Healthcare Assistant Clinical Practice
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Healthcare Assistant Clinical Practice is designed to equip students with the practical skills and knowledge necessary to provide high-quality care in a variety of healthcare settings. This course covers essential topics such as patient hygiene, mobility support, basic clinical procedures, infection control, effective communication, and documentation. Through hands-on clinical experiences and supervised placements, students learn to work collaboratively within multidisciplinary healthcare teams, prioritize patient safety, and deliver compassionate, person-centered care. By the end of the course, participants are prepared to support registered healthcare professionals and contribute to the overall wellbeing of patients in hospitals, care homes, and community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 8th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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Chapter 1: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the tab on a file folder is to
A) Hold documents in place in the folder
B) Identify the contents of the folder
C) Prevent the folder from being misfiled
D) Keep the folder closed when not in use
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a correct example for recording the chief complaint?
A) "Complains of pain in the left shoulder."
B) "The patient does not feel well today."
C) "Burning in the chest and coughing for the past 2 days."
D) "Otitis media that began following a cold."
Answer: C
Q3) With reverse chronological order, the most recent document is
A) Filed alphabetically
B) Filed by subject title
C) Placed in front of the other documents
D) Placed in back of the other documents
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most likely means of contracting hepatitis B in the health care setting is through
A) Contaminated food and water
B) Needlesticks and blood splashes
C) Handling contaminated equipment
D) Touching a patient infected with hepatitis B
Answer: B
Q2) What term is used to describe a physical or mechanical device used to remove health hazards from the workplace?
A) Engineering control
B) Work practice control
C) Personal protective equipment
D) Universal precaution
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following are advantages of alcohol-based hand rubs except
A) They do not require rinsing
B) Less time is required to perform hand hygiene
C) They remove all resident flora from the skin
D) They contain emollients to prevent drying of the hands
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sterilization methods is often used by medical manufacturers to sterilize disposable items?
A) Cold sterilization
B) Dry heat oven
C) Ethylene oxide gas
D) Autoclave
Answer: C
Q2) Dry heat is preferred for sterilizing
A) Disposable syringes
B) Vaginal specula
C) Flexible sigmoidoscopes
D) Instruments with sharp cutting edges
Answer: D
Q3) What is the term for an agent that kills disease-producing microorganisms and that usually is applied to inanimate objects?
A) Disinfectant
B) Antiseptic
C) Fungicide
D) Detergent
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms describes an abnormally fast pulse rate?
A) Tachypnea
B) Bounding
C) Tachycardia
D) Bradycardia
Q2) The axilla is recommended as the preferred site for taking the temperature of
A) An infant
B) A preschooler
C) An adult
D) An uncooperative patient
Q3) During exhalation
A) Oxygen is taken into the lungs
B) The diaphragm descends
C) The lungs expand
D) Carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs
Q4) Pulse oximetry provides the physician with information on
A) The rate and depth of respiration
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) The amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues
D) Circulation to the extremities
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Chapter 5: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane?
A) Otoscope
B) Ophthalmoscope
C) Stethoscope
D) Laryngoscope
Q2) How should a patient be identified?
A) By phone number and address
B) By hair and eye color
C) By SSN
D) By name and date of birth
Q3) All of the following are a curvature of the vertebral column except
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Coccyx
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Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impacted cerumen can be softened by
A) Irrigating the ear with an antiseptic solution
B) Inserting a moistened cotton-tipped applicator into the ear
C) Instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear
D) Placing a heating pad next to the ear
Q2) How much time should the patient be given to identify the number on each Ishihara color plate?
A) 3 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 1 minute
D) As long as is needed
Q3) The outer layer of the eye, composed of tough, white, fibrous connective tissue, is the A) Sclera
B) Cornea
C) Choroid
D) Conjunctiva
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8
Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the crutch stance that is used before crutch walking?
A) Two-point position
B) Quad position
C) Four-point position
D) Tripod position
Q2) Chemical cold packs should be stored
A) At body temperature
B) At room temperature
C) In the refrigerator
D) In an airtight container
Q3) Canes are used most frequently for individuals with
A) An amputated lower extremity
B) Weakness on one side of the body
C) Poor muscular coordination
D) Paralysis of the lower extremities
Q4) Which of the following gaits is the most stable and slowest crutch gait?
A) Two-point
B) Four-point
C) Three-point
D) Swing-through
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Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obstetric ultrasound is used to
A) Detect ectopic pregnancy
B) Determine gestational age
C) Detect the presence of multiple fetuses
D) Determine the position of the placenta
E) All of the above
Q2) The purpose of the prenatal record is to
A) Provide information on the past health status of the patient
B) Identify high-risk patients
C) Provide information on the present health status of the patient
D) Serve as a flow sheet for prenatal visits
E) All of the above
Q3) The purpose of the maturation index is to
A) Provide the physician with an endocrine evaluation
B) Diagnose pregnancy
C) Determine the presence of a vaginal infection
D) Detect a precancerous condition of the cervix
E) All of the above
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Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following immunizations can be administered to a newborn?
A) Hepatitis B
B) DTaP
C) Polio
D) MMR
Q2) What term is used for a suspension of attenuated or killed microorganisms that stimulate antibody production in an individual?
A) Toxoid
B) Antiserum
C) Antitoxin
D) Vaccine
Q3) Measuring pediatric blood pressure helps to identify children at risk for developing
A) Hypertension
B) Type 2 diabetes
C) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
D) Heart disease
E) All of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laser mole surgery is used to remove
A) Raised moles
B) Small or flat moles
C) Dysplastic nevi
D) Melanoma
Q2) Which of the following is not a postoperative instruction for cryosurgery?
A) Normal activity can be resumed the day after surgery.
B) Abstain from intercourse for 2 to 3 weeks after the procedure.
C) A clear, watery vaginal discharge may occur for 2 to 4 weeks.
D) Use tampons to absorb drainage.
Q3) What is the first line of defense of the body?
A) Mucous membranes
B) Skin
C) Acidic secretions of the stomach
D) White blood cells
Q4) The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is to
A) Provide comfort and warmth
B) Provide a sterile area around the operative site
C) Prevent the patient from observing the operative site
D) Protect the patient's clothing from blood and other secretions
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Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name given to an adverse reaction that is harmless and often tolerated by the patient to obtain the therapeutic effect of the drug?
A) Idiosyncratic effect
B) Side effect
C) Contraindication
D) Warning
Q2) Which of the following helps to reduce the pain of an IM injection?
A) Telling the patient to breathe deeply
B) Inserting the needle quickly into the patient's skin
C) Holding the needle steady after inserting it
D) Withdrawing the needle at the same angle as that used for insertion
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not a reason for administering medication intravenously?
A) To achieve a rapid systemic effect
B) The patient is allergic to the oral form of the medication.
C) The medication is painful or irritating when given by other routes.
D) The medication is destroyed by digestive enzymes.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deficiency, blockage
A)ather/o
B)cardio/o
C)electr/o
D)-emia
E)-gram
F)-graph
G)hypoH)-ia
I)isch/o
J)-meter
K)-metry
L)ox/i
M)-sclerosis
N)spir/o
Q2) All of the following may result in muscle artifacts except
A) Patient discomfort
B) An apprehensive patient
C) Electrodes that have come loose
D) Patient coughing or talking
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are risk factors for testicular cancer except
A) Family history of testicular cancer
B) Undescended testicles
C) Being an African American male
D) Cancer of the other testicle
Q2) What is the appearance of stool exhibiting melena?
A) Dry and hard
B) Black and tarlike
C) Streaked with blood
D) Streaked with mucus
Q3) The function of the prostate gland is to
A) Store sperm
B) Secrete fluid that transports sperm
C) Secrete testosterone
D) Produce sperm
Q4) What is occult blood?
A) Less than 5 ml of blood in the stool
B) Digested blood
C) Blood that is not visible
D) Visible red blood
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Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnetic resonance imaging is used to assist in the diagnosis of A) Spinal lesions
B) Cardiovascular abnormalities
C) Herniated disks
D) Joint diseases
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of magnetic resonance imaging?
A) It is safe and painless.
B) The patient must remove all metal before the procedure.
C) The patient must remain still during the procedure.
D) The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure.
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of digital radiology?
A) Images can be taken and viewed immediately.
B) Images can be sent electronically to a network of computers.
C) The images can be saved on a CD or DVD.
D) Higher-quality images are produced.
E) All of the above
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16
Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of patient preparation for a laboratory test is to
A) Reduce patient discomfort during specimen collection
B) Provide a specimen that yields accurate test results
C) Ensure that the test results fall within the normal range
D) Ensure that the patient receives the proper treatment
Q2) Which of the following is not found in a laboratory directory?
A) Names and CPT codes of the tests performed by the laboratory
B) Patient preparation required for laboratory tests
C) Amount and type of specimen required by the laboratory
D) Instructions for testing specimens
E) Handling and storage of laboratory specimens
Q3) How are laboratory reports delivered to the medical office?
A) Faxed
B) Mailed
C) Hand-delivered by a laboratory courier
D) Electronically
E) All of the above
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Chapter 16: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does concentrated urine have on red blood cells?
A) It causes them to swell and become rounded.
B) It has no effect on them.
C) It causes them to shrink and become crenated.
D) It causes them to develop hypochromia.
Q2) Scanty, few
A)an-
B)bilirubin/o
C)dys-
D)glyc/o
E)hemat/o
F)keton/o
G)noct/i
H)olig/o
I)-osis
J)poly
K)py/o
L)ur/o
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Chapter 17: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before
A)ante-
B)anti-
C)chondr/o
D)hemat/o
E)-itis
F)lysis
G)myel/o
H)-oma
I)oste/o
J)-otomy
K)-ous
L)phleb/o
M)stasis
Q2) An evacuated tube with a red stopper contains
A) Heparin
B) EDTA
C) Nothing
D) Potassium oxalate
E) Sodium citrate
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abnormal condition
A)anis/o
B)chrom/o
C)cyt/o
D)hem/o
E)hypo-
F)leuk/o
G)-lysis
H)macr/o
I)micro-
J)-osis
K)-penia
L)phag/o
Q2) The plasma functions in
A) Transporting electrolytes needed by the cells
B) Transporting nutrients to the tissues
C) Picking up wastes from the tissues
D) Transporting antibodies, enzymes, and hormones
E) All of the above
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a risk factor for coronary artery disease?
A) LDL cholesterol level of 90 mg/dL
B) HDL cholesterol level of 25 mg/dL
C) Triglyceride level of 140 mg/dL
D) Low blood pressure
Q2) Before meals, it is recommended that the blood glucose level for a diabetic patient fall between
A) 60 to 80 mg/dL
B) 80 to 120 mg/dL
C) 100 to 140 mg/dL
D) 100 to 180 mg/dL
Q3) Patient preparation instructions for a triglyceride test include which of the following?
A) Follow a normal diet for 7 days before the test.
B) Do not consume alcohol for 24 hours before the test.
C) Do not eat or drink (except for water) for 12 hours before the test.
D) Do not consume lipid-lowering medications before the test.
E) All of the above
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Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The period of time in which the first symptoms indicating an approaching disease occur is known as the
A) Convalescent period
B) Acute period
C) Prodromal period
D) Symptomatic
Q2) What is a culture?
A) A mixture of nutrients on which microorganisms are grown in the laboratory
B) A small sample taken to show the nature of the whole
C) Material spread on a slide for microscopic examination
D) A mass of microorganisms growing in a laboratory culture medium
Q3) Which of the following could result in the medical assistant becoming infected with a pathogen?
A) Eating while testing a microbiologic specimen
B) Licking a label for a specimen container
C) Having an open sore on the hand
D) Drinking coffee in the office laboratory
E) All of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what type of fracture is the bone splintered or shattered into three or more fragments?
A) Spiral
B) Comminuted
C) Open
D) Oblique
Q2) In what type of seizure is the abnormal electrical activity localized to very specific areas of the brain?
A) Tonic-clonic
B) Partial
C) Generalized
D) Status epilepticus
Q3) Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack?
A) Sudden weakness on one side of the body
B) Chest pain
C) Shortness of breath
D) Nausea
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