Healthcare Data Management Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Healthcare Data Management explores the principles, technologies, and practices involved in the collection, storage, retrieval, and analysis of data within healthcare organizations. Students will learn about electronic health records (EHRs), data governance, data privacy and security, interoperability standards, and regulatory requirements such as HIPAA. The course also covers data quality management, clinical coding, and the use of healthcare data to support decision-making, enhance patient outcomes, and drive organizational efficiency. Through case studies and practical exercises, students will develop the skills necessary to manage healthcare data systems, ensure data integrity, and leverage data analytics for transformative healthcare solutions.
Recommended Textbook
ICD 10 CM PCS Coding Theory and Practice 2018 Edition 1st Edition by
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
26 Chapters
1616 Verified Questions
1616 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2138
Page 2
Karla R. Lovaasen
Chapter 1: The Rationale for and History of Coding
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42574
Sample Questions
Q1) ICD-10-CM updates contain additional codes, __________ codes, and __________ codes.
Answer: revised; deleted
Q2) As explained in the article that appeared in AHIMA by Joette Hanna titled "Constructing a Coding Compliance Plan," several steps must be taken for a coding department to be certain the department is in compliance. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps?
A)Abide by AHIMA's Standards of Ethical Coding.
B)Develop coding policies and procedures.
C)Conduct coding audits.
D)Follow the Coding Clinic Guidelines.
Answer: D
Q3) In a closed system such as the ICD-10-CM system, a disease or condition can be classified only in ____ location(s).
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: The Health Record As the Foundation of Coding
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42575
Sample Questions
Q1) In some cases, a patient is ready to be discharged from the hospital, but at the last minute, the patient develops a condition that requires him or her to stay an additional night. An example of when a patient might have to stay an additional night is when the patient ____.
A)is feeling better
B)has no pain
C)has no additional cough
D)develops a fever
Answer: D
Q2) Give three reasons why a provider should be queried.
Answer: A provider should be queried when documentation is conflicting, incomplete, or ambiguous.Following are six specific instances:
1. Clinical indicators of a diagnosis but no documentation of the condition
2. Clinical evidence for a higher degree of specificity or severity
3. A cause-and-effect relationship between two conditions or organisms
4. An underlying cause when the patient is admitted with symptoms
5. Only the treatment is documented (without a diagnosis)
6. Present on admission (POA) indicator status is unknown or unclear
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: ICD-10-Cm Format and Conventions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42576
Sample Questions
Q1) In ICD-10-CM the final character of a code assignment can never be a letter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The word(s) "____" should be interpreted to mean either "and" or "or" when it appears in the title.
A)with B)see C)omit code
D)and Answer: D
Q3) What does NEC stand for?
Answer: Not elsewhere classifiable
Q4) "Diseases of the skin and subcutaneous tissue (L00-L99)" represents a ____.
A)chapter
B)section
C)category
D)subcategory Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Basic Steps of Coding
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42577
Sample Questions
Q1) Exceptions to the general rule that main terms usually identify disease conditions are Z codes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The admitting diagnosis is usually a sign or a symptom.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Provides advice on how to correctly code specific diagnoses
A)Tabular List
B)See also
C)Subterms
D)Discharge summary
E)Coding Clinic
F)ER
G)Differential diagnosis
H)Chief complaint
I)The first basic step in coding the principal diagnosis
J)Nonessential modifiers
Q4) What is the main term in "calculus of the ureter"?
Q5) What is the main term in "rheumatoid arthritis"?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: General Coding Guidelines for Diagnosis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42578
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to the hospital with unstable angina. Serial cardiac enzymes and EKGs are performed, and anterolateral myocardial infarction is confirmed. The patient develops congestive heart failure on day 2 of the hospital stay. What is the principal diagnosis?
Q2) If the principal diagnosis was abdominal pain due to acute appendicitis, the abdominal pain would be coded as a secondary diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a coder notices on a laboratory test result that a patient's sodium is below normal, it is acceptable to code hyponatremia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ code is a single code used to classify two diagnoses, a diagnosis with an associated secondary process, or a diagnosis with an associated complication.
Q5) What is/are the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic bronchitis?
Q6) List one reason when it is NOT acceptable to code a symptom code from Chapter 18.
Q7) What is/are the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic respiratory failure?
Page 7
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Introduction to Icd-10-PCS
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42579
Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to use a general body part value, if available, when the specific body part cannot be determined.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Uses an endoscopic instrument to examine and perform closed procedures within the abdomen
A)Thoracoscopic approach
B)Arthroscopic approach
C)Laparoscopic approach
D)Endoscopic approach
Q3) Putting in or on biological or synthetic material that physically reinforces and/or augments the function of a portion of a body part is called ____.
A)restriction
B)insertion
C)supplement
D)revision
Q4) ____________________ is an adjunct procedure that allows increased visualization and more precise navigation during surgery.
Q5) Open partial nephrectomy, left
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: General Coding Guidelines for Other Medical-
and Surgical-Related Procedures and Ancillary Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42580
Sample Questions
Q1) Obstetric tables include procedures performed on the products of conception only.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Immobilization is limiting or preventing motion of a body region.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Radionuclide is root type in the nuclear medicine section.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fourth character is the body part that is the focus of the radiation therapy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the section value for administration?
Q6) When a code from Section X is assigned, an adjunctive code from another table also needs to be assigned.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Diagnostic ultrasound right breast
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Coding Medical and Surgical Procedures
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42581
Sample Questions
Q1) Closed reduction of right radial fracture
Q2) Change of nephrostomy tube
Q3) Modifying the natural anatomic structure of a body part without affecting the function of the body part is called ____.
Q4) ____________________ is the removal of tissue for pathologic exam to establish a precise diagnosis.
Q5) Any procedure that affects payment or reimbursement must be reported.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Root operation that puts in/puts back or moves some/all of a body part
A)Drainage
B)Excision
C)Occlusion
D)Release
E)Removal
F)Reposition
Q7) Taking out or off a device from a body part is called ____.
Q8) Moving all or a portion of a body part to its normal location or other suitable location is called ____.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Symptoms, Signs, and Abnormal Clinical and
Laboratory Findings Not Elsewhere Classified, and Z Codes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42582
Sample Questions
Q1) Subjective evidence of a disease or of a patient's condition as perceived by the patient
A)A primary circumstance for using Z codes
B)Symptom
C)Screening exam
D)Is a main term in the Alphabetic Index
E)Sign
Q2) Principal diagnosis is documented as right upper quadrant abdominal pain due to cholecystitis versus peptic ulcer disease: __________
Q3) What is meant by screening exam or test?
Q4) Where are Z codes located in the Tabular List of the coding book?
Q5) Positive Mantoux test: __________
Q6) Which of the following is a category of Z codes?
A)Contact/exposure
B)Inoculations and vaccinations
C)Status
D)All of the above
Q7) Patient has a cystostomy: __________
Q8) List one reason why a screening code would not be necessary. Page 11
Q9) Another name for the coma scale is ______________ Coma Scale score.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 10: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42583
Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for a cold sore is herpes simplex type ____.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)none of the above is correct
Q2) Of the following medications, which is NOT an antifungal medication?
A)Nizoral
B)Grisactin
C)Lotrimin
D)Zovirax
Q3) What virus is spread to individuals by a mosquito bite?
Q4) Z21 is a code used for patients with HIV who have no symptoms and who have never had an AIDS-defining or AIDS-related illness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Assign the code for German measles.
Q6) Assign the code for Zika virus.
Q7) Assign the code(s) for acute pyelonephritis due to pseudomonas.
Q8) Assign the code for chickenpox.
Page 13
Q9) Assign the code for suspected carrier of group B strep.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 14
Chapter 11: Neoplasms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42584
Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer of the lymphatic system is called ____________________.
Q2) Gastrointestinal stromal tumor of the duodenum, malignant
Q3) A patient was admitted with an intestinal obstruction due to peritoneal metastasis from inoperable rectosigmoid cancer.
A)C78.6, C19
B)K56.69, C19, C78.6
C)C78.6, K56.60
D)C19, C78.6
Q4) ____ carcinoma is primary neoplasm of the liver.
A)Squamous cell
B)Bronchogenic
C)Hepatocellular
D)Invasive ductal
Q5) A patient has known adenocarcinoma of the right lower lobe of the lung. Thoracentesis was done to evaluate the patient's pleural effusion. Discharge summary documents malignant pleural effusion.
A)C34.32, J90, 0W9B3ZX
B)J91.0, C34.32, 0W9B30Z
C)C34.31, J91.0, 0W993ZX
D)C34.31, J90, 0W9930Z
Page 15
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 12: Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming
Organs and Certain Disorders Involving the Immune
Mechanism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42585
Sample Questions
Q1) Anemia due to acute blood loss: __________
Q2) The percentage of blood volume made up of red blood cells
A)Apheresis
B)Blood
C)Autologous transfusion
D)5000 to 10,000/mm3
E)Hemoglobin (HGB)
F)Purpura
G)Idiopathic
H)Hematocrit (Hct)
I)Bone marrow biopsy
J)WBCs
K)Secondary thrombocytopenia
Q3) ____________________ is a viscous fluid that circulates through the vessels of the circulatory system as a result of the pumping action of the heart.
Q4) ____________________ give blood its red color.
Q5) End-stage renal disease with erythropoietin-resistant anemia: __________
Q6) ____________________ is an increased number of white cells in the blood. Page 16
Coagulopathy due to chronic liver disease: __________
Q8) Bandemia: __________
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 17
Chapter 13: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42586
Sample Questions
Q1) Hypoglycemia: __________
Q2) The correct abbreviation for phenylketonuria is ____________________.
Q3) Diabetes mellitus with hypoglycemic coma: __________
Q4) The coding of diabetes mellitus can be complicated because of various manifestations that can be associated with the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a gland becomes larger, it is called ____________________, and if it becomes smaller, it is called ____________________.
Q6) In ICD-10-CM, if the diabetes is due to an adverse effect of a drug, there is an Instructional note to assign a T36-T50 code as an additional or secondary code.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Vitamin D deficiency: __________
Q8) Diabetic cataract: __________
Q9) Familial hypercholesterolemia: __________
Q10) Graves disease with thyrotoxic storm: __________
Q11) What is exophthalmos?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 14: Mental, Behavioral, and Neurodevelopmental Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42587
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of intellectual disability is the mild type, which affects ____ of those who have intellectual disabilities.
A)20%
B)50%
C)85%
D)100%
Q2) ____________________ is a structured program with the goal to stop and recover from the use of drugs or alcohol.
Q3) Cirrhosis of liver due to alcohol dependence in remission: __________
Q4) A patient has a history of PTSD and arrives at the ER with extreme anxiety. The patient has been noncompliant with medications and recently has been under a great deal of stress and indicates suicidal ideation. The patient is admitted for monitoring and reinstitution of medications for exacerbation of chronic PTSD.
Q5) Adjustment disorder with depressed mood due to unemployment.
A)Z56.0, F43.21
B)F43.21, Z56.0
C)F43.20
D)F43.23, Z56.0
Q6) Name some symptoms/signs that characterize ADD or ADHD.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 15: Diseases of the Nervous System, Diseases of
the Eye and Adnexa, and Diseases of the Ear and Mastoid Process
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42588
Sample Questions
Q1) A disorder of the brain that causes a progressive decline in mental and physical function
A)Glaucoma
B)Hydrocephalus
C)Meningitis
D)Epilepsy
E)Parkinson disease
F)Cataract
G)Cholesteatoma
H)Mastoiditis
I)Myasthenia gravis
J)Alzheimer disease
Q2) A patient with trigeminal neuralgia and a history of migraine headaches is admitted for an open rhizotomy. A day after the procedure, the patient develops a severe headache diagnosed as a migraine.
A)G50.0, G43.901, 008M3ZZ
B)G50.0, G43.909, 008K0ZZ
C)G50.0, G43.901, 008K0ZZ
D)G50.0, G43.909, 008K4ZZ
Page 20
Q3) Mastoid cholesteatoma of the right ear: __________
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 21
Chapter 16: Diseases of the Circulatory System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42589
Sample Questions
Q1) The two main types of heart failure are systolic and diastolic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A problem in the electrical impulses that regulate heartbeats
A)Transient ischemic attack
B)Atherosclerosis
C)Aneurysm
D)Pericarditis
E)Endocarditis
F)Cardiomyopathy
G)Conduction disorder
H)Diagnostic cardiac catheterization
Q3) Atherectomy is the removal of plaque from the vessel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Stenosis of bilateral carotid arteries: __________
Q5) Tachycardia is an abnormally high heart rate of more than 100 beats/min.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Right iliac vein phlebitis: __________
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 17: Diseases of the Respiratory System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42590
Sample Questions
Q1) Patient was admitted with flulike symptoms. The final diagnosis on the discharge summary is possible novel influenza A H7N9.
A)J09.X2
B)J09.X3
C)J11.1
D)J11.89
Q2) In ICD-10-CM, if a respiratory condition occurs in more than one site and is not specifically indexed, each site should be coded separately.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the major organ of the respiratory system?
Q4) ____ pneumonia refers to pneumonia contracted outside of the hospital or nursing home setting.
A)Nursing home-acquired
B)Hospital-acquired
C)Community-acquired
D)Nosocomial
Q5) What is the definition of infection?
Q6) Retropharyngeal abscess: __________
23
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Diseases of the Digestive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42591
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are functions of the liver EXCEPT that it ____.
A)removes poisons from the blood
B)produces immune agents to control infection
C)stores and releases bile
D)removes germs and bacteria from the blood
E)none of the above is correct
Q2) Assign the code for portal thrombophlebitis: __________
Q3) Ostomies are surgically created openings into the body. Enterostomies and colostomies are created to discharge waste products from the body.
A)Both statements are true
B)Both statements are false
C)The first statement is true; the second is false
D)The first statement is false; the second is true
Q4) What is an ulcer (such as of the stomach or intestine)?
Q5) Patient with common bile duct stones presents for stone removal by ERCP.
A)K80.50, 0FC98ZZ.
B)K80.10, 0FF98ZZ..
C)K80.50, 0FC98ZZ
D)K80.10, 0DTG0ZZ, 0D1M0Z4
Q6) Lingua villosa nigra: __________
Page 24
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42592
Sample Questions
Q1) What is an abscess of the skin?
Q2) Ulcer known as a bed sore
A)Decubitus ulcer
B)Skin ulcers
C)Cellulitis
D)Stasis ulcer
E)Stasis dermatitis
F)Intertriginous dermatitis
G)Gangrene
H)Hives
I)Dermatitis
Q3) Which layer of the skin is composed of fibrous connective tissue?
A)Outer layer
B)Middle layer
C)Inner layer
D)None of the above
Q4) Skin grafts can be only full-thickness skin grafts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Dermatitis from gold ring: __________
25
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42593
Sample Questions
Q1) Ball joints are small stabilizing joints located between and behind adjacent vertebrae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the purpose of the musculoskeletal system?
Q3) ____ is an exaggerated inward curvature of the spine that may be caused by increased abdominal girth due to obesity, pregnancy, or abdominal tumors.
A)Lordosis
B)Kyphosis
C)Scoliosis
D)Myosis
Q4) A patient is admitted to rule out lupus nephritis. The patient was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus 5 years ago. A percutaneous left kidney biopsy is performed, and lupus nephritis is confirmed.
A)M32.14, 0TB13ZX
B)M32.15, 0T910ZX
C)M32.14, 0TB13ZZ
D)M32.14, 0TB13ZX.
Q5) What does the abbreviation AKA stand for?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 21: Diseases of the Genitourinary System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42594
Sample Questions
Q1) Tight hymenal ring: __________
Q2) Use of code category N18.- with Z94.0 ALWAYS indicates transplant rejection or failure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Overflow incontinence is the constant dribbling of urine. Treatments for overflow incontinence include all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A)Kegel exercises
B)diet
C)immediate surgery
D)bladder training
Q4) A patient is admitted with hematuria and renal colic. Renal ultrasound shows a UPJ stone with left hydronephrosis. ESWL on the left ureter was performed. Patient has a history of UTIs and Parkinson disease. __________
Q5) If causative bacteria are documented by the physician, this code should NEVER be coded in addition to the urinary tract infection.
A)True B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 22: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42595
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following codes are correct when a normal pregnancy is coded?
A)O80 Normal delivery
B)Z37.0 Single liveborn
C)10E0XZZ Manually assisted delivery
D)All of the above
Q2) What is the Index term if the condition is affecting the pregnancy?
Q3) In referring to a pregnant woman, what does antepartum mean?
Q4) Before delivery
A)Young obstetric patient
B)Antepartum
C)Primigravida
D)Puerperium
E)Gravid
F)Elderly OB patient
Q5) ICD-10-CM does NOT have separate categories for high-risk pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is an ectopic pregnancy?
Q7) Lupus nephritis in second trimester of pregnancy (20 weeks'gestation):
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 23: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal
Period and Congenital Malformations, Deformations, and
Chromosomal Abnormalities
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42596
Sample Questions
Q1) If the condition of the newborn is community acquired, should a code from Chapter 16 be assigned?
Q2) Vaginal delivery at term of baby with fractured right clavicle due to birth injury:
Q3) What does AGA stand for?
Q4) There is abnormal fetal heart rate or rhythm during labor, and infant is therefore delivered by C-section. Mother was instructed on discharge to put the baby in front of the window in the sun to alleviate the mild jaundice. In addition, a lactation consult was performed during this stay because the baby was having difficulty breastfeeding.
A)Z38.01, P92.5, P59.9
B)Z38.00, P92.8, P59.3
C)Z38.00, P03.811, P92.8, P59.9
D)Z38.01, P03.810, P92.5, P59.3
Q5) For coding purposes, what is the perinatal period considered?
Q6) There is no cure for Down syndrome, but the risk increases the older the mother is during her pregnancy.
A)True
B)False Page 29
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30
Chapter 24: Injuries and Certain Other Consequences of
External Cases and External Causes of Morbidity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42597
Sample Questions
Q1) A ____ fracture is a common fracture in adults in which the lower end of the radius is fractured and the wrist and hand are displaced backward.
A)hangman's
B)Colles
C)subluxation
D)Moore
Q2) An open fracture occurs when the bone is broken but the skin remains intact.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When air or gas bubbles get into the bloodstream, it is called a(n)
Q4) External cause codes identify ____.
A)the activity at the time of the event
B)the cause of an injury
C)the intent or place of occurrence
D)all of the above
Q5) Fifteen mosquito bites on right lower leg, initial encounter: __________
Q6) In ICD-10-CM, if a fracture is not specified, it is coded to displaced.
A)True
B)False Page 31
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 25: Burns, Adverse Effects, and Poisonings
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42598
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient was admitted with hematemesis. The patient has been taking NSAIDs as directed by the physician for arthritis pain. EGD showed that the patient had an acute erosive gastritis, most likely due to NSAIDs, which is the likely cause of the bleeding.Final Diagnosis: Erosive gastritis with hemorrhage due to NSAIDs Procedure: EGD with gastric biopsy
A)K29.01, T39.395A, M19.90, 0DB68ZX
B)T39.395A, K29.61, M19.90, 0DB78ZZ
C)T49.0x2A, K29.00, M19.90, 0DB78ZX
D)T49.0x1D, K29.71, M19.90, 0DB67ZZ
Q2) All of the following are to be considered when one is questioning whether a poisoning has occurred EXCEPT whether the ____.
A)wrong medication was taken
B)wrong dose was taken
C)medication belongs to another person
D)medication was taken 30 minutes after the scheduled time
Q3) Deep necrosis of underlying tissues
A)First-degree
B)Second-degree
C)Third-degree
D)Fourth-degree
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 26: Complications of Surgical and Medical Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42599
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with a urinary tract infection (UTI) resulting from E. coli. The patient has an indwelling Foley catheter after recent radical prostatectomy for prostate cancer. The coder queries the physician regarding the relationship of the UTI and the Foley catheter, and the physician documents that the UTI is caused by the Foley catheter. The patient is morbidly obese with type 2 diabetes, controlled with insulin. The patient is still under active treatment for the cancer.
A)N39.0, B96.29, E66.01, E10.9, Z79.4, Z85.46, Y84.6
B)T83.512A, N39.0, E66.9, E10.9, Z89.4, Z85.46, Y84.6
C)T83.511A, N39.0, B96.20, E66.01, E11.9, C61, Z79.4, Y84.6
D)B96.23, T83.511S, N39.0, E66.01, E11.9, Z79.4, C61, Y84.6
Q2) A patient comes to the hospital with chronic cholecystitis, and a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is performed. The patient's bowel function was slow to return, and on day 3, the patient developed a postoperative obstruction that was slow to resolve.
Q3) NSTEMI following laparoscopic appendectomy for acute appendicitis. Physician documents that the NSTEMI was due to the procedure: __________
Q4) When no entry is found under the main term for the condition, the coder should refer to the main term ____________________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34