Healthcare Informatics
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Healthcare Informatics is an interdisciplinary field that combines information technology, computer science, and healthcare to improve the quality, efficiency, and safety of patient care. This course examines the design, implementation, and management of health information systems, electronic health records (EHRs), and data analytics in clinical settings. Students will explore topics such as data privacy and security, interoperability, clinical decision support systems, telemedicine, and the role of informatics in public health. Through case studies and practical applications, learners gain insights into how informatics transforms healthcare delivery, supports evidence-based practice, and addresses current challenges in the evolving healthcare landscape.
Recommended Textbook
ICD 10 CM PCS Coding Theory and Practice 2018 Edition 1st Edition by Karla R. Lovaasen
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26 Chapters
1616 Verified Questions
1616 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Rationale for and History of Coding
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) AAPC
A)Has more than 155,000 members and was started in 1981
B)Translating diagnoses and procedures into special alphanumeric characters for the purpose of statistically capturing data
C)Grouping like items together for easy storage and retrieval
D)To maintain credentials, coders must earn these
E)Published by the College of American Pathologists, the most up-to-date system of nomenclature
F)The current coding classification system in use in the United States
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following would NOT be studied through the use of ICD-10-CM?
A)Patterns of disease
B)Causes of pregnancy
C)Disease epidemics
D)Causes of mortality
Answer: B
Q3) HIPAA stands for __________ of 1996.
Answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Q4) ICD-10-CM/PCS can be updated _________ times each year.
Answer: two
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Health Record As the Foundation of Coding
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient history and physical need to be performed and documented within ___________ hours of admission for an inpatient encounter.
Answer: 24
Q2) How long after admission is it required by TJC that the admission history and physical be completed?
Answer: Within 24 hours
Q3) Every facility should have the same policies and procedures with regard to the query process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Which report should be written or dictated immediately following a procedure?
Answer: Operative report
Q5) What is the definition of subjective complaint as it applies to a patient coming to a health care facility?
Answer: The problem stated in the patient's own words
Q6) When coding a record, where is one of the best places to begin?
Answer: The discharge summary if available.
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Chapter 3: ICD-10-Cm Format and Conventions
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The code "L01 impetigo" represents a ____.
A)chapter
B)section
C)category
D)subcategory
Answer: C
Q2) The bolded subterm in the diagnostic statement bacterial pneumonia is a(n) ____ modifier.
A)essential
B)nonessential Answer: A
Q3) The bolded subterm in the diagnostic statement purulent pneumonia is a(n) ____ modifier.
A)essential
B)nonessential Answer: B
Q4) "__________" is used in the Alphabetic Index to provide guidance when two conditions are related or have a causal relationship. Answer: Due to or with
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Chapter 4: Basic Steps of Coding
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the subterm in "rheumatoid arthritis"?
Q2) Have no effect on the main term
A)Tabular List
B)See also
C)Subterms
D)Discharge summary
E)Coding Clinic
F)ER
G)Differential diagnosis
H)Chief complaint
I)The first basic step in coding the principal diagnosis
J)Nonessential modifiers
Q3) What is the main term in "rheumatoid arthritis"?
Q4) The coder should rely solely on the discharge summary to capture all of the diagnoses and procedures that were treated and performed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the main term in "esophageal reflux"?
Q6) After a code has been selected from the Alphabetic Index to Diseases, what is the next step?
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Chapter 5: General Coding Guidelines for Diagnosis
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is admitted for a complication due to a surgical procedure, the reason for the surgical procedure is the principal diagnosis.
A)True B)False
Q2) If the principal diagnosis was abdominal pain due to acute appendicitis, the abdominal pain would be coded as a secondary diagnosis.
A)True B)False
Q3) What is/are the diagnosis code(s) for memory deficit due to previous cerebral infarction?
Q4) The selection of codes A00.0 through T88.9, Z00-Z99.8 is NOT used frequently to describe the reason for the admission/encounter.
A)True B)False
Q5) If a diagnosis is documented as possible at the time of discharge from an inpatient stay, code the condition as if it exists.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Introduction to Icd-10-PCS
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to choose a valid code directly from the tables.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ICD-10-PCS is required only for inpatient billing by hospitals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Body systems designated as "lower" contain body parts below the diaphragm.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Uses an endoscopic instrument to examine and perform closed procedures within a joint
A)Thoracoscopic approach
B)Arthroscopic approach
C)Laparoscopic approach
D)Endoscopic approach
Q5) Laparoscopic lysis of adhesions, small bowel
Q6) Which character identifies the approach in an ICD-10-PCS code?
Q7) ____________________ exams and procedures are performed with an instrument that examines any cavity of the body with the use of a rigid or a flexible scope.
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Chapter 7: General Coding Guidelines for Other Medical-
and Surgical-Related Procedures and Ancillary Procedures
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Detoxification services are a procedure that can be coded in the mental health section.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Detoxification services are a procedure that can be coded in the substance abuse treatment section.
A)True
B)False
Q3) MRI procedures are located in the nuclear medicine section.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The approach for chiropractic manipulation is always internal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the extracorporeal assistance and performance section, the definition for performance is completely taking over a physiological function by extracorporeal means.
A)True B)False
Q6) CT bilateral lungs using low osmolar contrast Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Coding Medical and Surgical Procedures
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modifying the natural anatomic structure of a body part without affecting the function of the body part is called ____.
Q2) Open endarterectomy of right internal carotid artery
Q3) When more than one procedure is performed, the procedure that was performed first is the principal procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Left kidney transplant, cadaver donor
Q5) When a patient shows up to have a procedure performed but the procedure is canceled for whatever reason, the principal diagnosis would be
Q6) Taking or letting out fluids and/or gases from a body part is called ____.
Q7) When a diagnostic procedure is performed for the principal diagnosis and a procedure for definitive treatment is performed for a secondary diagnosis, the procedure for definitive treatment is the principal procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Laparoscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy
Q9) Episiotomy with vaginal delivery
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Chapter 9: Symptoms, Signs, and Abnormal
Clinical
and
Laboratory Findings Not Elsewhere Classified, and Z Codes
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are Z codes located in the Tabular List of the coding book?
Q2) A screening code may be listed first if the reason for the visit is specifically a screening exam.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List one reason why a screening code would not be necessary.
Q4) Oral phase dysphagia: __________
Q5) Camp physical: __________
Q6) Done in the absence of any signs or symptoms
A)A primary circumstance for using Z codes
B)Symptom
C)Screening exam
D)Is a main term in the Alphabetic Index
E)Sign
Q7) Patient is admitted to hospice care for treatment of terminal ESRD.
A)N18.6, Z51.5
B)N18.6, Z51.89
C)Z51.5, N18.5
D)Z51.5, N18.6, Z99.2
Q8) Encounter for blood alcohol test: __________ Page 12
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Chapter 10: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. Upon exam, the patient is found to be severely dehydrated. She is given IV fluids to correct the hydration. In the assessment, the physician suspects gastroenteritis. After stool cultures, it is determined that the patient has Clostridium difficile colitis.
A)K52.9, E86.0, R19.7
B)A04.7, E86.0
C)A04.7, R19.7
D)K52.9, R19.7
Q2) Anthrax is most common in the agricultural regions of which of these countries?
A)Central America
B)Africa
C)Caribbean
D)All of the above
Q3) Assign the code for asymptomatic HIV.
Q4) ____ is a bacterial infection usually found in wild or domestic animals.
A)Anthrax
B)Tuberculosis
C)Meningitis
D)Clostridium difficile
Q5) Category B20 is assigned for ____________________.
Page 14
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Chapter 11: Neoplasms
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tumor cells that closely resemble mature, specialized cells
A)Well differentiated
B)Sarcomas
C)Fibromas
D)Metastasis
E)Leukemias
F)Melanomas
G)Carcinomas
H)Undifferentiated
I)Myeloma
J)Grading
K)Primary site
L)Staging
M)Adenocarcinoma
Q2) When cancers are staged, stage ____________________ means that the cancer has spread into surrounding tissues but not beyond the location of origin.
Q3) A patient is admitted with headache due to malignant glioblastoma multiforme. A workup is performed to evaluate the progression of the frontal lobe tumor.
Q4) Pancytopenia due to myelodysplastic syndrome: __________
Page 15
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Chapter 12: Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming
Organs and Certain Disorders Involving the Immune
Mechanism
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When looking up anemic conditions in the code book, you should look up ____.
A)anemia first and then the various subterms
B)the type of anemia first and then "anemia" as a subterm
C)the symptoms that have presented
D)none of the above
Q2) What are two reasons for iron deficiency?
Q3) Postoperative anemia: __________
Q4) A patient's own blood sometimes donated before an elective surgery in case (s)he needs a transfusion
A)Apheresis
B)Blood
C)Autologous transfusion
D)5000 to 10,000/mm3
E)Hemoglobin (HGB)
F)Purpura
G)Idiopathic
H)Hematocrit (Hct)
I)Bone marrow biopsy
J)WBCs
K)Secondary thrombocytopenia
16
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Page 17
Chapter 13: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes mellitus with hypoglycemic coma: __________
Q2) When blood sugar becomes abnormally low, it is called ____.
A)hyperglycemia
B)hypoglycemia
C)hyperpituitarism
D)hypopituitarism
Q3) A patient was admitted to the hospital with DKA. Labs showed glycosuria, ketonuria, and acidosis. Patient was admitted and was started on a sliding scale of insulin for type 1 DM. Patient's past history includes retinopathy. Patient's at-home medications include insulin.Discharge Diagnosis: Diabetic ketoacidosis
A)E10.11, E10.319
B)E10.319, E10.10
C)E10.10, E11.319
D)E10.10, E10.319
Q4) Myxedema is a skin or tissue disorder usually resulting from severe, prolonged hypothyroidism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) DKA in patient with type 1 diabetes: __________
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Chapter 14: Mental, Behavioral, and Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name one occurrence during birth that can cause intellectual disability.
Q2) Severe intellectual disability is classified when the person has an IQ of ____.
A)50 to 70
B)35 to 49
C)20 to 34
D)less than 20
Q3) Adjustment insomnia: __________
Q4) Homicidal ideation: __________
Q5) Name some symptoms/signs that characterize ADD or ADHD.
Q6) In ICD-10-CM, mild alcohol use disorder codes to alcohol abuse.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Which of the following can cause intellectual disability in a child during the mother's pregnancy?
A)Malnutrition
B)Mother's use of alcohol or drugs
C)Environmental toxins such as lead or mercury
D)All of the above
Q8) Panic agoraphobia: __________ Page 19
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Page 20
Chapter 15: Diseases of the Nervous System, Diseases of
the Eye and Adnexa, and Diseases of the Ear and Mastoid Process
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with an acute change in mental status. Patient has a history of CHF, DM type 2, and prostate cancer. Patient had a prostatectomy 2 years PTA. Upon completion of the lab work, the physician documents metabolic encephalopathy due to urinary tract infection. Patient was treated with IV antibiotics.
A)G93.41, I50.9, E11.9, Z85.46
B)N39.0, I50.9, E11.9, Z85.46
C)G93.41, I50.9, E11.9, Z85.46.
D)N39.0, G93.41, I50.9, E11.9, Z85.46.
Q2) Can epilepsy be inherited?
Q3) Which of the following is/are sent from the somatic nervous system to the central nervous system?
A)Taste
B)Hearing
C)Smell
D)All of the above
Q4) Legal blindness in the United States is defined as severe or profound impairment in both eyes.
Page 21
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Diseases of the Circulatory System
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postprocedural status unspecified cardiac device
A)Z82.3
B)Z94.1
C)Z95.811
D)Z95.9
E)Z76.82
Q2) Inflamed stasis ulcers of the left leg (calf) with fat layer exposed in a patient with varicose veins: __________
Q3) Patient has atherosclerosis of the left femoral artery with intermittent claudication and rest pain. An open fem-pop bypass (left) using synthetic substitute is performed on this patient with a chronic total occlusion.
A)I70.92, I70.222, 041L0JJ
B)I70.222, I70.91, 041L0JM
C)I70.222, I70.92, 041L0JL
D)I70.221, 41L0KL
Q4) MI is the abbreviation for ____________________.
Q5) Acute myocardial infarction, commonly referred to as a(n) ____________________, occurs when there is complete blockage of blood flow in a coronary artery.
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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Influenza vaccinations, nasal swab, amantadine, zanamivir, and treatment of symptoms
A)Chronic bronchitis
B)Respiratory failure
C)Influenza
D)Sinusitis
E)Emphysema
F)Asthma
Q2) Patient was admitted with acute bronchitis. Patient has a history of nicotine dependence but quit 5 years ago. X-ray was negative for any pneumonia.Final Diagnoses: COPD with acute bronchitis
Acute bronchitis
A)J44.1, Z87.891
B)J44.0, J20.9, Z87.891
C)J44.0, J20.8, Z72.0
D)J44.1, J28.0
Q3) The correct abbreviation for bronchoalveolar lavage is ____________________.
Q4) Escherichia coli pneumonia: __________
Q5) Eosinophilic asthma: __________
Q6) Acute bronchiolitis due to RSV: __________
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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Digestive System
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What drug could be given to treat a gastric ulcer?
A)Ciprofloxacin
B)Metronidazole
C)Pepcid
D)Compazine
Q2) A patient presents with melena, weakness, and fatigue. A colonoscopy with biopsy of the rectum and colon is performed and reveals multiple diverticula and internal hemorrhoids. No source of bleeding is identified.Discharge Diagnosis: GI bleed; chronic blood loss anemia
A)D50.0, K92.2, K57.91, K64.8, 0DBE8ZX
B)K92.1, D50.0, K57.30, K64.8, 0DBE8ZX, 0DBP8ZX
C)K92.2, D62, K57.30, K64.9, 0DBE8ZX, 0DBP8ZX
D)K57.91, K92.1, D50.0, K64.9, 0DBE8ZX, 0DBP8ZX
Q3) A patient is admitted for chemotherapy (via central venous catheter) for pancreatic cancer and develops ulcerative mucositis of the mouth due to gemcitabine.
A)K12.31, Z51.11, C25.9, 3E04305
B)Z51.11, C25.9, T45.1X5A, 3E03305
C)C25.9, Z51.11, K12.31, 3E04305
D)Z51.11, C25.9, K12.31, T45.1X5A, 3E04305
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Page 24
Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous System
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57 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rhinophyma: __________
Q2) Patient stepped on a piece of glass and injured his foot 2 days ago. There is a laceration of the left foot. No foreign body was present. He is now being admitted to the hospital for treatment of cellulitis in the left leg.
A)L03.115, W25xxxA
B)S91.312S
C)S91.312A, W25xxxA
D)L03.116, S91.312A, W25.xxxA
Q3) A patient has a chronic ulcer of the right great toe with skin breakdown only and is admitted for excisional debridement of the skin.
A)L97.519, 0HDKXZZ
B)L89.899, 0HDKXZZ
C)L97.519, 0HBMXZZ
D)L97.511, 0HBMXZZ
Q4) Which layer of the skin is composed of fibrous connective tissue?
A)Outer layer
B)Middle layer
C)Inner layer
D)None of the above
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lower limb amputation status-below left knee
A)Z87.39
B)Z82.61
C)Z82.69
D)Z96.641
E)Z89.512
F)Z13.828
G)Z13.820
Q2) ____ is one of the most common diseases affecting the muscles; it is characterized by widespread muscle pain associated with chronic fatigue.
A)Postlaminectomy syndrome
B)Bursitis
C)Fibromyalgia
D)Rhabdomyolysis
Q3) Kaschin-Beck disease, right ankle: __________
Q4) What does the abbreviation SLE stand for?
Q5) What does the abbreviation AKA stand for?
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Q6) Spinal decompression is a surgical procedure that frees the ____________________ in the spinal canal.
Chapter 21: Diseases of the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient has ESRD on dialysis with a M,W,F schedule but has been noncompliant with hemodialysis sessions. Patient admitted for fluid overload, which was treated with multiple sessions of dialysis. Patient takes medication for hyperparathyroidism of renal origin.
A)E87.70, N18.6, N25.81, Z91.15, 5A1D60Z
B)N18.6, E87.70, Z99.2, N25.81, 5A1D60Z
C)N18.6, Z91.15, E21.1, 5A1D00Z
D)Z99.2, N18.6, N21.1, 5A1D00Z
Q2) Medication(s) that may be used to treat urinary symptoms such as incontinence is/are ____.
A)Detrol
B)Flomax
C)corticosteroids
D)antibiotics
Q3) The kidneys and ureters are the upper urinary tract, and the bladder and urethra are the lower urinary tract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Leukoplakia of vulva: __________
Q5) UTI stands for ____________________.
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Chapter 22: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of milk production is ______________________.
Q2) Mother with mastitis due to nursing. Delivered 8 days ago: __________
Q3) The patient is admitted to the hospital in preterm labor. She is 27 weeks' pregnant. Terbutaline is administered, and the patient remains on bed rest. In the third week of bed rest, her water breaks, and she is taken to the delivery room. She vaginally delivers a baby girl.
A)O60.12x1, Z38.00, Z3A.27, 10E0XZZ.
B)O60.13x0, Z37.0, Z3A.27, 10E0XZZ
C)O60.12x1, Z38.00, Z3A.27, 10E0XZZ
D)O60.130, Z37.0, Z3A.27, 10E0XZZ
Q4) What drug could be given to inhibit labor?
A)Cervidil
B)Terbutaline
C)Pitocin
D)Demerol
Q5) What does postpartum mean?
Q6) Cephalopelvic disproportion as cause of obstruction delivered single-term (40 weeks' gestation) liveborn via classical C-section this admit: __________
Q7) Gestational edema, second trimester antepartum (25 weeks'gestation):
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Chapter 23: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal
Period and Congenital Malformations, Deformations, and
Chromosomal Abnormalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) A code from category A41, septicemia, should not be used on a(n) ____ record.
A)newborn
B)child
C)teenager
D)adult
Q2) In most cases, pregnancies with chromosomal anomalies end with a natural miscarriage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cesarean delivery at term of interlocking twins, twin A: __________
Q4) Vaginal delivery of infant with a birth weight of 4600 g at 42 weeks'gestation; physician documents postterm infant who is large for dates: __________
Q5) Congenital conditions are always present, well defined, and diagnosed at birth.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What does AGA stand for?
Page 29
Q7) Cesarean delivery at term of baby; hypothermia (not environmental) noted on admit to nursery: __________
Q8) Cesarean delivery at term of baby with TTN: __________
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Page 30
Chapter 24: Injuries and Certain Other Consequences of
External Cases and External Causes of Morbidity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ____________________ is a break in a bone that occurs because of underlying disorders that weaken the bone, including malignancy, benign bone tumors, metabolic disorders, infection, and osteoporosis.
Q2) The patient is a 12-year-old female who was involved in a motor vehicle collision (MVC). She was a restrained passenger in a back seat of a car that was rear-ended by a car at a stoplight downtown. Initial exam in the ER indicated that she was hemodynamically stable but was complaining of left arm and right leg pain. X-rays revealed a nondisplaced tibial diaphyseal fracture and a nondisplaced proximal humerus fracture. Orthopedic consult was obtained, and a sling was applied to the arm, and a cast was applied to the leg. The patient was discharged and will receive physical therapy as an outpatient.Final Diagnoses: Nondisplaced humerus fracture, left Fracture of tibial diaphysis, right
A)S42.295A, S82.201A, V43.62xA, Y92.414, 2W3QX2Z, 2W3BXYZ
B)S42.302A, S82.201A, V49.50xA, Y92.414, 2W3LX2Z, 2W38X1Z
C)S42.294A, S82.201A, V43.62xA, Y92.410, 2W3LXZ, 2W38XYZ
D)S82.202A, S42.294A, V43.62xA, Y92.410, 2W3QX1Z, 2W3BX2Z
Q3) An open fracture occurs when the bone is broken but the skin remains intact. A)True B)False
Page 31
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Chapter 25: Burns, Adverse Effects, and Poisonings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hives due to penicillin taken for strep throat. Patient took the medication as prescribed: __________
Q2) The patient reported to the ER with nausea, vomiting, and weakness. The patient is taking OxyContin for chronic pain due to unresectable pancreatic cancer. The patient was in extreme pain and decided to double the OxyContin dosage. When this did not relieve the pain, the patient decided to drink a couple of shots of whiskey. The patient got very weak and called 911. The patient was volume depleted and was treated with IVs; his pain medications were adjusted.Final Diagnosis: Accidental overdose of OxyContin Pain due to pancreatic cancer
A)T40.2x2A, T51.0x2A, C25.8, G89.4, R53.1, R11.0, E86.1
B)T40.2x1A, T51.0x1A, C25.9, G89.3, R53.1, R11.2, E86.9
C)T40.2x4A, T41.0x4A, C25.0, G89.3, R53.1, R11.10, E89.9
D)T40.2x5A, T41.0x5A, C25.8, G89.4, R53.0, R11.11, E86.0
Q3) A patient combined prescription Percodan with beer and became stuporous and drowsy.
A)T40.2x1A, T51.0x1A, R40.1, R40.0
B)T40.2x1D, T51.0x1D, R40.1, R40.0
C)T40.2x1S, T51.0x1S, R40.1, R40.0
D)T40.2x1A, T51.0x1A
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Chapter 26: Complications of Surgical and Medical Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42599
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient had a kidney transplant 2 years ago but developed ESRD again because of transplant failure. The patient has been on dialysis for the past year. The patient is now complaining of SOB and edema and is admitted for fluid overload and hemodialysis. Dialysis is performed multiple times during this stay.
A)E87.70, T86.12, N18.6, Z99.2, Y83.0, 5A1D60Z
B)N18.6, Z99.2, Z94.0, E87.70, 3E1M39Z
C)N18.6, T86.12, Z99.2, Y83.0, 5A1D60Z
D)E87.70, Z99.2, N18.6, Z94.0, 5A1D60Z
Q2) During a posterior lumbar fusion at L4 to L5 for spinal stenosis, the surgeon accidentally nicks the dura. The fusion was performed via an open posterior approach with fusion of the posterior column using morselized allograft. Patient has a history of asthma for which he takes meds prn.
A)G97.41, M4.07, Y83.8, Y92.234, 0SG00K1
B)M48.06, G97.41, J45.909, Y83.2, Y92.234, 0SG00K1
C)G97.41, J45.998, Y83.8, Y92.234, 0SG0071
D)M48.06, G97.41, J45.998, Y83.2, 0SG0071
Q3) Iatrogenic is a term used to signify that a condition is a result of treatment.
A)True
B)False
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