Healthcare Data Management Test Questions
Course Introduction
Healthcare Data Management explores the principles, methods, and technologies used to collect, store, retrieve, and secure health information in various clinical and administrative settings. The course covers the standards and regulatory requirements in healthcare data management, including patient privacy (such as HIPAA), data interoperability, and quality assurance. Students will learn about electronic health records (EHRs), data integration strategies, database design, and data analytics techniques as they apply to healthcare. The course emphasizes both practical and ethical considerations, preparing students to effectively manage and utilize healthcare data to support patient care, operational efficiency, and decision-making in the healthcare sector.
Recommended Textbook
ICD 10 CM PCS Coding Theory and Practice 2016 Edition 1st Edition by Karla
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27 Chapters
1674 Verified Questions
1674 Flashcards
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Page 2
R. Lovaasen
Chapter 1: The Rationale for and History of Coding
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would NOT be studied through the use of ICD-10-CM?
A)Patterns of disease
B)Causes of pregnancy
C)Disease epidemics
D)Causes of mortality
Answer: B
Q2) CCS
A)American Academy of Professional Coders
B)Certified Coding Specialist
C)American Hospital Association
D)National Center for Health Statistics
E)Registered Health Information Technician
Answer: B
Q3) It is acceptable to share personal information about a patient's medical history with anyone who requests this information.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) WHO stands for __________.
Answer: World Health Organization
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Chapter 2: The Health Record As the Foundation of Coding
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subjective
A)Accredits and certifies healthcare organizations
B)The problem in the patient's own words
C)The approach the practitioner is taking to solve the patient's problem
D)The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care
E)Codes reported on health insurance claim forms that should be supported by documentation in the medical record
F)Person qualified by education and legally authorized to practice medicine
G)Requested by the attending physician to gain an expert opinion on the treatment of a particular aspect of the patient's condition that is outside the expertise of the attending physician
H)People who treat patients
I)The physician identifies the history,physical examination,and diagnostic tests
J)Where the subjective and objective combine for conclusion
K)Words of the patient;the reason the patient has presented to a healthcare facility for treatment
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: ICD-10-Cm Format and Conventions
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The letter "X" in ICD-10-CM can be found in the fifth or sixth character position for some codes as a placeholder.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) "____" is used in the Alphabetic Index to provide guidance when two conditions are related or have a causal relationship.
A)With
B)See condition
C)See category
D)And
Answer: A
Q3) What does NEC stand for?
Answer: Not elsewhere classifiable
Q4) In ICD-10-CM,the final character of a code assignment can never be a letter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) What are the two tables found in the Alphabetic Index in ICD-10-CM?
Answer: Neoplasm Table and the Table of Drugs and Chemicals
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Chapter 4: Basic Steps of Coding
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cross-reference instruction in the code book
A)Tabular List
B)See also
C)Subterms
D)Discharge summary
E)Coding Clinic
F)ER
G)Differential diagnosis
H)Chief complaint
I)The first basic step in coding the principal diagnosis
J)Nonessential modifiers
Q2) What is the main term in "infantile eczema"?
Q3) The coder should rely solely on the discharge summary to capture all of the diagnoses and procedures that were treated and performed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The main terms usually are nouns and/or disease conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the subterm in "aspiration pneumonia"?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: General Coding Guidelines for Diagnosis
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to the hospital with unstable angina.Serial cardiac enzymes and EKGs are performed,and anterolateral myocardial infarction is confirmed.The patient develops congestive heart failure on day 2 of the hospital stay.What is the principal diagnosis?
Q2) What is the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic bronchitis?
Q3) In the inpatient setting,it is not acceptable to code diagnoses that have not yet been confirmed and are questionable or suspected.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient who is a known diabetic is admitted for treatment of an ulcer of the left great toe.What is the principal diagnosis?
Q5) A patient is admitted to the hospital with Crohn's disease,hypertension,and rheumatoid arthritis for bowel resection.In the OR before incision,the patient develops tachycardia,and the procedure is canceled.What is the principal diagnosis?
Q6) What is the diagnosis code(s) for cognitive deficits due to previous cerebral infarction?
Q7) What are the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic pancreatitis?
Q8) What is the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic respiratory failure?
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Chapter 6: General Coding Guidelines for Medical and Surgical Procedures
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173 Verified Questions
173 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The root operation to stop postprocedural bleeding is "control."
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is acceptable to choose a valid code directly from the tables.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A bone marrow transplant is coded to the root operation transplant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ICD-10-PCS codes?
A)Codes are alphanumeric
B)Codes are seven characters
C)Codes are expandable
D)Codes are three to four digits
Q5) The trachea is in what body system?
Q6) The approach for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is percutaneous endoscopic.
A)True
B)False
8
Q7) Laparoscopic lysis of adhesions,small bowel
Q8) Open partial nephrectomy,left
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Page 9
Chapter 7: General Coding Guidelines for Other Medicaland
Surgical-Related Procedures and Ancillary Procedures
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107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the administration section,the fourth character,body system/region,identifies the site where the substance is administered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first character value for a physical rehabilitation or diagnostic audiology procedure is I.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Removal of sutures from abdominal wall
Q4) Radionuclide is the fifth character in the nuclear medicine section.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Stereotactic radiosurgery to spinal cord using gamma beam
Q6) The first character value for a physical rehabilitation or diagnostic audiology procedure is F.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Radionuclide is root type in the nuclear medicine section.
A)True
B)False Page 10
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Chapter 8: Symptoms,
Signs, and
Abnormal
Clinical and Laboratory Findings Not Elsewhere Classified, and Z Codes
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Screening for sickle cell disorder: __________
Q2) List one reason why a screening code would not be necessary.
Q3) The patient is admitted to the hospital with fever and dehydration resulting from pneumonia.
A)J18.9,E86.0
B)J18.9,E86.0,R50.9
C)R50.9 J18.9,E86.0
D)J18.9,E86.1,R50.81
Q4) Oral phase dysphagia: __________
Q5) A person who has had an allergic episode related to a substance or food in the past should always be considered allergic to the substance.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Subjective evidence of a disease or of a patient's condition as perceived by the patient
A)A primary circumstance for using Z codes
B)Symptom
C)Screening exam
D)Is a main term in the Alphabetic Index
E)Sign
Page 12
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Chapter 9: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient known to be positive for HIV is admitted to the hospital with high fever,malaise,and cough.PCP pneumonia is suspected and is ruled out.Tests reveal that the patient has infectious mononucleosis.
A)B20,B59
B)B59,B20
C)B27.90,Z21
D)Z21,B27.90
Q2) A patient was admitted to the hospital with fever,cough,and low blood pressure.CXR shows infiltrates,and sputum culture is positive for MRSA.The discharge summary indicates that the patient was admitted and was given IV antibiotics for MRSA pneumonia.
A)Z16.11,J15.212
B)J15.212,Z16.11
C)B95.62,Z16.11
D)J15.212
Q3) Assign the code for scarlet fever.
Q4) ____________________,or shingles,is a disease caused by the same virus that causes chickenpox.
Q5) Assign the code for German measles.
Q6) TB stands for ____________________.
Page 14
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Chapter 10: Neoplasms
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that are slightly abnormal and well differentiated are classified as grade ____ cells.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) Neoplasms of fibrous connective tissue
A)Well differentiated
B)Sarcomas
C)Fibromas
D)Metastasis
E)Leukemias
F)Melanomas
G)Carcinomas
H)Undifferentiated
I)Myeloma
J)Grading
K)Primary site
L)Staging
M)Adenocarcinoma
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Page 15
Chapter 11: Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming
Organs and Certain Disorders Involving the Immune
Mechanism
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coagulopathy due to chronic liver disease: __________
Q2) Platelets are also called thrombocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Thrombocytopenia due to chronic alcoholism: __________
Q4) A diagnostic procedure used to identify types of anemia,cell deficiencies,and leukemia
A)Apheresis
B)Blood
C)Autologous transfusion
D)5000 to 10,000/mm3
E)Hemoglobin (HGB)
F)Purpura
G)Idiopathic
H)Hematocrit (Hct)
I)Bone marrow biopsy
J)WBC
K)Secondary thrombocytopenia
Q5) What are two reasons for iron deficiency? Page 16
Q6) ____________________ give blood its red color.
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Page 17
Chapter 12: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes mellitus without mention of complication would NOT have any additional manifestation codes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is exophthalmos?
Q3) Diet,monitoring blood sugars,and insulin or oral medications such as Glyburide
A)Vitamin deficiencies
B)Malnutrition
C)Obesity
D)Diabetes
E)Hyperkalemia
F)Cystic fibrosis
G)Hypoparathyroidism
Q4) The most common cause of a goiter is ____ deficiency.
A)potassium
B)vitamin C
C)sodium
D)iodine
Q5) If a gland becomes larger,this is called ____________________,and if it becomes smaller,this is called ____________________.
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Chapter 13: Mental, Behavioral, and Neuro developmental Disorders
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recurrent intense sexual urges and fantasies of the use of inanimate objects for sexual arousal or orgasm
A)Masochism
B)Fetishism
C)Exhibitionism
D)Sadism
E)Transvestism
F)Voyeurism
Q2) Organic psychosis occurs because of deterioration in the brain and is usually progressive and irreversible.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient has a history of PTSD and arrives at the ER with extreme anxiety.The patient has been noncompliant with medications and recently has been under a great deal of stress and indicates suicidal ideation.The patient is admitted for monitoring and reinstitution of medications for exacerbation of chronic PTSD.
Q4) Korsakoff's alcoholic psychosis due to alcohol dependence: __________
Q5) Name one occurrence during birth that can cause intellectual disability.
Q6) What do ADD and ADHD stand for?
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Chapter
Eye and Adnexa,and Diseases of the Ear and Mastoid Process
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient came to the ER after falling off her horse at the county fair rodeo.X-rays reveal two fractured ribs on the left.Patient is admitted for acute pain control.
A)S22.42xA,G89.11,V80.010A,Y92.39,Y93.52
B)G89.18,S22.42xA,V80.010A,Y92.39,Y93.52
C)G89.11,S22.42xA,V80.010A,Y92.39,Y93.52
D)S22.42xA,R52,V80.010A,Y92.39,Y93.52
Q2) A progressive and chronic motor system disorder that includes symptoms such as tremors,rigidity,and impaired coordination
A)Glaucoma
B)Hydrocephalus
C)Meningitis
D)Epilepsy
E)Parkinson's disease
F)Cataract
G)Cholesteatoma
H)Mastoiditis
I)Myasthenia gravis
J)Alzheimer's disease
Q3) Mastoid cholesteatoma of the right ear: __________
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Chapter 15: Diseases of the Circulatory System
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient presents with left carotid artery thrombosis with infarct and current right hemiparesis.Patient has residual aphasia from a previous stroke.
A)I69.854,I63.032,I69.320
B)I63.032,I69.032,I69.320
C)I63.032,G81.91,I69.320
D)I69.320,G81.90,I69.854
Q2) Patient is admitted with chest pain and rules in for an anterolateral MI.There is a family history of CAD.
A)I21.3,Z82.49
B)I22.9,Z82.49
C)I21.09,Z82.49
D)I21.11,Z82.49
Q3) Diuretics such as Lasix,Bumex,and Zaroxolyn;beta blockers
A)Angina
B)Atrial fibrillation
C)Congestive heart failure
D)Hypertension
Q4) Malignant hypertension with congestive failure: __________
Q5) Benign renovascular hypertension: __________
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Chapter 16: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suspected H1N1 influenza: __________
Q2) ____ occurs when the linings of one or more sinuses become infected,usually as the result of viruses or bacteria.
A)Black lung
B)Asthma
C)Sinusitis
D)Bronchitis
Q3) Patient was admitted with flu like symptoms.The final diagnosis on the discharge summary is possible novel influenza A.
A)J09.X2
B)J09.X3
C)J11.1
D)J11.89
Q4) Cork handlers' disease: __________
Q5) Patient is admitted with status asthmaticus.Patient was started on albuterol treatments.Patient has been intubated on previous admissions.Patient is positive for sickle cell trait and is on methadone for treatment of heroin dependence.What codes are applicable?
Q6) Laryngeal spasm: __________
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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Digestive System
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Code ____ is coded for personal history of malignant neoplasm of the GI tract,unspecified.
A)Z85.00
B)Z80.9
C)Z80.0
D)Z85.09
Q2) Patient is admitted with hematochezia.A colonoscopy is performed and diverticulitis was found to be the source of the bleeding.
A)K92.1,K57.33,0DJD8ZZ
B)K57.33,0DJD8ZZ
C)K57.32,K92.1,0DJD7ZZ
D)K92.1,K57.32,0DJD7ZZ
Q3) An indirect hernia occurs when the protrusion is through the inguinal ring into the inguinal canal;this is different from a direct hernia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are diverticula?
Q5) Lingua villosa nigra: __________
Q6) Name one purpose of the small intestine.
Page 23
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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ulcer known as a bed sore
A)Decubitus ulcer
B)Skin ulcers
C)Cellulitis
D)Stasis ulcer
E)Stasis dermatitis
F)Intertriginous dermatitis
G)Gangrene
H)Hives
I)Dermatitis
Q2) Patient has a pressure ulcer of the left ankle on admission,which is documented as a stage I and progresses to a stage III during the course of the stay.The patient is a paraplegic.
A)L97.309,G82.22
B)L89.523,G82.20
C)L97.319,G82.20
D)L89.511,L89.523,G82.22
Q3) Another name for furuncle is a(n) ____________________.
Q4) What are the three types of glands located in the skin?
Q5) What are two accessory organs of the integumentary system?
Page 24
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathologic fracture of distal left femur due to osteosarcoma of femur.
A)M84.552A,C40.22
B)M84.551A,C40.22
C)M84.352A,C40.21
D)M84.552G,C40.10
Q2) Spinal decompression is a surgical procedure that frees the ____________________ in the spinal canal.
Q3) Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone that often starts in another part of the body and is spread by the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient is admitted to rule out lupus nephritis.The patient was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus 5 years ago.A percutaneous left kidney biopsy is performed,and lupus nephritis is confirmed.
A)M32.14,0TB13ZX.
B)M32.15,0T910ZX.
C)M32.14,0TB13ZZ.
D)M32.14,0TB13ZX
Q5) Kaschin-Beck disease,right ankle: __________
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukoplakia of vulva: __________
Q2) Hypotonic bladder: __________
Q3) ____ is abnormal dilation of the renal pelvis caused by pressure from urine that cannot flow past an obstruction in the urinary tract.
A)Genital prolapse
B)Hydronephrosis
C)Oophoritis
D)Pyelonephritis
Q4) Overflow incontinence is the constant dribbling of urine.Treatments for overflow incontinence include all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A)Kegel exercises
B)diet
C)immediate surgery
D)bladder training
Q5) Rectocele is the descent of the ____________________,pressing against the vaginal wall.
Q6) Postmenopausal atrophic vaginitis: __________
Q7) Vesicoperineal fistula: __________
Q8) Carbuncle scrotum: __________
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Chapter 21: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is tested for in a female's urine sample to confirm that she is pregnant?
Q2) A 38-week primigravida spontaneously delivers an SGA baby.Following delivery the obstetrician manually removes fragments of the retained placenta.On the second day after delivery,the patient develops a fever.Antibiotics are initiated and puerperal sepsis is documented.
A)O73,O85,Z3A.38,Z37.0,1OD17ZZ,10E0XZZ
B)O73.1,O85,Z3A.38,Z37.0,1OD17ZZ,10E0XZZ
C)O73.1,O75.3,Z3A.38,Z37.0,1OD17ZZ,10E0XZZ
D)O73.0,O75.3,Z3A.38,Z37.0,1OD17ZZ,10E0XZZ
Q3) A patient delivered 1 week before admission.She now presents to the ER with SOB and chest pain.CT confirms small pulmonary embolism.Physician documents postpartum pulmonary embolism.Patient is treated with anticoagulants for this blood clot and is discharged in stable condition.What codes are applicable? __________
Q4) What does postpartum mean?
Q5) Early separation of placenta third trimester (38 weeks) delivered a single liveborn via vaginal delivery: __________
Q6) Cephalopelvic disproportion as cause of obstruction delivered single term (40 weeks) liveborn via classical C-section this admit: __________
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Chapter
Period and Congenital Malformations, deformations, and
Chromosomal Abnormalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cesarean delivery at term with infant in fetal distress during labor: __________
Q2) Caused by a gene mutation characterized by an inheritable condition that affects the connective tissue
A)Klinefelter's syndrome
B)Spina bifida
C)Meckel's diverticulum
D)Marfan syndrome
E)Tetralogy of Fallot
F)Down syndrome
Q3) Congenital pigeon chest: __________
Q4) A congenital heart defect manifested by four key features,all involving the heart
A)Klinefelter's syndrome
B)Spina bifida
C)Meckel's diverticulum
D)Marfan syndrome
E)Tetralogy of Fallot
F)Down syndrome
Q5) Achondroplasia: __________
Q6) Imperforate hymen: __________ Page 28
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Chapter 23: Injuries and Certain Other Consequences of
External Cases and External Causes of Morbidity
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Sample Questions
Q1) ICD-10-CM guidelines state that if the intent of an injury is unknown or unspecified,code the intent as accidental.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are symptoms of fat embolism syndrome EXCEPT ____.
A)tachycardia
B)elevated temperature
C)decreased temperature
D)hypoxemia
Q3) In ICD-10-CM,complications of a fracture such as malunion or nonunion are reported with seventh character extensions for subsequent care with nonunion or malunion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the primary injury is to the blood vessels or nerves,that injury should be sequenced first.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Anaphylactic shock due to ingestion of milk: __________
Q6) Sprained left ankle,initial encounter: __________
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Chapter 24: Burns, adverse Effects, and Poisonings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Debridements must always be done in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Allergy other than to medicinal agents-bees
A)Z69.020
B)Z88.8
C)Z91.030
D)Z88.7
E)Z91.010
F)Z91.89
G)Z91.011
H)Z91.410
Q3) Battered spouse syndrome: Confirmed abuse by her husband: __________
Q4) During hospital stay,in the patient's room,the nurse accidentally administered insulin,and this caused hypoglycemia;patient is not a diabetic,and no insulin was ordered: __________
Q5) What are the four major types of abuse?
Q6) Sunburned chest: __________
Q7) The abbreviation OR stands for ____________________.
Q8) Patient had an adverse reaction to Cipro: __________
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Chapter 25: Complications of Surgical and Medical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Codes under subcategory T86 are used ____.
A)only for complications of transplanted organs
B)only for rejection of transplanted organs
C)for both complications and rejection of transplanted organs
D)for none of the above reasons
Q2) Patient with decreased visual acuity due to corneal graft rejection.Admitted for cadaver keratoplasty (external) of the left eye.
A)T86.840,Y83.0,H54.7,08R9XKZ
B)T85.318A,Y83.0,H54.7,08R93KZ
C)T86.840,Y83.0,H54.7,08R83KZ
D)T86.841,Y83.0,H54.7,08R8XKZ
Q3) Patient was hospitalized 1 month prior to this admission.During that admit,she was diagnosed with COPD and placed on a ventilator;her sputum was positive for Pseudomonas aeruginosa.She is admitted today with another case of pneumonia.
A)J98.851,J18.9,J44.9
B)J18.9,J44.9
C)J95.851,486,B96.5
D)J44.9,J18.9,J95.851,B96.5
Q4) How often are code Z94.0 and a T86.1- code used together?
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Chapter 26: Reimbursement Methodologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________________ is the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care.
Q2) A patient with COPD is admitted to the hospital.Two days after admission,the COPD becomes exacerbated.The exacerbation of COPD should be designated as present on admission.
A)True
B)False
Q3) This refers to a condition that arises during a patient's hospitalization
A)Complication
B)Comorbidity
C)Quality Improvement Organization (QIO)
D)PEPPER-Program for Evaluating Payment Patterns Electronic Report
E)Postacute Transfer Policy
Q4) The ____________________ Act was responsible for the establishment of the Medicare program.
Q5) One of the goals of a clinical documentation improvement program is to improve a facility's case mix.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Out patient Coding
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42626
Sample Questions
Q1) The Uniform Discharge Data Set definition of principal diagnosis applies to inpatients in ____.
A)short-term care
B)long-term care
C)psychiatric hospitals
D)all of the above situations
E)none of the above situations
Q2) What are ancillary service visits?
Q3) Patient goes to a physician's office with a complaint of low back pain.This patient is on medication for hypertension and hypercholesterolemia.During this visit,the patient's blood pressure is checked,and blood is drawn for cholesterol level: __________
Q4) Encounter for exam of an adult following an alleged rape
A)Z33.1
B)O09.01
C)Z30.431
D)Z00.129
E)Z04.41
F)Z01.811
Q5) What does APC stand for?
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