Healthcare Data Management
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Healthcare Data Management is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices involved in collecting, storing, securing, and utilizing healthcare data. Students will learn about the key components of health information systems, data standards, and electronic health records (EHRs). The course covers topics such as data interoperability, privacy and security regulations (including HIPAA), data governance, and strategies for ensuring data quality. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications, including how effective data management supports clinical decision-making, research, and operational efficiency in healthcare organizations. Through case studies and practical exercises, students will develop the skills required to manage and analyze healthcare data in a rapidly evolving digital landscape.
Recommended Textbook
ICD 10 CM PCS Coding Theory and Practice 2016 Edition 1st Edition by Karla R. Lovaasen
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27 Chapters
1674 Verified Questions
1674 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Rationale for and History of Coding
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) NCHS
A)American Academy of Professional Coders
B)Certified Coding Specialist
C)American Hospital Association
D)National Center for Health Statistics
E)Registered Health Information Technician
Answer: D
Q2) Medical coding
A)Has more than 100,000 members and was started in 1981
B)Translating diagnoses and procedures into numbers for the purposes of statistically capturing data
C)Grouping like items together for easy storage and retrieval
D)To maintain credentials,coders must earn these
E)Published by the College of American Pathologists,the most up-to-date system of nomenclature
F)The current coding classification system in use in the United States
Answer: B
Q3) Without the __________ system,the comparison of data would be impossible.
Answer: classification
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Page 3
Chapter 2:
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long after admission is it required by TJC that the admission history and physical be completed?
Answer: Within 24 hours
Q2) Principal diagnosis is one of the most important concepts for coders to understand and apply.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is the goal of the physician query process?
Answer: To improve physician documentation and coding professionals' understanding of the unique clinical situation
Q4) UHDDS
A)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
B)Temperature,pulse,and respiration
C)Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set
D)Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Answer: C
Q5) What does MRI stand for?
Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging
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Chapter 3: ICD-10-Cm Format and Conventions
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bolded subterm in the diagnostic statement cortical cataract is a(n) ____ modifier.
A)essential
B)nonessential
Answer: B
Q2) ____ is/are used in both the Index and Tabular List to enclose supplementary words that may be present or absent in the statement of a disease or procedure without affecting the code assignment.
A)Excludes
B)Brackets
C)Includes D)Parentheses
Answer: D
Q3) "____" is a reference that instructs coders to look up another term to locate a code for a particular condition.
A)See category
B)And
C)See condition
D)Eponym Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Basic Steps of Coding
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main term in "aplastic anemia" is ____.
A)anemia
B)aplasia
C)aplastic
D)none of the above
Q2) A differential diagnosis is when a patient presents with a symptom that is usually related to only one possible diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Exceptions to the general rule that main terms usually identify disease conditions are Z codes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________,if available,is the first step in the process of record review for code selection.
Q5) In the discharge summary,a physician lists the __________ that were evaluated and treated and any procedures that were performed.
Q6) What is the subterm in "esophageal reflux"?
Q7) What is the subterm in "rheumatoid arthritis"?
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Chapter 5: General Coding Guidelines for Diagnosis
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the principal diagnosis was abdominal pain due to acute appendicitis,the abdominal pain would be coded as a secondary diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Principal diagnosis is defined in the Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) as that condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic cholecystitis?
Q4) A patient comes to the hospital with unstable angina.Serial cardiac enzymes and EKGs are performed,and anterolateral myocardial infarction is confirmed.The patient develops congestive heart failure on day 2 of the hospital stay.What is the principal diagnosis?
Q5) A patient is admitted to the hospital with Crohn's disease,hypertension,and rheumatoid arthritis for bowel resection.In the OR before incision,the patient develops tachycardia,and the procedure is canceled.What is the principal diagnosis?
Q6) What is the diagnosis code(s) for acute and chronic bronchitis?
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Chapter 6: General Coding Guidelines for Medical and Surgical Procedures
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173 Verified Questions
173 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is not acceptable to choose a valid code directly from the tables.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Temporary wound drain inserted at the time of surgery
Q3) Sutures are considered a device.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alphabetic Index entry for resection of the adrenal glands
Q5) Procedure codes identified by the Medicare Code Editor as Noncovered Operating Room Procedures for which Medicare does not provide reimbursement
A)Non-OR procedure affecting MS-DRG assignment
B)Limited coverage
C)Noncovered OR procedure
D)Valid OR procedure
E)Bilateral procedure
Q6) ____________________ is an adjunct procedure that allows increased visualization and more precise navigation during surgery.
Page 8
Q7) Closed reduction of left humeral shaft fracture
Q8) Episiotomy with vaginal delivery
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Page 9
Chapter 7: General Coding Guidelines for Other Medicaland
Surgical-Related Procedures and Ancillary Procedures
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107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultrasound pediatric heart,transesophageal
Q2) CT bilateral lungs using low osmolar contrast
Q3) IQ testing
Q4) Upper GI series,fluoroscopic imaging using barium
Q5) Stereotactic radiosurgery to spinal cord using gamma beam
Q6) Therapeutic massage is coded in the other procedures section.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Nonautologous bone marrow transplant via central venous catheter
Q8) In ICD-10-PCS,abortion is defined as the spontaneous termination of a pregnancy. A)True
B)False
Q9) Modality qualifier is the fifth character in the radiation oncology section.
A)True
B)False
Q10) External is the only root operation that can be used in the osteopathic section.
A)True
B)False Page 10
Q12) Physical therapy treatment to increase ROM shoulder
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Chapter 8: Symptoms,
Signs, and Abnormal Clinical and Laboratory Findings Not Elsewhere Classified, and Z Codes
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gas pain: __________
Q2) A screening code may be listed first if the reason for the visit is specifically a screening exam.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ICD-10-CM provides codes to deal with encounters for circumstances other than a disease or injury.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patient was seen in the clinic.Final diagnosis is RUQ rebound abdominal tenderness.
A)R10.11
B)R10.811
C)R10.821
D)R10.829
Q5) Urethral discharge: __________
Q6) Ascites due to cirrhosis of liver: __________
Q7) Where are Z codes located in the Tabular List of the coding book?
Q8) Positive Mantoux test: __________
Q9) Oral phase dysphagia: __________ Page 12
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Chapter 9: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following medications,which is NOT an antifungal medication?
A)Nizoral
B)Grisactin
C)Lotrimin
D)Zovirax
Q2) MRSA positive by nasal swab
A)Z22.330
B)Z22.322
C)Z16.39
D)A49.02
Q3) Assign the code for asymptomatic HIV.
Q4) ____ is an infection caused by mycobacterium;it can attack any body part,but it usually attacks the lungs.
A)Anthrax
B)Tuberculosis
C)Meningococcus
D)Clostridium difficile
Q5) Code B20 is NEVER used once a patient develops AIDS.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Neoplasms
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adrenocortical carcinoma,left gland: __________
Q2) Malignancies arising from white blood cells
A)Well differentiated
B)Sarcomas
C)Fibromas
D)Metastasis
E)Leukemias
F)Melanomas
G)Carcinomas
H)Undifferentiated
I)Myeloma
J)Grading
K)Primary site
L)Staging
M)Adenocarcinoma
Q3) Metastatic carcinoma of the omentum.History of ovarian carcinoma that was treated with bilateral oophorectomy 5 years ago: __________
Q4) Preventive or ____________________ surgery is performed to remove tissue that has the potential to become cancerous.
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Chapter 11: Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming
Organs and Certain Disorders Involving the Immune
Mechanism
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anemia due to gastric cancer: __________
Q2) Anemia due to acute blood loss: __________
Q3) A procedure that separates the different components of the blood and removes a certain part of the blood,such as leukapheresis,plateletpheresis,and plasmapheresis
A)Apheresis
B)Blood
C)Autologous transfusion
D)5000 to 10,000/mm3
E)Hemoglobin (HGB)
F)Purpura
G)Idiopathic
H)Hematocrit (Hct)
I)Bone marrow biopsy
J)WBC
K)Secondary thrombocytopenia
Q4) Thrombocytopenia due to chronic alcoholism: __________
Q6) What are two reasons for iron deficiency? Page 16
Q5) End-stage renal disease with erythropoietin-resistant anemia: __________
Q7) ____________________ give blood its red color.
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Page 17
Chapter 12: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with hyperkalemia.What drug could be given to treat this condition?
A)K-Dur
B)Synthroid
C)Tapazole
D)Kayexalate
Q2) What does NIDDM stand for?
Q3) Remove potassium from body with Kayexalate,diuretics,sodium bicarbonate,intravenous calcium,glucose,and insulin
A)Vitamin deficiencies
B)Malnutrition
C)Obesity
D)Diabetes
E)Hyperkalemia
F)Cystic fibrosis
G)Hypoparathyroidism
Q4) Myxedema is a skin or tissue disorder usually resulting from severe,prolonged hypothyroidism.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 13: Mental, Behavioral, and Neuro developmental Disorders
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohol withdrawal symptoms vary in severity from mild ____________________,____________________ and ____________________ to the worst form of delirium tremens (DTs).
Q2) What drug could be given to treat ADD or ADHD?
A)Dilantin
B)Librium
C)Paxil
D)Ritalin
Q3) Patient presented to the ER requesting detox.Patient had a previous admission for heroin dependence 2 years ago.Patient used about $50 per day and occasionally smoked cocaine.Patient is unemployed.Patient was admitted,and the detoxification protocol was implemented.The patient did experience some mild withdrawal symptoms.The patient was discharged after 3 days and was instructed to attend 90 NA meetings in 90 days and to find a sponsor.Discharge Diagnosis: Heroin dependence with withdrawal.Cocaine abuse.
A)F11.21,F14.120,HZ5DZZZ
B)F11.20,F14.14,Z56.0,HZ91ZZZ
C)F11.229,F14.10,HZ2ZZZ
D)F11.23,F14.10,Z56.0,HZ2ZZZZ
Q4) Major depressive disorder,recurrent,moderate: __________
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Chapter
Eye and Adnexa,and Diseases of the Ear and Mastoid Process
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are sent from the somatic nervous system to the central nervous system?
A)Taste
B)Hearing
C)Smell
D)All of the above
Q2) Arcus senilis of the left eye: __________
Q3) Pseudohole of the macula of the right eye: __________
Q4) Patient is admitted for a spinal fusion at L2-L3.For many years,the patient has suffered from chronic back pain secondary to a herniated disc at L2-L3,which was completely removed during the fusion.The physician performed an XLIF procedure with the insertion of an interbody fusion device.This procedure was performed via open approach.
A)R52,M51.26,0SG033J,0SB23ZZ
B)M51.26,R52,0SG0031,0SB20ZZ
C)R52,M51.26,0SG0001,0SB20ZZ
D)M51.26,0SG00A0,0ST20ZZ
Q5) Meningitis due to Klebsiella: __________
Q6) A(n) ____________________ is a device that is used to treat intractable Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 15: Diseases of the Circulatory System
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient presents with left carotid artery thrombosis with infarct and current right hemiparesis.Patient has residual aphasia from a previous stroke.
A)I69.854,I63.032,I69.320
B)I63.032,I69.032,I69.320
C)I63.032,G81.91,I69.320
D)I69.320,G81.90,I69.854
Q2) Disorder of the muscle of the heart chambers that impedes the functioning of the heart
A)Transient ischemic attack
B)Atherosclerosis
C)Aneurysm
D)Pericarditis
E)Endocarditis
F)Cardiomyopathy
G)Conduction disorder
H)Diagnostic cardiac catheterization
Q3) The time limit for assigning the acute MI in ICD-10-CM is 28 days.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prinzmetal angina: __________
Page 22
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Chapter 16: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient admitted with pneumonia and large right pleural effusion requiring therapeutic thoracentesis of right pleural cavity.
A)J18.9,J90,0W993ZZ
B)J91.0,J18.9,0W993ZX
C)J18.1,J90,0W9B3ZZ
D)J18.0,J91.0,0W9B3ZX
Q2) A diagnostic endoscopic procedure in which a tiny camera on the end of the endoscope is inserted through the nose or mouth into the lungs is called a ____.
A)bronchoscopy
B)lungoscopy
C)thoracostomy
D)mastectomy
Q3) Retropharyngeal abscess: __________
Q4) Cork handlers' disease: __________
Q5) Laryngeal spasm: __________
Q6) It is inappropriate for coders to assume a causal organism based on laboratory or radiology findings alone.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 17: Diseases of the Digestive System
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an ulcer (such as of the stomach or intestine)?
Q2) Patient with malignant neoplasm of the descending colon is admitted for open left hemicolectomy and temporary transverse colostomy.
A)C18.6,0DTG0ZZ,0D1L0Z4
B)Z43.3,C18.6,0DTG0ZZ,0D1M0Z4
C)C18.6,Z43.3,0DTG0ZZ
D)C18.6,0D1L0Z4
Q3) What are diverticula?
Q4) Ostomies are surgically created openings into the body.Enterostomies and colostomies are created to discharge waste products from the body.
A)Both statements are true
B)Both statements are false
C)The first statement is true;the second is false
D)The first statement is false;the second is true
Q5) Postgastrectomy diarrhea: __________
Q6) Assign the code for hematemesis: __________
Q7) Lingua villosa nigra: __________
Q8) What happens to food once it arrives in the stomach?
Q9) Diverticulosis: __________
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Chapter 18: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ulcer known as a bed sore
A)Decubitus ulcer
B)Skin ulcers
C)Cellulitis
D)Stasis ulcer
E)Stasis dermatitis
F)Intertriginous dermatitis
G)Gangrene
H)Hives
I)Dermatitis
Q2) A patient comes to the ER with a crusty,itchy rash.The diagnosis is impetigo of the legs with cellulitis.The patient is admitted to treat the cellulitis.
A)L03.115,L03.116,L01.00
B)L01.00,L031.19
C)L03.113,L01.00
D)L03.125,L01.00
Q3) Exfoliative dermatitis: __________
Q4) What are two accessory organs of the integumentary system?
Q5) What is an abscess of the skin?
Q6) Dermatitis from gold ring: __________
Page 25
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcification of lumbar disc: __________
Q2) What is the purpose of the musculoskeletal system?
Q3) Toward the tail
A)Medial
B)Cranial
C)Ventral
D)Superior
E)Caudal
F)Dorsal
G)Lateral
Q4) Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone that often starts in another part of the body and is spread by the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What drug could be given to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
A)Boniva
B)Fosamax
C)Celebrex
D)Calcium
Q6) Chondromalacia of the left patella: __________ Page 26
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Genitourinary System
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer of the prostate with radical prostatectomy (including bilateral seminal vesicles) with bilateral regional pelvic lymphadenectomy (diagnostic sampling).
A)D29.1,0VT00ZZ,0VT30ZZ,07BC0ZZ
B)D29.8,0VT04ZZ,0VTC4ZZ,07BC4ZZ
C)C63.7,0VT04ZZ,0VTC4ZZ,07BC4ZX
D)C61,0VT00ZZ,0VT30ZZ,07BC0ZX
Q2) Patient was seen in the clinic with hematuria.A diagnosis of acute cystitis was made.
A)N30.00
B)N30.01
C)N30.90
D)N30.91
Q3) List one reason a breast biopsy would be performed.
Q4) Acute kidney injury (nontraumatic): __________
Q5) Priapism: __________
Q6) ____________________ is an inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidneys.It can be a temporary,reversible,or chronic progressive condition,resulting in chronic renal failure and end-stage renal disease.
Q7) Benign hyperplasia of the prostate with nocturia times three: __________
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Chapter 21: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium
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56 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molar pregnancies occur in 1 in ____ pregnancies.
A)5
B)100
C)500
D)1000
Q2) Lupus nephritis in second trimester of pregnancy (20 weeks): __________
Q3) A pregnant woman at 39 weeks presents to the hospital for delivery of known quadruplets.She is taken to the operating room for a cesarean section (LTCS).As the babies are delivered,it is discovered that one has died in utero.
A)O30.203,O36.4xx0,Z3A.39,Z37.62,1ODOOZ1
B)O30.209,O36.4,Z3A.39,Z37.52,1ODOOZ1
C)O30.203,O36.4xx1,Z3A.39,Z37.52,1ODOOZ1
D)O30.209,O36.4xx,Z3A.39,Z37.62,1ODOOZ1
Q4) Mother with mastitis due to nursing.Delivered 8 days ago: __________
Q5) Acute gonococcal cervicitis in the second trimester of pregnancy (26 weeks):
Q6) What happens in a molar pregnancy?
Q7) What is the Index term if the condition is affecting the pregnancy?
Q8) Missed abortion: __________
Q9) What does postpartum mean?
Page 29
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Chapter 22: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal
Period and Congenital Malformations, deformations, and
Chromosomal Abnormalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is born via vaginal delivery with intrauterine growth retardation.The baby is premature being born at 33 2/7 weeks and weighing 1800 grams.Meconium aspiration is noted at delivery.Jaundice due to prematurity which was treated with phototherapy,single session.
A)Z38.00,P05.9,P24.01,P59.0,6A600ZZ
B)Z38.00,P07.17,P07.36,P24.00,P59.0,6A600ZZ
C)Z37.0,P05.9,P07.35,P24.00,P59.0,6A600ZZ
D)Z37.0,P07.36,P24.00,P59.0,6A600ZZ
Q2) A baby is born via C-section.Apgars are 5 at 1 minute and 7 at 5 minutes.Because of the mother's fever during labor,sepsis workup is performed.Antibiotics are discontinued when cultures return negative.What codes are applicable? __________
Q3) Vaginal delivery at term of baby with fracture right clavicle due to birth injury:
Q4) What is a congenital anomaly?
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a congenital condition?
A)Marfan syndrome
B)Down syndrome
C)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
D)Klinefelter's syndrome
Page 31
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Chapter 23: Injuries and Certain Other Consequences of
External Cases and External Causes of Morbidity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Injury to spleen with massive parenchymal disruption (major laceration) and a total splenectomy (open) was performed,initial encounter: __________
Q2) A ____ is an injury to a muscle or a tendon.
A)dislocation
B)subluxation
C)sprain
D)strain
Q3) In ICD-10-CM,if a fracture is not specified,it is coded to nondisplaced.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A break in a bone is called a(n) ____________________.
Q5) Open dislocation (open wound),right acromioclavicular joint;initial encounter:
Q6) The patient sustained a contusion and severe sprain of left ankle after falling into a hole while hiking in the mountains while on vacation.
A)S93.401D,W17.2xxD,Y92.828
B)S93.401A,W17.2xxD,Y92.828,Y93.01,Y99.8
C)S93.402D,W17.2xxD,Y92.828,Y93.01,Y99.8
D)S93.402A,W17.2xxA,Y92.828,Y93.01,Y99.8
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Chapter 24: Burns, adverse Effects, and Poisonings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Are healthcare providers required to report suspicion of abuse to the authorities?
Q2) External cause code(s) are never used to identify the cause and intent of the injury or poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Personal history of allergy to medicinal agents-other specified medicinal agents
A)Z69.020
B)Z88.8
C)Z91.030
D)Z88.7
E)Z91.010
F)Z91.89
G)Z91.011
H)Z91.410
Q4) Active treatment of non-healing second-degree burn to right forearm due to hot iron while ironing (accidental): __________
Q5) First- and second-degree burn of face due to gas flame from stove in kitchen at patient's house while cooking: __________
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Chapter 25: Complications of Surgical and Medical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pneumonitis due to organism growing in ventilation (air conditioning) system:
Q2) How often are code Z94.0 and a T86.1- code used together?
Q3) Patient had an outpatient ERCP for extraction of a common bile duct stone.The patient developed acute abdominal pain and was admitted to rule out post ERCP pancreatitis.Impression: Post ERCP pancreatitis.
A)K91.89,K80.50,K85.9,Y83.8,0FC98ZZ
B)K86.1,K80.51,K91.89,Y83.9,0FC98ZZ
C)K85.1,K80.60,Y84.9,0F998ZZ
D)K85.9,K80.61,Y84.8,0F798ZZ
Q4) A patient had a kidney transplant 2 years ago but developed ESRD again due to transplant failure.The patient has been on dialysis for the past year.The patient is now complaining of SOB and edema and is admitted for fluid overload and hemodialysis.Dialysis is performed multiple times during this stay.
A)E87.70,T86.12,N18.6,Z99.2,Y83.0,5A1D60Z
B)N18.6,Z99.2,Z94.0,E87.70,3E1M39Z
C)N18.6,T86.12,Z99.2,Y83.0,5A1D60Z
D)E87.70,Z99.2,N18.6,Z94.0,5A1D60Z
Q5) Mechanical complications are related to ____________________ malfunctions.
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Chapter 26: Reimbursement Methodologies
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42625
Sample Questions
Q1) Medicare is responsible for more than ___% of patients.
Q2) The ____________________ Act was responsible for the establishment of the Medicare program.
Q3) All of the following are TRUE of the individual hospital payment rate EXCEPT _____.
A)a regional- or national-adjusted standardized amount that considers type of hospital affects payment
B)the individual hospital payment rate never changes
C)whether the hospital is designated as a large urban or a rural hospital is a factor in payment
D)the wage index for the geographic area where the hospital is located is a factor in payment
Q4) A number that designates a particular service or procedure and is used to generate a charge on a patient bill is called a ____.
A)chargemaster
B)charge description number
C)department number
D)revenue code
Q5) How do you calculate case-mix index?
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Chapter 27: Out patient Coding
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42626
Sample Questions
Q1) Patient had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis (gallbladder) in the ambulatory surgery suite.In the recovery room,the patient is found to have atrial fibrillation,and the surgeon decides to admit the patient for observation: __________
Q2) Pregnant with history of infertility,first trimester
A)Z33.1
B)O09.01
C)Z30.431
D)Z00.129
E)Z04.41
F)Z01.811
Q3) A patient goes to see the doctor with complaints of weight gain and decreased libido.The physician performs lab work and asks the patient to return in 2 weeks for a probable diagnosis of hypothyroidism: __________
Q4) Which of the following are viewed as outpatient settings?
A)The doctor's office
B)Ambulatory surgery
C)The ER
D)An observation unit
E)All of the above f.Options a,b,and c
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