Healthcare Documentation Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Healthcare Documentation is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices of accurately recording and managing patient health information. Students will gain knowledge of medical terminology, anatomy, pharmacology, and the healthcare workflow, developing skills necessary for producing, editing, and maintaining electronic health records (EHRs) and other medical documents. Emphasis is placed on legal and ethical considerations, data privacy, compliance with regulatory standards, and effective communication among healthcare professionals. Upon completion, students are prepared to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of critical healthcare documentation in a variety of medical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by
Deborah B. Proctor
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first step to reaching a solution to a problem or conflict is to identify the
Answer: problem and central issue
The cause of the conflict must be identified before solutions can be researched.
Q2) Once you have decided on a solution to the problem, it is essential to __________ the outcomes of your solution and decide whether it solved the problem or whether another approach should be tried.
Answer: evaluate
Evaluating the outcome of the attempted solution helps determine whether it is the correct one or whether an alternate solution should be tried.
Q3) _____________ can evaluate conflicting information and make a decision to act based on their knowledge and willingness to be open minded about all possibilities.
Answer: Critical thinkers
Critical thinking involves considering all aspects of a situation when making decisions or before taking action.
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) An occupational therapist works to help patients regain functions and improve their quality of life.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q2) Which two scientists developed a vaccine that brought polio under control?
A) Helen Taussig and Alfred Blalock
B) Albert Sabin and Jonas Salk
C) Alexander Fleming and Howard Florey
D) Walter Reed and Sir Frederick Grant Banting
Answer: B
Q3) DO refers to which of the following physicians?
A) Doctor of medicine
B) Osteopathic physicians
C) Doctor of chiropractic
D) Doctor of optometry
Answer: B
Q4) The credentials DDS and DMD are used by ___________.
Answer: dentists
Dentists use the credentials DDS or DMD.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant who states, "That's not in my job description," is not practicing
Answer: teamwork
The professional medical assistant must be willing to perform duties outside the formal job description if he or she is needed in another part of the office.
Q2) The __________ examination is offered as a certification for medical assistants by the AMT.
Answer: RMA
The AMT offers the RMA examination.
Q3) One of the medical assistant's most important characteristics is a strong ______________.
Answer: work ethic
Work ethics are sets of values based on the moral virtues of hard work and diligence. They involve a whole range of activities, from individual acts to the philosophy of the entire office.
Q4) The name of the AAMA's bimonthly journal is __________.
Answer: CMA Today
The AAMA publishes CMA Today.
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which aspect of our communication is most likely to convey our true feelings and beliefs?
A) Nonverbal communication
B) Verbal communication
C) The way we verbalize a phrase or word
D) Spoken words only
Q2) Which of the following strategies could be used to help school-aged children gain a sense of control during the health visit?
A) Give them the opportunity to make certain decisions about treatment
B) Respect their privacy
C) Keep them informed in a language they can understand
D) Encourage them to ask questions
E) All of the above
Q3) Obtaining ___________ from patients helps medical assistants understand and better interpret patients' medical problems, so that they can be accurately conveyed to the physician.
Q4) It is always helpful to have a(n) ____________ staff member to communicate with patients who speak another language.
Q5) When a message is ___________, it is converted into intelligible form.
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a type of civil law?
A) Misdemeanor
B) Administrative
C) Tort
D) Contract
Q2) Local governments create and enact
A) precedents.
B) acts.
C) ordinances.
D) All of the above
Q3) The legal representative of a minor may be a guardian ad litem.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Criminal law governs violations of the law that are punishable as offenses against A) individuals.
B) the state or government.
C) corporations.
D) groups.
Q5) Nonconsensual touching may be considered __________.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obligation that people have or perceive themselves to have is called a(n)
A) duty.
B) reparation.
C) right.
D) opinion.
Q2) Which of the following is the most common form of organ donation?
A) Kidney
B) Retina
C) Bone marrow
D) Blood
Q3) The provision of care to medical colleagues or their families and staff is called
Q4) Which of the following best describes the example of organ donation and distribution of scarce or costly medications?
A) Ethical distress
B) Ethical dilemma
C) Dilemma of justice
D) Locus of authority
Q5) ____________ waiver of insurance co-payments may violate the policies of some insurers.
8
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gigabyte is approximately 5 million bytes of data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following words is spelled incorrectly?
A) Wheal
B) Prosthesis
C) Rhyhmical
D) Vacuum
Q3) __________ was enacted partly to ensure that medical records would be kept private and confidential.
Q4) Business envelopes are usually number _____.
Q5) Which of the following screens responds to the electrical characteristics of a finger and is found in smart phones and other electronic devices?
A) Touch pad
B) Resistive touch screen
C) Capacitive touch screen
D) Surface acoustic wave
Q6) Generally, a business letter is __________ spaced.
Q7) DVD stands for ________________________.
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
Q2) Some managed care organizations require a physician __________ before a patient may see a specialist.
Q3) Complaints about fees must always be directed to the office manager.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients should always be given an exact time that the physician will return a call.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A minimum of __________ items of information is needed to take a phone message correctly.
Q6) The medical assistant should be extremely careful when using a speakerphone because
A) the service is expensive.
B) it is distracting.
C) the call can be traced.
D) confidentiality can be violated.
Q7) Having a keen sense of what to do or say to maintain good relations with others is called __________.
10
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Q1) Periodically, ____________ calls will necessitate rescheduling of appointments.
Q2) For legal purposes, what needs to occur when a patient fails to keep an appointment?
A) Call to determine reason for failed appointment
B) Reschedule as soon as possible
C) Place documentation in the patient health record and appointment schedule
D) Classify the patient as a "deadbeat"
Q3) A space of time between events is called a(n) ____________.
Q4) A(n) ____________ note helps track the patient's condition in the medical record.
Q5) When a requested appointment time is not available, the medical assistant should
A) explain why the time is not available and offer a substitute date and time.
B) insist that the patient accept the next available appointment.
C) immediately put the patient on a waiting list for that time slot.
D) suggest the patient see an alternate physician in the practice.
Q6) Patients who are too talkative should be dismissed from the physician's care before they take up too much of his or her time.
A)True
B)False
11
Q7) Two-way communication is also called ______________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common service used by heathcare facilities for envelopes and packages weighing up to 13 ounces?
A) Priority Mail
B) Priority Mail Express
C) First-Class Mail
D) Standard Post service
Q2) For practices that do not use e-prescribing, where should extra prescription pads be stored?
A) In the exam room
B) In the provider's pocket
C) In a locked cabinet
D) Any of the above
Q3) The reorder point for an item is calculated based on
A) the number used per day.
B) the number of days it takes to order and receive the product.
C) the number in current inventory.
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) Mail sent within the Unites States and its territories is called ___________ mail.
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) A filing system in which an intermediary source of reference, such as a card file, must be consulted to locate specific files, is called a(n) __________ system.
Q2) Medical facilities should keep records on minors for how long?
A) Indefinitely
B) Until the minor is deceased
C) For 10 years
D) Until the minor reaches the age of majority, plus 3 years
Q3) In a paper record, which of the following is never an acceptable method of correction to a handwritten entry?
A) Draw a line through the error.
B) Erase or use a correction fluid.
C) Insert the correction above the error.
D) Write initials or signature below the correction and date.
E) All of the above are acceptable.
Q4) A filing system in which materials can be located without consulting an intermediary source of reference is said to be a(n) __________ system.
Q5) A filing system that uses a combination of letters and numbers is said to be
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a Code First Note is present and the patient has an underlying condition, the underlying condition should be sequenced first. Wherever such a combination exists, a Use Additional Code Note is found with the etiology code, and a Code First Note is found with the manifestation code.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Medical assistants have the trust of the physician and practice that employs them. A medical assistant must
A) adhere to ethical standards concerning assigning and reporting codes clearly.
B) be responsible and knowledgeable to ensure that no fraud takes place in coding.
C) be responsible and knowledgeable to ensure that no fraud takes place in claim submission.
D) All of the above
Q3) The medical assistant should never code a patient as having __________ unless it is clearly documented as confirmed in the medical record.
Q4) The __________ table describes malignancies.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Established patient, home patient, problem-focused interval history and examination, straightforward medical decision making
A) 99347
B) 99348
C) 99349
D) 99350
Q2) New patient office visit, comprehensive history and examination, high-complexity decision making
A) 99202
B) 99203
C) 99204
D) 99205
Q3) Which of the following HCPCS codes range from A4000 to A8999?
A) Ambulance transport
B) Medical supplies
C) Surgical supplies
D) Durable medical equipment
E) Both B and C
Q4) A(n) __________ patient is one who is having his or her first encounter with the physician.
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Entities that make payment on an obligation or debt but are not parties of the contract that created the debt are called
A) riders.
B) service benefit plans.
C) third-party payers.
D) capitation.
Q2) A type of insurance that protects workers from loss of wages after an industrial accident that happened on the job is called
A) an individual policy.
B) workers' compensation.
C) unemployment insurance.
D) disability insurance.
Q3) Health insurance designed for military dependents and retired military personnel is called
A) CHAMPVA.
B) TRICARE.
C) Medicare.
D) Medicaid.
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The charges for procedures are listed in column __________ of block 24.
Q2) The insurance claim should always be proofread.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients sign an __________ of benefits form so that the physician will receive payment for services directly.
Q4) When completing the CMS-1500 Form, which section contains information about the patient and the insured?
A) Section 1
B) Section 2
C) Section 3
D) Section 4
Q5) The federal tax identification number is found in block __________.
Q6) The Federal Tax ID number (Box 25) for the provider filing the claim can be presented as
A) Social Security Number (SSN).
B) Employer Identification Number (EIN).
C) National Provider Identification (NPI).
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following needs to occur when a provider agrees to settle for a reduced fee?
A) Negotiations without prejudice
B) Discount offer in writing
C) Definite time limit for making payment is stated
D) Two copies of agreement with witness signatures
E) All of the above
Q2) A system of recording, classifying, and summarizing financial transactions is called
A) bookkeeping.
B) accounting.
C) accruing.
D) depreciation.
Q3) The "cash basis" system of accounting used by most physicians means that A) credit is used as little as possible.
B) charges are recorded as income at the time they are received.
C) a simple bookkeeping system is used.
D) expenses are recorded at the time they are incurred.
Q4) The entire property of a person is said to be his or her __________.
Q5) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________.
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is required for a check to be negotiable?
A) Be written and signed by the drawer
B) Contain a promise or order to pay a sum of money
C) Be payable on demand
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) If the medical assistant is allowed to sign checks on the physician's business account, he or she must sign a document at the bank called a
A) confidentiality statement.
B) bond.
C) signature card.
D) noncompete statement.
Q3) Which of the following is required for a check endorsement?
A) Ink pen or rubber stamp
B) On the back of the check
C) Across the left or perforated end
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) The deposits in cash today are $657 and the checks total $8,343. What is the total deposit?
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) New employees should be given orientation in which of the following areas?
A) Office policies
B) Nature of the practice
C) Physical environment
D) All of the above
Q2) Continuous staff development and training are crucial parts of managing a successful medical practice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person who is currently employed should never be approached to accept a new position.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All staff members should be encouraged to participate in professional organizations and complete continuing education units.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Before advertising for a new employee, the office manager should be sure to review the job _____________, so that a fair interview and evaluation can be conducted.
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step in developing a plan?
A) Research
B) Planning the concept
C) Assessment
D) Evaluation
Q2) A monthly e-newsletter is a great marketing idea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Keeping the office open later one night per week is a marketing strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Match the Quality & Safety PCMH Domain with the appropriate descriptors. (Select all that apply.)
A) Partnering with patients and families
B) Sharing quality data and improvement activities
C) Efficient care transitions
D) Oriented towards the whole person
E) Team-based approach
F) Clinical decision-support tools
G) Across all elements of the health care system
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a medical assistant, it is important that you understand the inflammatory response. Describe the step-by-step process that occurs with an inflammatory reaction.
Q2) Cell-mediated immunity
A) causes destruction of pathogens at the site of infection. B) results in the production of antibodies. C) is stimulated by the presence of an antigen. D) creates immunity to disease.
Q3) A(n) __________ is an insect or tick that transmits the causative organisms of a disease.
Q4) Most pathogenic microorganisms prefer a neutral pH for optimum growth. A)True B)False
Q5) Macrophage action occurs with A) a systemic reaction to an antigen. B) trapping of foreign substances in mucous membranes. C) protection created by the body's resident bacteria. D) cell-mediated immunity.
Q6) Rosa is responsible for administering the hepatitis B vaccine to a new employee. Describe the immunization schedule for this vaccine.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helen Conrad, age 54, was recently diagnosed with epilepsy. She is very upset about the news. A therapeutic interaction might be
A) "Look on the bright side; things could be worse."
B) "The doctor will prescribe medication, which will probably prevent most seizures."
C) Distract the patient by discussing the weather.
D) Offer the patient advice on how to drive safely.
E) Listen attentively while the patient talks about her fears.
Q2) A patient's lifestyle factors would be included in the family history section of the medical history.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When writing in a paper record and an error is made, which of the following document guidelines is acceptable?
A) Scribble out error.
B) Use whiteout to cover up the error.
C) Erase the error.
D) Draw a line through the error.
Q4) Describe the four sections of the POMR.
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should not automatically release healthcare information to the spouse of the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's model of grief is helpful for families, because everyone experiencing grief goes through the process in the same way.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Summarize Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's stages of grief and explain how the medical assistant can interact therapeutically with patients in the various stages.
Q4) If a patient is using bargaining to avoid dealing with the immediate realities of an illness, the medical assistant may tell the patient that diagnostic tests need not be done until the person feels up to it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is a comprehensive Internet site for accurate healthcare information.
Q6) What factors should be considered in a holistic approach to patient education for Mr. Ignatio?
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which health condition is related to stress?
A) Headaches
B) Hypertension
C) Diarrhea
D) All of the above
Q2) Naturally occurring antioxidants are not commonly associated with which of the following foods?
A) Fruits
B) Vegetables
C) Fish
D) Certain seasonings
Q3) Which of the following come from animal sources and have a mixture of all eight essential amino acids?
A) Complete proteins
B) Incomplete proteins
C) Vegetable proteins
D) All of the above
Q4) Hydrogenation of margarine results in the formation of trans fats.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Q1) Persistent readings of 90/60 mm Hg or lower usually are considered A) hypotension.
B) orthostatic hypotension.
C) stage 1 hypertension.
D) stage 2 hypertension.
Q2) The internal functions of the body are constantly adapting and changing to keep the body in balance. Maintenance of this complex process is called A) diurnal rhythms.
B) homeostasis.
C) bounding back.
D) intermittent relief.
Q3) If a bedridden patient has chills and is shivering, what would you expect the body temperature to be?
A) Increased
B) Decreased
C) The same
D) It would depend on the patient's age.
Q4) A patient with __________ has abnormal rumbling sounds on expiration that indicate airway obstruction with thick secretions or bronchospasms.
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) The medical assistant is responsible for obtaining informed consent for any scheduled procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the medical assistant's responsibility when preparing the patient for a physical examination?
A) Make sure all informed consent forms have been signed.
B) Write prescriptions for patients in need of refills.
C) Check the patient's eye with an ophthalmoscope.
D) Perform a fecal occult blood test.
Q3) Aphonia typically is seen in patients who have overused their voice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the normal color of the tympanic membrane?
A) Pink
B) Slightly yellow
C) Off-white
D) Pearly gray
Q5) The area between cellular structures is called the __________ space.
Q6) The __________ position is used for vaginal examinations.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) An anesthetic is used primarily to produce the sensation of numbness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Federal law requires that all controlled substances be
A) kept with other drugs.
B) stored in a substantially constructed metal box or compartment that is equipped with a double lock.
C) kept separate from other drugs.
D) B and C
Q3) Which of the following classes of medications is administered to cause loss of sensation?
A) Analgesics
B) Tranquilizers
C) Opiates
D) Sedatives
E) Muscle relaxants
Q4) Drug tolerance occurs when the patient finally starts to like to take the medication.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Q1) Determine the following equivalents
1. 0.47 = ____ (percent) = ____ (fraction) = ____ (ratio).
2. 92% = ____ (decimal) = ____ (fraction) = ____ (ratio).
3. 3/8 = ____ (ratio) = ____ (percent) = ____ (decimal).
4. 2:5 = ____ (fraction) = ____ (decimal) = ____ (percent).
Q2) How many ounces equal 150 mL?
A) 50 oz
B) 3.2 oz
C) 32 oz
D) 5 oz
Q3) __________ is one way of expressing a fraction or division problem; it shows the relationship of the numerator to the denominator.
Q4) Federal law requires that all drug labels have a _________ that identifies that particular drug.
A) generic and trade name
B) expiration date
C) lot number
D) National Drug Code number
Q5) The top number in a fraction is the __________.
Q6) The comparison of two ratios is called a(n) __________.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Q1) Dorothy is asked to administer Humalog to a 13-year-old patient. Which type of syringe must she use?
A) TB
B) 3 cc
C) unit
D) 1 cc
Q2) The site of a Z-track injection should be massaged carefully after the injection to prevent skin irritation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dorothy is responsible for making sure patients understand their drug therapy before they leave Dr. Thau's office. Discuss at least five factors she should include when delivering patient education.
Q4) The _________ and _________ of the medication ordered determine the size of the syringe-needle unit selected.
A) color; odor
B) color; amount
C) amount; viscosity
D) viscosity; odor
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Q1) Which of the following procedures may be used to relieve dyspnea on a patient with suspected cardiac emergency?
A) Take and record vital signs
B) Position patient in a semisupine position
C) Start oxygen
D) Bring emergency cart in the room
Q2) Before CPR is initiated on an infant, the presence of circulation usually is determined by palpating which pulse?
A) Brachial
B) Carotid
C) Femoral
D) Popliteal
E) Radial
Q3) A patient with a deep, jagged wound that is bleeding profusely is diagnosed with a(n)
A) avulsion.
B) laceration.
C) traumatic injury.
D) hematoma.
Q4) The medical term for nosebleed is __________.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is acceptable when administering the Snellen visual acuity test?
A) Placing the chart permanently on the wall at the eye level of the average adult
B) Instructing the patient to close the eye not being tested
C) Having the patient sit during the test
D) Allowing the patient to squint
Q2) While playing tennis, Ms. Brown is hit in the eye with a ball and experiences pain and swelling. Whom should she call for an appointment?
A) Ophthalmologist
B) Optician
C) Optometrist
D) Any of the above
Q3) Mydriatic eye drops are applied before an eye examination to dilate the pupils.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inflammation of the glands and lash follicles along the margins of the eyelid is called __________.
Q5) A form of strabismus seen in young children is __________.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area is favored in young children for a percutaneous test?
A) Forearm
B) Upper arm
C) Back
D) All of the above
Q2) The part of the integumentary system that contains fat as a stored energy source is the
A) sebaceous glands.
B) epidermis.
C) dermis.
D) subcutaneous layer.
Q3) Cells that are in a primitive form and are diagnostic of a cancer-producing tumor are called __________.
Q4) When interpreting a skin test, the presence of pseudopods may be read as a
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
Q5) Herpes zoster can cause long-term pain after the skin inflammation has resolved; this condition is called ______________.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The appendix is located in the __________ region of the abdomen.
Q2) Any disorder or enlargement of the lymph nodes is called __________.
Q3) Patients who have had bariatric surgery need routine injections of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ulcerative colitis differs from Crohn's disease in what way?
A) It cannot be cured by surgery.
B) The disease typically recurs at the site of a previous ulcer.
C) Scar tissue at the site may cause a bowel obstruction.
D) Ulcers form on the surface of the colon, starting in the rectum and spreading proximally.
Q5) The hepatitis B vaccine is given in four doses 6 months apart.
A)True B)False
Q6) IBS is most frequently diagnosed in young women.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The acronym GERD stands for __________.
Page 34
Q8) The gallbladder is located in the __________ of the abdomen.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) The most successful kidney transplantations are done between
A) mother and child.
B) father and child.
C) siblings.
D) donors with the same blood type.
E) donors with the same antibodies.
Q2) An increase in the size of the prostate gland that frequently occurs in older men is called
A) BPH.
B) prostatitis.
C) prostatic atrophy.
D) DRE.
Q3) ________________________ causes genital warts.
Q4) Patients prescribed Pyridium for renal discomfort may appear to have hematuria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____________ promotes the production of RBCs.
Q6) Explain why most UTIs occur in women. How are they typically treated? Summarize significant patient education factors for female patients diagnosed with a UTI.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stage ______ is the stage of labor in which the placenta is delivered.
A) I
B) II
C) III
Q2) Ovarian cancer can be diagnosed with a Pap smear.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) can have serious side effects. Explain the mnemonic ACHES, which can be used to help patients remember problems that should be immediately reported to the physician. What might these symptoms indicate?
Q4) HPV is associated with A) cancer.
B) bleeding. C) infertility.
D) ulceration.
Q5) The hormone oxytocin stimulates milk ejection from the breast.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ___________ is the opening of the cervix during labor and is measured in centimeters.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how to manage the following patient scenarios.
a. A crying 8-month-old being seen today for possible otitis media
b. A 4-year-old who requires vision screening
c. An 8-year-old who needs a booster shot
d. A 16-year-old female patient who is scheduled for her first Gardasil injection
Q2) The common cold is caused by
A) bacteria.
B) fungi.
C) a virus.
Q3) Studies have shown that a child who is obese between the ages of
has an 80% chance of becoming an obese adult.
A) 2 and 4
B) 4 and 8
C) 8 and 12
D) 10 and 13
Q4) The classic definition of __________ is a condition in which an infant between 2 weeks and 4 months of age has crying episodes that occur at least three times a week, last longer than 3 hours a day, and persist for at least 3 weeks.
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a partner is helping you transfer a patient from a wheelchair, the wheels of the chair need not be locked.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hot packs can be placed over jewelry without concern about possible burns.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of muscle is responsible for moving fluids through the urinary system?
A) Skeletal
B) Smooth
C) Striated
D) Voluntary
Q4) The _____________ function of the red bone marrow results in the production of blood cells.
Q5) What is the difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
A) OA is an autoimmune disorder.
B) OA goes through stages of remission and relapse.
C) RA is an autoimmune reaction to synovial fluid.
D) OA has an acute onset.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cerebellum is responsible for A) controlling the autonomic nervous system.
B) balance, equilibrium, posture, and muscle coordination.
C) coordinating reflexes.
D) verbal functions (e.g., reading, writing, speaking).
Q2) The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart rate, constricts the bronchioles, and increases digestive system function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Xanax is commonly prescribed for patients with mild to moderate depression. A)True
B)False
Q4) A phobia is an intense fear of something that is truly dangerous. A)True
B)False
Q5) A subarachnoid hemorrhage results in rapid changes in neurologic status, along with severe projectile vomiting, motor disturbances, visual disturbances, and seizures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus?
A) Plasma glucose level of 210 mg/dL
B) FPG of 126 mg/dL
C) OGTT result of 180 mg/dL
D) Glycosylated hemoglobin >6%
Q2) A patient with diabetes type 2 may have signs and symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. List five questions you might ask to document the patient's condition accurately.
Q3) A surgical procedure could prove fatal for a patient with Cushing's syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Severe hypoglycemia in a patient with diabetes who takes insulin may result in which of the following?
A) Insulin shock
B) Diabetic coma
Q5) Which of the following is often called the "master gland"?
A) Hypothalamus
B) Pituitary gland
C) Pineal gland
D) Thyroid
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early symptoms of which of the following diseases are easily masked by symptoms regularly displayed by habitual smokers?
A) Lung cancer
B) Carcinoma of the larynx
C) Emphysema
D) All of the above
Q2) Patients with emphysema do best on a high-calorie diet, to compensate for the extra effort needed just to breathe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A serious inflammation of the lungs can be caused by A) mycobacteria.
B) influenza virus.
C) fungi.
D) A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) The left lung is divided into three lobes and the right lung into two.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A surgical procedure of the chest cavity is called a(n) __________.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A DVT typically is diagnosed by
A) x-ray films that pick up calcification.
B) Doppler studies that measure the rate of blood flow through a vessel.
C) PT blood tests.
D) troponin levels.
Q2) Most patients who require a pacemaker have bradycardia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Statin medications are used to treat atherosclerosis and prevent arterial disease. A)True B)False
Q4) The most serious complication of a DVT in the saphenous vein is a PE. A)True B)False
Q5) A patient who develops right-sided CHF because of COPD is diagnosed with
Q6) You are responsible for reinforcing patient education on risk factors for the development of heart disease. Summarize at least five factors that can contribute to heart disease. Which of these can be attributed to lifestyle choices?
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells in the ________________ are produced more slowly with age, making the skin prone to tear and blister.
A) epidermis
B) dermis
C) subcutaneous layer
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following gastrointestinal diseases is related to the lack of dietary fiber and constipation often seen in aging individuals?
A) Peptic ulcers
B) Diverticulosis
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Q3) Prostate enlargement is a normal part of aging.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients with diabetes are at higher risk for many disorders. List four common complications of diabetes.
Q5) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
Q6) Memantine (Namenda) is frequently used to treat __________.
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The image created on the ECG paper is made by the A) heated stylus.
B) ink cartridge.
C) lead wires.
D) felt-tipped pen in the machine.
Q2) Which of the following artifacts appears as a series of uniform small spikes on the ECG paper?
A) Somatic tremor
B) Alternating current interference
C) Interrupted baseline
D) Wandering baseline
Q3) In the case of __________, the patient has general malaise and muscle cramps. The condition may occur if diuretics are used without potassium supplementation.
Q4) PVCs are recorded when the ventricles depolarize before a P wave.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patients with a history of V-fib may be treated with an ICD.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) DEXA scanners are used for which of the following?
A) Evaluate bone density of the hip
B) Diagnose cancerous tumors
C) Evaluate blood flow to the heart
D) Determine the sex of the fetus
E) Diagnose herniated intervertebral disks
Q2) Organize the following tests according to when they should be ordered:
a. Radiographic examinations of the urinary tract
b. Radiographic examinations of the biliary system
c. All x-ray examinations that do not require contrast media
d. Upper GI series (barium swallow)
e. CT studies of the abdomen or pelvis (done before barium studies)
f. Lower GI series (barium enema)
g. CT studies with IV contrast any time after iodine uptake blood studies
h. Fiberoptic studies (e.g., gastroscopy, endoscopy, sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy)
i. Any laboratory studies or nuclear medicine procedures involving iodine uptake
Q3) Buttons and thick seams in clothing may cause an artifact on an x-ray film.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ is also called a barium enema.
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blood culture and sensitivity (C&S) test is most likely to be performed in which division of the clinical laboratory?
A) Urinalysis
B) Chemistry
C) Hematology
D) Microbiology
Q2) The shortest objective lens on the microscope has the lowest power (4*) and is called the scanning lens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A screening test is performed to help diagnose a specific health problem in the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Aerosolization in a centrifuge can be prevented by ensuring that
A) the tubes have an equal amount of fluid.
B) the atmosphere has 5% carbon dioxide.
C) the tubes are tightly capped.
D) rubber cups are in the bottom of the carriers.
Q5) The microscopic analysis of cells is the science of __________.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the most accurate results, urine specimens should be kept refrigerated and processed within 2 hours of collection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Urine suspected of having high levels of which substance should be stored in a dark place before testing?
A) Sugar
B) Red blood cells
C) Bacteria
D) Bilirubin
Q3) Crushing injuries and MIs can result in _____________.
Q4) You open a urine sample for testing and immediately detect a fruity odor. Which test result do you expect to be elevated on chemical analysis?
A) Protein
B) Urobilinogen
C) Ketones
D) Bilirubin
Q5) A red blood cell seen in urine sediment that has scalloped, leaflike edges is described as ____________.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you are drawing blood on an elderly patient with a history of collapsed veins, you should try to collect the blood sample with a syringe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If the patient complains of tingling or numbness during a phlebotomy procedure, the medical assistant should continue the procedure to get it completed as soon as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common phlebotomy site(s) in adults is (are) the
A) radial vein.
B) brachial artery.
C) veins in the antecubital space.
D) veins in the popliteal area.
Q4) A hematoma can be caused by
A) excessive probing to locate a vein.
B) failure to insert the needle far enough into the vein.
C) penetration of the needle through a vein.
D) All of the above
Q5) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a capillary tube is not plugged, it must be filled with a special clay before centrifugation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If the Vacutainer is not completely filled with blood, a false ESR reading may result.
A)True
B)False
Q3) TSH levels are assessed to determine the function of what organ(s)?
A) Pituitary gland
B) Pancreas
C) Liver
D) Kidneys
Q4) A(n) ____________ is an immature neutrophil.
Q5) The smallest of the formed elements in the peripheral blood is a cell fragment that assists with clotting; it is known as a(n) ___________________.
Q6) B cells produce specific antibodies against a particular antigen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A viral cell invades a host cell and uses its ______________, including carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, to reproduce.
Q2) Negative rapid strep test results must be confirmed with a throat culture, because the rapid strep test is highly specific but not highly sensitive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term __________ refers to conditions outside a living body, such as bacteria grown on a culture plate.
Q4) Bacterial endospores allow a microorganism to survive harsh environments. A)True B)False
Q5) Which of the following is true about gonorrhea?
A) Gram-negative cocci found in pairs
B) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
C) Gram-positive cocci in chains
D) Gram-negative spirilla
Q6) Bacteria are classified as ___________ microbes, which are single-cell microbes that lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ________ is a metal probe that is inserted into or passed through a catheter, needle, or tube to clear the equipment of secretions or to help pass it into a body orifice.
Q2) Describe the general purpose of sutures. What characteristics should they have?
Q3) Suture scissors have a beak or hook tip that can slide under the suture for removal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Local anesthesia can last as long as 5 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Bandage scissors have a pointy, sharp probe tip that is inserted under the bandage to aid removal.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The physician may spray a topical anesthetic (e.g., Exactacain) on a surgical site before injecting a local anesthetic.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A trocar is placed within a(n) __________ to drain fluid.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) When autoclaving, place a gauze sponge around the tips of sharp instruments to prevent them from piercing the wrapping material.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) __________ is a sterile covering that is placed directly over a wound.
Q3) Define sanitization, disinfection, and sterilization. Include in your answer how each is performed.
Q4) The recommended temperature for sterilization in an autoclave is
A) 121° to 123° C.
B) 98.6°.
C) 100.4° F.
D) 37.6° C.
Q5) A(n) __________ occurs when a nonpenetrating wound damages blood vessels.
Q6) The invasion of body tissue by pathogens, which proliferate and damage tissues is
A) Contamination
B) Infection
C) Spores
D) Germicides
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Follow-up calls should be limited to no more than __________ per week.
Q2) Performance evaluations should be perfect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the best action to take if an employer asks you whether you are married?
A) Advise him or her that it is illegal to ask this question.
B) Ignore the question by pretending you did not hear it.
C) Politely ask the interviewer whether you can respond to questions that relate directly to the job.
D) Answer it truthfully, because you are required to do so.
Q4) Which of the following is the best job search method?
A) Employment agencies
B) Networking
C) Mailing résumés
D) Newspaper ads
Q5) The Internet is one of the most important tools the medical assistant can use to find out about job opportunities and information on healthcare facilities in the area.
A)True
B)False
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