Healthcare Project Management
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Healthcare Project Management introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices necessary for successfully managing projects within healthcare settings. The course covers key topics such as project initiation, planning, execution, monitoring, and closure, with an emphasis on the unique challenges and regulatory environment of healthcare organizations. Through the use of case studies, real-world scenarios, and current best practices, students learn to coordinate interdisciplinary teams, manage budgets and timelines, adhere to quality and compliance standards, and utilize project management tools and methodologies such as Agile and Lean. By the end of the course, students will be equipped with practical skills to lead and manage healthcare projects that improve patient outcomes, organizational efficiency, and compliance with industry regulations.
Recommended Textbook
Contemporary Project Management 4th Edition by Timothy Kloppenborg
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15 Chapters
682 Verified Questions
682 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Project Management
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the ten knowledge areas defined in the Project Management Body of Knowledge includes the activities of purchasing or acquiring products,services or results from outside the project team?
A) Scope management
B) Quality management
C) Communications management
D) Procurement management
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following actions will likely cause a project to fail?
A) dedicating valuable team member time to identify risk events
B) spending project funds to procure needed tools and spare parts
C) unclear or unrealistic stakeholder expectations
D) conducting a project audit to evaluate performance
Answer: C
Q3) Operations consist of the ongoing work needed to ensure that an organization continues to function effectively.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Project Selection and Prioritization
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clear and compelling vision will have all the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A) often requires extra effort to achieve.
B) often requires several years to achieve.
C) provides detailed roadmap for managing a project
D) helps all stakeholders understand the direction of the organization
Answer: C
Q2) Strategic analysis is often called SWOT - Start With Objectives Template (SWOT).
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Sometimes situations dictate that a project must be chosen regardless of any other considerations such as strategic fit,profitability or probability of success.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Chartering Projects
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A background statement is a mandatory element of the project charter that sets the stage for creation of the scope overview and business case.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The project charter should help the project team and the project sponsor to develop a common understanding of what the project is all about.All of the following items are elements of that common understanding EXCEPT:
A) understanding how the project aligns with the goals of the parent organization
B) understanding the detailed project schedule
C) understanding project success measures
D) understanding what is included and excluded in the project scope
Answer: B
Q3) A charter can be used to quickly screen out obviously poor projects.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Organizational Capability: Structure, Culture and Roles
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some organizational culture characteristics make project success more likely.These characteristics include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) collaboration to meet organizational goals
B) lack of appreciation for project management
C) engagement of stakeholders
D) teamwork across cultures
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage associated with the matrix organization?
A) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
B) Unity of command - one "boss" for each employee.
C) Shorter response times and quicker decisions.
D) Hard to monitor and control.
Q3) A matrix organization is any organization in which the project manager or project team leader actually shares responsibility for the project with a number of individual functional managers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the role of the steering team with respect to projects.
Q5) How would the role of a project manager be different in an agile project life cycle,versus a plan-driven or traditional project life cycle?
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Chapter 5: Leading and Managing Project Teams
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are among the methods project managers can use to develop individual and team capabilities EXCEPT:
A) teach personal responsibility
B) demand situational leadership
C) utilize coercive powers
D) demonstrate personal leadership
Q2) Which two project team success factors have shown the strongest correlation to successful project performance as perceived by senior managers?
A) Stimulating work environment and opportunity for team and individual recognition
B) Clearly defined project and team objectives, and use of task and relationship behaviors to resolve conflicts
C) Clear project plans created by the team, and effective communications
D) Mutual trust, respect, and credibility and cross-functional cooperation
Q3) Information is power.Withholding or distorting project information is a viable and potentially useful approach to increase power for the project manager.
A)True
B)False
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7
Chapter 6: Stakeholder Analysis and Communication Planning
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46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Plus-Delta method of evaluating project meetings,the "delta" column is used for team members to offer their opinion about one aspect of the meeting that
A) Was good and should be repeated
B) Was poor and could be avoided (changed) in future meetings
C) Was an issue raised in the meeting should be followed up before the next meeting D) Involves the behavior of one of the team members
Q2) Project relationship building activities include encouraging open communications and using shared learning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Project managers should purposefully plan and carry out relationship-building activities with stakeholders that lead to respect and trust. A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the approach you would use to build relationships with key external stakeholders.
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Chapter 7: Scope Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)is normally developed by listing deliverablesmajor deliverables first and then progressively smaller ones until the team feels that every deliverable has been identified.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organizing the second level of the Work Breakdown Structure by major design components facilitates rolling wave planning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how scope is defined on agile projects.
Q4) The project scope refers to the features and functions of a project outcome such as a product,and,in some cases,service or result.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A WBS component is a work element that is part of the WBS at any level. A)True
B)False
Q6) What are some of the benefits of creating a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
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Chapter 8: Scheduling Projects
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of immediately following schedule activities is:
A) reserve
B) free float
C) contingency
D) lead
Q2) The length of time to perform an activity is often dependent upon who will do that work.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primary advantage of PERT is that it removes uncertainty from the estimates of activity durations,thereby increasing confidence in the reliability of a project schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first process in developing a project schedule is to identify all the resources available to work on the project.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Resourcing Projects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the RACI chart presented in Figure 8-1.Who is accountable for the data requirements?
A) the project manager
B) the project engineer
C) the contract officer
D) the logistics manager
Q2) Consider the project crashing information presented in Figure 8-4.What is the incremental cost to achieve a one-day reduction in the duration of this project in the most cost efficient manner?
A) $ 30
B) $ 35
C) $ 40
D) $ 60
Q3) Consider the RACI chart presented in Figure 8-1 (RACI stands for Responsible,Accountable,Consult,Inform).Who is responsible for development of the specification?
A) the project manager
B) the project engineer
C) the contract officer
D) the data manager
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Chapter 10: Budgeting Projects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complex projects such as research and development for new products often employ rolling wave planning to estimate costs.Which of the following best describes "rolling wave" planning?
A) Project managers render a definitive estimate for the first stage and an order of magnitude estimate for the remainder of the project.
B) Project managers render an order of magnitude estimate for the first stage and a definitive estimate for the remainder of the project.
C) Project managers render definitive estimates for all stages of the project during initiation.
D) Project managers render an order of magnitude estimate for all stages of the project.
Q2) Fixed costs remain the same regardless of the size or volume of work,while variable costs vary directly with volume of use.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Typically,expedited costs are preferred over regular costs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Project Risk Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify five common project risk strategies employed to address threats that your project may face.Give an example of each.
Q2) A risk management plan should define who has responsibility for causing each risk and hold the responsible party directly accountable for developing an appropriate solution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Consider the excerpt of the Internet Project risk register presented in Figure 10-1.Which of the following risk events should receive the highest priority for the development of risk responses?
A) A - project requires new technology and support structure
B) B - web infrastructure lacks sufficient transaction capacity
C) C - IS resources are spread too thin
D) D - The intranet site suffers a security breach
Q4) Risk response strategies such as accept risk and research risk apply to both threats and opportunities.
A)True
B)False
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13
Chapter 12: Project Quality Planning and Project Kick-Off
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45 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) developed a quality management standard that now encompasses seven quality management areas including leadership,operations,and improvement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If necessary,the quality policy on a specific project may violate either the quality policies of the parent organization or of a major customer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After completing detailed planning for a project,it is often helpful for the project manager and team to apply a sanity test to the project plan.Which of the following accurately describes the application of a sanity test?
A) It is based largely on the expectations of supervisors and sponsors.
B) It is primarily focused on the team members.
C) It should include questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are reasonable and achievable.
D) It focuses on whether the project charter should be changed
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Chapter 13: Project Supply Chain Management
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following entities are typically included in the supply chain EXCEPT:
A) suppliers
B) public relations
C) consumers
D) project team
Q2) A contract is a unilateral,binding document that obligates the seller to furnish supplies or services to the buyer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Time & Materials refers to a manufacturing context where just-in-time (JIT)tools are used to ensure that every step in the supply process adds value,while costs are kept to a minimum.
A)True B)False
Q4) Fixed price contracts provide low risk for the seller,since the buyer will pay a fixed price,regardless of how much the project actually costs the seller.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Determining Project Progress and Results
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44 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reporting performance to sponsors and management,it is often helpful to organize the information in terms of three time horizons: past,current and future.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some organizations rely upon a formal group authorized and responsible for reviewing,evaluating,approving,delaying,or rejecting any changes to any aspect of the project plan by following a formal communication method of documenting the decision process.This group is typically known as a:
A) stakeholder review board.
B) change control board.
C) project evaluation committee.
D) steering committee
Q3) Your most recent project performance report indicates that your cumulative Schedule Performance Index (SPI)is .85 and your cumulative Cost Performance Index (CPI)is .90.What conclusions can you draw from these performance indices? What actions might you take to address project performance based on these results?
Q4) Define integrated change control and briefly explain how it is accomplished in an organization.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Finishing the Project and Realizing the Benefits
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) More organizations effectively collect lessons learned than effectively disseminate and use them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Validate Scope process occurs with interim deliverables throughout the project and with final deliverables near the end.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A project team attempting to close a project should review which of the following to ensure the customers are satisfied with the project work?
A) the project charter
B) the customer feedback and scope verification
C) the communication plan
D) the project organization chart
Q4) Closure of a project generally entails all of the following activities EXCEPT:
A) ensuring all work has been accomplished
B) ensuring all resources have been reassigned
C) ensuring all documentation is complete
D) updating the project management plan
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