _______ information.

Q2) List three ways an adult patient might response to sound.

Q3) The abbreviation PHI refers to ____________________________.

Q4) What is the best setting for hearing testing?

Q5) Hearing testing is not possible for children under the age of 3 years.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Why is calibration of hearing test equipment important?

Q7) Describe the difference between chronological age and developmental age in a child.

Q8) The main reason the patient presents for hearing testing is called __________.

Q9) Which of the following is NOT a typical response mode for a cooperative adult patient?

A)Lifting a finger

B)Raising a hand

C)A head turn response

D)Pushing a response button

Q10) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________.

Q11) Cite four factors that can influence behavioral hearing test results.

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Page 7

Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe how the traditional PTA is calculated.

Q2) What are the pros and cons of using loudspeakers for hearing testing?

Q3) If there's an air conduction hearing loss in one ear,bone conduction testing usually begins on the

A)Right ear.

B)Left ear.

C)Better-hearing ear.

D)Ear with hearing loss.

Q4) Explain what is meant mixed hearing loss.

Q5) Describe differences in pure tone hearing testing of young children versus older children and adults.

Q6) What symbols are typically used for plotting air conduction pure tone hearing thresholds?

A)X for both ears

B)X for the left ear and O for the right ear

C)O for the right ear and X for the left ear

D)None of the above

Q7) What are the advantages of forehead and mastoid approaches for bone conduction testing?

Q8) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.

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Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.

Q2) Word recognition is more accurate with a fifty-word list than with a twenty-five-word list.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Two response modes used in measuring SRT in young children are _______________ and _______________.

Q4) What is a spondee word?

Q5) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.

Q6) What is the purpose of the VU meter on an audiometer?

Q7) The count-the-dots audiogram provides a handy way to estimate a patient's:

A)Bone conduction hearing thresholds

B)Speech reception threshold

C)Speech awareness threshold

D)Articulation index

Q8) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.

Q9) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.

A)True

B)False Page 9

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Page 10

Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation

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Sample Questions

Q1) What criteria are used to determine if AC masking is required?

Q2) In Hood's plateau method,what is the definition of a masked threshold?

A)The level at which the signal is still audible even though the masker level is increased by several steps.

B)The level at which the signal remains inaudible even though the masker level is increased by several steps.

C)The masker level at which the signal first becomes inaudible.

D)The masker level at which the signal first becomes audible.

Q3) An increase or shift in hearing threshold in the test ear when a modest amount of masking is presented to the non-test ear is known as:

A)The Bing effect

B)Under-masking

C)Central masking

D)The occlusion effect

Q4) The reduction in intensity when sound is transmitted from other ear to the other through or around the head is called ___________.

Q5) How is the Weber test performed?

Q6) Define the masking dilemma.

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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures

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Sample Questions

Q1) Acoustic immittance tests can be performed with the ear canal open.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following statements is true?

A)Only the stapedius muscle is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.

B)Only the facial nerve is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.

C)Only the ossicles are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.

D)Many structures in the middle ear and the central auditory pathway are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.

Q3) The most common test stimulus in DPOAEs measurement is ____________.

Q4) A perforated tympanic membrane would result in a _____ type tympanogram.

Q5) A very high ear canal volume estimated during acoustic immittance measurement usually indicates a ____________________.

Q6) Name the different types of tympanograms commonly measured,with examples for when each may be found.

Q7) Describe where and how otoacoustic emissions are generated.

Q8) The abbreviation ART stands for __________.

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Page 14

Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Risk factors for infant hearing loss include each of the following EXCEPT

A)NICU stay of more than five days.

B)In utero infections.

C)Syndromes associated with hearing loss.

D)Term birth 40-week gestational age.

Q2) In recent years,____ combined with _____ have become accepted alternatives to pure tone screening for preschool and young school-age children.

Q3) The radiological technique that is best suited for detection of tumors involving the auditory system is ________.

Q4) The process of narrowing down possible causes of a hearing loss or any medical problem is known as ___________________.

Q5) Traditional site-of-lesion tests include each of the following EXCEPT

A)ABLB

B)SISI

C)Békésy audiometry

D)ENoG

Q6) VEMP testing involves measurement of changes in the tension of the _________ muscle.

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Q7) Best practice is ___________-based practice.

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Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hearing that occurs suddenly without a known etiology is called ________.

Q2) Explain briefly how Eustachian tube dysfunction can lead to hearing loss.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a craniofacial abnormality?

A)Preauricular pit

B)Aural atresia

C)Microtia

D)Perforation of the tympanic membrane

Q4) Two general categories of genetically determined hearing loss are autosomal __________________ and autosomal ____________________ .

Q5) Gentamyin is an example of an _________________________ antibiotic.

Q6) A disease characterized by fixation of the ossicular chain is ________________.

Q7) Which of the following is a feature of otosclerosis?

A)Carhart's notch

B)Schwartz sign

C)Paracusis willisii

D)All of the above

Q8) Medical referral is never indicated in patients with idiopathic sudden sensorineural hearing loss.

A)True

B)False

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Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) What factors help to determine the diagnosis and location of tumors in the central nervous system?

Q2) Alzheimer's disease is associated with hearing loss and central auditory dysfunction.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The 1990s was known as the _______________of the ____________________.

Q4) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and

Q5) Which of the following are tumors that can be found in the central nervous system?

A)Astrocytoma

B)Glioma

C)Meningioma

D)All of the above True or False

Q6) Define an auditory processing disorder APD).

Page 17

Q7) Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder is usually identified by normal ___________and the absence of an __________.

Q8) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?

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Page 18

Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology

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36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cite several advantages of the open-fit receiver-in-the-canal RIC)type of hearing aid.

Q2) The process of deciding which hearing aid to pick for a given patient is called

Q3) What is hearing aid validation?

Q4) A hearing aid consists of

A)Two microphones and an amplifier

B)A microphone,an amplifier,and a loudspeaker

C)Two loudspeakers and one amplifier

D)Two amplifiers

Q5) What are the internal components of a cochlear implant?

A)A microphone,transmitter,and speech processor

B)A receiver,stimulator,and electrode array

C)A receiver and amplifier

D)An amplifier and electrode array

Q6) Greater amplification for low-intensity inputs than for high-intensity inputs is called

Q8) Identify three advantages of binaural hearing aid fittings over monaural fittings. Page 19

Q7) Hearing aid technology can be described as ______,_______,or ________.

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Page 20

Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are psychosocial problems associated with hearing loss: A)Anxiety

B)Anger

C)Self-consciousness

D)All of the above

Q2) The strategy of using visual cues from the face and lips to better understand speech is known as _____________.

Q3) What is the difference between habilitation and rehabilitation?

Q4) Professional counseling is appropriate when a patient is clinically depressed because of his or her hearing loss or related disorder,like tinnitus.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Decreased memory,attention,and processing speed are all examples of ______________ factors that can affect communication in elderly persons with hearing loss.

Q6) ___________________ counseling is explaining the results of hearing assessment and what should be done next.

Q7) What do the acronyms ASL and SEE stand for?

Q8) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf. Page 21

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Page 22

Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis

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Sample Questions

Q1) All patients with false or exaggerated hearing loss are malingerers.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Hearing aids play no role in the management of tinnitus.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Risk factors for false or exaggerated hearing loss include:

A)The potential for financial compensation or gain

B)Sudden apparent hearing loss with no clear diagnosis

C)A history of physical,sexual,or emotional abuse

D)All of the above are risk factors

Q4) Describe the difference between false hearing loss and exaggerated hearing loss.

Q5) Tinnitus is always heard as a ringing sound.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Briefly define the term tinnitus.

Q7) Patients who are feigning or faking a hearing loss are sometimes referred to as

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Q8) Explain two components of general management of a patient with bothersome tinnitus.

Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two important goals of cochlear implant programming are estimation of _______ and the __________.

Q2) List four essential components of a patient audiology report.

Q3) Why is it important to determine the location of auditory dysfunction in patients with ANSD?

Q4) Longer patient reports are always better.

A)True B)False

Q5) Neurofibromas generally grow on only one side. A)True B)False

Q6) Audiologists can monitor auditory and facial nerve in the operating room during tumor removal surgery.

A)True B)False

Q7) Children with cochlear implants can never function in a regular classroom. A)True B)False

Q8) The acronym BPPV stands for ____________ Page 24

Q9) The overall objective in management of patients with cochlear implants is _____.

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