Hearing Assessment and Diagnostics
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the principles and techniques involved in the assessment and diagnosis of hearing disorders. Students will learn about the anatomy and physiology of the auditory system, clinical evaluation procedures, and the interpretation of test results. Topics include pure tone audiometry, speech audiometry, immittance testing, otoacoustic emissions, and electrophysiological assessments. Emphasis is placed on the selection and application of appropriate diagnostic tools, as well as understanding case history, patient communication, and ethical considerations in clinical practice. This course equips students with the knowledge and skills required for effective identification and management of hearing impairments across diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday,
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true specialty area in audiology
A)Pediatric audiology
B)Hearing testing
C)Working in a medical clinic
D)PhD audiology
Answer: A
Q2) Audiologists who choose to work with manufacturers of hearing aids and related equipment are called ___________ audiologists.
Answer: Industrial
Q3) A professional who has expertise in providing patient services along with research education and experience is termed a __________________.
Answer: Clinical scholar
Q4) _____________ is considered to be the Father of Audiology.
Answer: Raymond Carhart
Q5) Who won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his work on the physiology of the ear?
Answer: Georg von Bekesy
Q6) The medical specialty that treats diseases of the ear is called ______________.
Answer: Otology/Otolaryngology
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three different sounds that are used by audiologist in their daily practice.
Answer: Sine waves/pure tones,speech and noise.
Q2) The tendency of a body to maintain a state of rest or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force is called
A)Vibration
B)Elasticity
C)Inertia
D)Damping
Answer: B
Q3) The minimum amount of force that can be detected by a healthy human ear is _________ dynes/cm<sup>2 </sup> or __________ µPa.
Answer: 0.0002, 20
Q4) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Sound can travel in any medium as long as the medium contains particles.
B)Sound can travel only in air.
C)Sound cannot travel in water.
D)Sound can travel in a vacuum a space where there are no particles.)
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three ducts or scala within the cochlea are the scala ________,scala _________,and scala _________.
Answer: Vestibuli, Media, and Tympani
Q2) Descending pathways in the brain that lead out to the hair cells are called the ____________________ auditory system.
Answer: Efferent auditory system
Q3) The hair cells and other important cochlear structures are found in the organ of __________.
Answer: Corti
Q4) Thin strands projecting from the apex the top)of hair cells are called _______________.
Answer: Stereocilia
Q5) The volume of the adult external ear canal is about ______ cc. Answer: 1 cc/ 1ml
Q6) The Eustachian tube is normally open.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q7) The lightest bone in the human body is the ________. Answer: Stapes Page 5
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hearing testing is not possible for children under the age of 3 years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________.
Q3) Before a hearing assessment is conducted in a hospital facility,a patient or his or her legal guardian must provide written consent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Always writing the patient's name on each clinic document before hearing testing begins is an example of good clinical ___________.
Q5) Describe briefly what is meant by the term "patient rights"
Q6) What is the best setting for hearing testing?
Q7) What are some examples of universal precautions for patient safety?
Q8) What type of transducer offers the most and the least attenuation of ambient noise during hearing testing?
Q9) A patient history should be taken after hearing testing is complete.
A)True
B)False
7
Q10) The main reason the patient presents for hearing testing is called __________.
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Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What three factors do audiologists look for when interpreting audiograms?
Q2) A warble tone is used in sound-field testing with loudspeakers to minimize the chance of
A)A hearing loss.
B)Constructive and destructive interference problems.
C)Bone conduction hearing.
D)A difference in hearing thresholds between the right ear and the left ear.
Q3) What is a clinically important air-bone gap?
Q4) There is a one-to-one correspondence between hearing loss expressed in dB HL and percentage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name the three mechanisms for bone conducting hearing.
Q6) What is a hearing threshold?
Q7) If there's an air conduction hearing loss in one ear,bone conduction testing usually begins on the
A)Right ear.
B)Left ear.
C)Better-hearing ear.
D)Ear with hearing loss.
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Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a spondee word?
Q2) In word recognition testing,the phrase "Say the word " is known as a _________________ phrase.
Q3) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA?
Q4) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
Q5) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.
Q7) Word recognition is more accurate with a fifty-word list than with a twenty-five-word list.
A)True
B)False
Q8) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.
Q9) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
Q10) What is the purpose of the VU meter on an audiometer?
Q11) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related? Page 9
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Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define the masking dilemma.
Q3) In Hood's plateau method,what is the definition of a masked threshold?
A)The level at which the signal is still audible even though the masker level is increased by several steps.
B)The level at which the signal remains inaudible even though the masker level is increased by several steps.
C)The masker level at which the signal first becomes inaudible.
D)The masker level at which the signal first becomes audible.
Q4) Which of the following occurs when stimulus intensity in the test ear exceeds inter-aural attenuation:
A)Cross hearing
B)Cross masking
C)The occlusion effect
D)The Weber effect
Q5) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
Q6) How is the Weber test performed?
Q7) Describe the occlusion effect.
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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe where and how otoacoustic emissions are generated.
Q2) The acoustic reflex involves contraction of the ________________muscle.
Q3) The most common test stimulus in DPOAEs measurement is ____________.
Q4) Name the different types of tympanograms commonly measured,with examples for when each may be found.
Q5) Acoustic immittance tests can be performed with the ear canal open.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List some applications of OAEs in clinical audiology.
Q7) OAEs presence is defined by amplitude that is at least _________ above the noise floor.
Q8) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a
Q9) The sound used in acoustic immittance measurement is known as the _________ tone.
Q10) What are the components of an immittance probe?
A)Three microphones
B)A loudspeaker and two microphones
C)A microphone and two loudspeakers
D)A microphone,loudspeaker,and manometer Page 12
Q11) Acoustic immittance recorded at a single air pressure is called _____.
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Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multi-talker babble is synonymous with cafeteria noise.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ABR is a complete test of hearing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The time difference between stimulus presentation and measurement of each peak in the ABR waveform is called
A)Absolute latency
B)Interpeak latency
C)Amplitude
D)Wave morphology
Q4) Define what is meant by the phrase "distorted speech tests."
Q5) Why the ABR is important in pediatric hearing assessment?
Q6) Describe the PI-PB function.
Q7) ABR responses are elicited using _____ or ______.
Page 14
Q8) The acronym ABR refers to _______________________________________.
Q9) Describe the SSI-ICM test and why it is useful.
Q10) ________________ and his colleagues are credited with discovering Auditory Brain Stem Responses.
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Page 15
Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Traditional site-of-lesion tests include each of the following EXCEPT A)ABLB
B)SISI
C)Békésy audiometry
D)ENoG
Q2) Risk factors for infant hearing loss include each of the following EXCEPT A)NICU stay of more than five days.
B)In utero infections.
C)Syndromes associated with hearing loss.
D)Term birth 40-week gestational age.
Q3) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.
A)True
B)False
Q4) OSHA guidelines require that employers monitor an employee's hearing at least ______ a year.
Q5) ______________ tests are performed with irrigation or flushing of the external ear canal with warm and cool water or air.
Q7) Best practice is ___________-based practice. Page 16
Q6) Hearing loss associated with aging is termed ___________.
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Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain chemicals called _____________________ can protect the ear against the damaging effects of free radicals in noise-induced hearing loss.
Q2) Explain how tympanostomy tubes ventilation tubes)work.
Q3) How are cholesteatomas managed?
Q4) Why is it important for audiologists to refer patients with ear disease to physicians like otolaryngologists?
Q5) Fluid in the middle ear space is called otitis media with ________________.
Q6) Two general categories of genetically determined hearing loss are autosomal __________________ and autosomal ____________________ .
Q7) What are the characteristics of Meniere's disease?
Q8) The two most common causes for sensorineural hearing loss in adult patients are______________________ and ____________________ .
Q9) A common factor in the development of middle ear disorders in children is _________________ tube dysfunction.
Q10) A vaccine now exists for certain forms of meningitis. A)True B)False
Page 18
Q11) Explain briefly how Eustachian tube dysfunction can lead to hearing loss.
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Central Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three disorders that often coexist with auditory processing disorders in adults.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a possible site of dysfunction in auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder:
A)Middle ear
B)Inner hair cells
C)Synapse between inner hair cells and auditory nerve
D)Auditory nerve fibers
Q3) Change in the brain brought about by experience is known as brain
Q4) What factors help to determine the diagnosis and location of tumors in the central nervous system?
Q5) Why is neuroplasticity an important concept in audiology?
Q6) The term APD stands for _________________________.
Q7) What are some major features of ANSD?
Q8) Define an auditory processing disorder APD).
Q10) The 1990s was known as the _______________of the Page 19
Q9) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and ______.
Q11) One risk factor for auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder in infants is graduation from the ____________________.
Q12) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?
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Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are criteria for cochlear implantation in adult patients?
A)Bilateral severe-to-profound sensory hearing loss
B)Post-lingual hearing impairment in the ear to be implanted
C)Minimal benefit from appropriate amplification
D)All of the above
Q2) What are some of the advantages of an open-fit hearing aid design?
Q3) Hearing aid verification and validation are one and the same.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is hearing aid validation?
Q5) What types of patients are generally considered candidates for a Baha device?
Q6) A hearing aid consists of
A)Two microphones and an amplifier
B)A microphone,an amplifier,and a loudspeaker
C)Two loudspeakers and one amplifier
D)Two amplifiers
Q7) Digital signal processing in a cochlear implant takes place within the _______.
Q8) Describe the function of the microphone,amplifier,and receiver in a hearing aid.
Q9) Let's say you are fitting a hearing aid on a young child.How would you instruct the Page 21
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Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ counseling may help older patients who may be dealing with psychosocial problems such as isolation and depression due to their hearing loss.
Q2) Habilitation of hearing loss in children needs to be family centered.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of a computer-based program for auditory training in adults is
Q4) What do the acronyms ASL and SEE stand for?
Q5) What is the difference between habilitation and rehabilitation?
Q6) Patients and family members who have psychosocial problems associated with hearing loss sometimes need to be referred to professional counselors for management. A)True B)False
Q7) Hearing aids are the only management option for adults with hearing loss. A)True B)False
Page 23
Q8) Decreased memory,attention,and processing speed are all examples of ______________ factors that can affect communication in elderly persons with hearing loss.
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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Q1) Patients who are feigning or faking a hearing loss are sometimes referred to as
Q2) Hyperacusis is defined as:
A)Super good hearing
B)Abnormal intolerance to everyday sounds
C)A high-frequency hearing loss
D)A false or exaggerated hearing loss
Q3) Briefly define the term tinnitus.
Q4) A fear of specific sounds is called ________,while an extreme dislike of specific sounds is called ______.
Q5) Which of the following terms is sometimes used for false or exaggerated hearing loss?
A)Hyperacusis
B)Anacusis
C)Pseudohypacusis
D)Phonophobia
Q6) Explain the role played by otoacoustic emissions in the evaluation and management of patients with hyperacusis.
Q7) Tinnitus and hyperacusis are_________________,not diseases.
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Q8) Describe the difference between false hearing loss and exaggerated hearing loss.
Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Q1) Knowledge required of audiologists working in schools includes:
A)Awareness of Federal legislation
B)Familiarity with special learning needs of children with hearing loss
C)Understanding of technology,such as the use of FM systems
D)All of the above
Q2) The recommended ANSI standards for classrooms require a signal-to-noise ratio of at least ______,with a background noise level not exceeding ______.
Q3) Two important goals of cochlear implant programming are estimation of _______ and the __________.
Q4) Why is it important to determine the location of auditory dysfunction in patients with ANSD?
Q5) Audiologists play no role in the management of persons with balance disorders. A)True
B)False
Q6) List four essential components of a patient audiology report.
Q7) The acronym BPPV stands for ____________
Q8) Describe what the "1-3-6 Principle" is and why it is important.
Q9) The overall objective in management of patients with cochlear implants is _____. Page 26
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