Healthcare Administration Law Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Healthcare Administration Law explores the legal framework governing healthcare organizations and the administration of healthcare services. The course covers essential topics such as healthcare statutes and regulations, patient rights and confidentiality (including HIPAA), malpractice and liability, labor and employment issues, healthcare fraud and abuse laws, and the role of regulatory agencies. Students will analyze case studies to understand how legal principles impact decision-making in hospital administration, compliance protocols, policy development, and interactions with patients and staff. Emphasis is placed on developing practical skills for identifying and addressing legal risks in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 3rd Edition by Dana C. McWay
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30 Chapters
838 Verified Questions
838 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tort law is followed in _____ law cases.
A)civil
B)criminal
C)public
D)uncommon
Answer: A
Q2) Criminal law is subdivided into _____ categories.
A)felony and misdemeanor
B)ordinal and substantive
C)procedural and administrative
D)substantive and procedural
Answer: D
Q3) The phrase conflict of laws originated from situations where:
A)a competent authority, such as a legislature, establishes legal rules.
B)differing jurisdictions were inconsistent about the same legal issue.
C)excessive fines and excessive bail were imposed by judges.
D)judgements passed by some judges became another significant source of law.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stare decisis is Latin for:
A)a matter [already] judged.
B)let the master answer.
C)to let the decision stand.
D)utmost good faith.
Answer: C
Q2) Which source of law is considered the fundamental law of a nation or state?
A)administrative regulations
B)constitution
C)judicial decisions
D)statutes
Answer: B
Q3) The Administrative Procedure Act (APA) governs the way in which administrative agencies of the _____ government may propose and establish regulations.
A)county
B)federal
C)municipal
D)state
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is associated with satisfying the judgment?
A)Alternative dispute resolution
B)Authority by which courts decide a case
C)Diversity jurisdiction
D)When the winning party is paid
Answer: D
Q2) The written document that describes the grounds of jurisdiction, plaintiff's claim, and demand for relief is called the _____.
A)appeal
B)complaint
C)decision
D)interrogatory
Answer: B
Q3) Which statement is true of a supreme court, except in New York State?
A)The supreme court is a court of last resort.
B)Any party dissatisfied with a decision may take their course to the supreme court.
C)The supreme court must hear any case requested.
D)Supreme court judges are nominated and confirmed by Congress.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The person who initiates a lawsuit is the _____.
A)court clerk
B)defendant
C)judge
D)plaintiff
Q2) The stages through which a lawsuit passes is called the _____ process.
A)appeal
B)complaint
C)interrogatory
D)legal
Q3) The person being sued is called the _____.
A)court clerk
B)defendant
C)judge
D)plaintiff
Q4) An order of preservation results in which of the following?
A)Alteration of evidence
B)Failure to protect data
C)Preservation of electronic data
D)Wrongful destruction of data
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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) An approved method to challenge the validity of a subpoena duces tecum called a
A)litigation hold
B)motion to quash
C)order to deny
D)response to interrogation
Q2) A litigation response plan is a _____.
A)motion to quash
B)subpoena commanding the testimony of a witness
C)subpoena duces tecum commanding the production of documents
D)tool consisting of policies and procedures that addresses how to respond to the legal process requests
Q3) A court order is signed by the _____.
A)court clerk
B)defendant's attorney
C)judge
D)plaintiff's attorney
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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information: Part A
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Q1) A subpoena duces tecum _____.
A)directs a person to appear and explain why the court should not take a proposed action.
B)authorizes disclosure that would otherwise be prohibited by statute and regulation.
C)commands the appearance of a witness to provide testimony during a trial.
D)requires production of a particular record and testimony as to its authenticity.
Q2) Which legal use of health care information directly impacts patient care?
A)Billing for care provided to a patient
B)Confirmation of blood alcohol level
C)Establishing standards of care
D)Evidence in civil actions
Q3) Authorization forms signed by the patient for the release of _____ information must specifically authorize the release of this category of information.
A)HIV and AIDS
B)mental health
C)substance abuse
D)all of these
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8
Chapter 4: Principles of Liability
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respondeat superior is associated with _____.
A)comparative negligence
B)corporate liability
C)professional negligence
D)vicarious liability
Q2) A statute of limitations is _____.
A)a fixed time period in which a lawsuit must be brought
B)designed to protect the provider from lengthy legal actions
C)established to expire upon the patient's age of majority
D)prevention of a parent from suing for a birth injury
Q3) Publishing something in the newspaper that leads other to ridicule a person or diminish esteem and respect for that person is called _____.
A)assault
B)battery
C)libel
D)slander
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Chapter 4: Principles of Liability: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which relationship begins with the credentialing process?
A)hospital-patient
B)hospital-physician
C)patient-physician
D)physician-patient
Q2) Respondent superior is a(n) _____ tort.
A)contractual
B)intentional
C)negligent
D)nonintentional
Q3) A physician-patient relationship:
A)applies only to physicians.
B)begins with a patient requesting treatment.
C)commences when the physician undergoes credentialing.
D)starts when the patient becomes ill or injured.
Q4) Assault is an intentional tort that is defined as a(n):
A)nonintentional tort as well as a nonintentional tort.
B)physical contact involving injury or offense.
C)physician exceeding consent given by the patient.
D)threat that does not involve physical contact.
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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When comparing ethics with etiquette, laws, morals, and values, ethics are based on
A)Legislation
B)Philosophy
C)Religion
D)Society
Q2) Under distributive justice, the willingness to comply with instruction or medical advice is best described as _____.
A)Compliance
B)Cooperation
C)Effort
D)Obedience
Q3) Nonmaleficence is defined as _____.
A)including the qualities of kindness, mercy, and charity
B)needing someone to decide for an individual who cannot decide for himself
C)recognizing that ethical choices may result in adverse outcomes
D)the prohibition against doing harm and an obligation to maximize the good
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11
Chapter 5: Ethical Standards: Part A
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Q1) The obligation to maintain patient privacy is called _____.
A)confidentiality
B)consequentialism
C)privacy
D)principle of double-effect
Q2) Morals are _____.
A)knowing the difference between right and wrong, which involve listening to one's conscience
B)principles or fundamental standards of right conduct, which are internalized by each individual
C)hallmarks of autonomy, which include a sense of independence, self-determination, and freedom
D)ways in which humans interact with each other in specific circumstances, which include a code of customs
Q3) The double-effect principle refers to _____.
A)faithfulness, loyalty, and devotion to one's duties in an incompetent person
B)obligations to be fair to all people and includes fairness, honesty, impartiality
C)mentally challenged individuals or those who were once competent
D)recognizing that ethical choices may result in adverse outcomes
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Page 12
Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges
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Q1) The ethical role of a supervisor involves _____.
A)Just her own conduct and behavior on the job, even if hostile
B)Never publicly admitting to her own mistakes if he is incorrect
C)Presuming that employees bear responsibility for their own behavior
D)Serving as a role model to employees and others in an organization
Q2) A written list of a profession's values and standards of conduct would best be described as the _____.
A)Bylaws
B)Code of ethics
C)Rules and regulations
D)Statutes
Q3) Conflicts of interest that appear to be inappropriate but do no harm are described as _____.
A)actual
B)advancements
C)paternal
D)potential
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13
Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which requires healthcare providers to inform patients about the law and their right to make advance decisions concerning health care?
A)AHA
B)ARRA
C)HIPAA
D)PSDA
Q2) The first step in ethical decision making is to:
A)act as a role model
B)clearly define the issue
C)develop a course of action
D)establish a follow-up plan.
Q3) Which is the group formed within an organization or profession to evaluate current guidelines and establish new guidelines?
A)Credentials committee
B)Ethics committee
C)Patient rights committee
D)Safety committee
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Page 14
Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Roe vs.Wade decided that:
A)Abortion may only be performed when the patient was subject to rape or incest
B)Miscarriages that result in abortion are not be permitted in the third trimester
C)Restricting abortion impaired a woman's personal liberty and right to privacy
D)The embryo is entitled to legal protection regardless of the mother's condition
Q2) The study of ethical issues resulting from technologic and scientific advances is called _____.
A)Bioethics
B)Eugenics
C)Medical technology
D)Scientific method
Q3) Nonhuman and animal tissues used for transplant _____.
A)Are not compatible with human transplantation of any form
B)Have an effective long-term use, regardless of type
C)Provide additional time until a suitable allograft is available
D)Usually result in automatic rejection of transplanted tissue
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15
Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues: Part A
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Q1) The use of animal tissue for organ transplants is called a(n) _____.
A)allograft
B)autograft
C)heterograft
D)homograft
Q2) In 2008, the U.S.Congress passed _____ legislation that protects the confidentiality of genetic information?
A)ARRA
B)EMTALA
C)GINA
D)PSDA
Q3) Which is the general term for documents that includes instructions describing the type of health care the patient wishes to receive or not receive if s/he becomes incapacitated?
A)advance directive
B)enduring power of attorney
C)equal dignity rule
D)power of attorney
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16
Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Federal and state statutes (laws) that directly impact the quality of the health record include requirements about _____.
A)Documenting content
B)Filing claims on time
C)Justifying staffing needs
D)Transitioning to an EHR
Q2) Authorship of a health record entry may be complicated by _____.
A)Allowing the user to copy and paste, possibly into the wrong record
B)Authenticating the identification of the person making the entry
C)Taking care not to repeat entries that are no longer acceptable
D)The patient's right to alter or delete unsatisfactory entries
Q3) When a health care facility files for bankruptcy and closes, a _____ is appointed to make decisions for the bankrupt health care provider.
A)Case trustee
B)Federal agency
C)Licensing authority
D)Third-party payer
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Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health care providers and health information management professionals consider the needs of continuing patient care, education and research, defense against liability lawsuits, storage constraints, available technology, and fiscal concerns when developing _____ policies.
A)chart completion and deficiency analysis
B)enterprise content and record management
C)quality management and utilization review
D)record retention and record destruction
Q2) Which is an example of personal information associated with the health record?
A)Alcohol, tobacco, and work history
B)Demographic data, such as address
C)Test results and operative reports
D)Third-party payer information
Q3) Which is an example of medical information associated with the health record?
A)Alcohol, tobacco, and work history
B)Demographic data, such as address
C)Test results and operative reports
D)Third-party payer information
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Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which scenario is an example of informed consent?
A)A pregnant 21-year-old girl gives her permission to undergo cesarean section delivery
B)A mentally incompetent adult agrees to undergo an elective cholecystectomy
C)An Alzheimer's patient agrees to allow a pacemaker to be implanted
D)An elderly female allows her minister to sign a consent for emergency surgery
Q2) The right to bring a lawsuit for damages related to breach of confidentiality is protected under _____.
A)Common law
B)Constitutional law
C)Privacy law
D)Statutory law
Q3) The health information manager must issue and post the healthcare provider's duties concerning PHI, which is called the _____.
A)Notice of Privacy Practice
B)Privacy and Confidentiality Statement
C)Protected Health Information Rule
D)Treatment, Procedures, Operations Statement
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19
Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent: Part A
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Q1) Which is a requirement of the HIPAA privacy rule?
A)breach of contract
B)disclosure mandate
C)notice of privacy practice
D)redisclosure statement
Q2) Confidentiality and privacy are sometimes used interchangeably, and they have _____ meanings.
A)common law
B)identical
C)separate
D)similar
Q3) Which legislation was enacted to allow patients to create advance directives while competent.
A)FOIA
B)HIPAA
C)PSDA
D)TEFRA
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Chapter 10: Access to Health Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to HIPAA, the _____ has the right to access patient information in the complete medical record.
A)government
B)patient
C)payer
D)transferring facility
Q2) Authority for release of information can be granted by a(n) _____.
A)executor of an estate
B)mentally disabled 18-year-old
C)minor child
D)plaintiff's attorney
Q3) Reporting of public health threats include _____.
A)Breaches of confidentiality
B)Child abuse
C)Domestic violence
D)Terminations of pregnancy
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21
Chapter 10: Access to Health Information: Part A
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Q1) According to HIPAA, someone who performs or assists in performing a function or activity that involves the use or disclosure of individually identifiable health information on behalf of a covered entity is called a _____.
A)business associate
B)healthcare provider
C)medical researcher
D)third-party payer
Q2) A valid authorization to release healthcare information must include a _____, which describes the patient's right to cancel the authorization in writing, the exceptions to cancellation, and the cancellation process.
A)ratification standard
B)reasonable notification
C)redisclosure notice
D)revocation statement
Q3) Which gives patients the right to access their own information.
A)Federal Trade Commission
B)HIPAA privacy rule
C)Privacy Act of 1974
D)U.S.Public Health Service
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Page 22
Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records
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Sample Questions
Q1) Federal regulations about the confidentiality of substance abuse records _____.
A)Differentiate between methadone programs and other substance abuse programs in that methadone programs are not impacted by federal regulations
B)Means that violations of confidentiality regarding substance abuse records are to be reported to the United States Federal Bureau of Investigations
C)Protect substance abuse patients from being more vulnerable for seeking treatment compared with substance abuse patient who do not seek treatment
D)Require a minimum fine of $10,000 for a first offense for breaching the confidentiality of patient substance abuse records plus one year of jail time
Q2) Which federal government official has the power to promulgate rules and regulations?
A)CDC Director
B)DHHS Secretary
C)FDA Chairperson
D)Surgeon General
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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records: Part A
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Q1) Which release of information method requires compliance with HIPAA regulations?
A)court orders
B)medical emergencies
C)research activities
D)written patient authorization
Q2) Breaches of drug and alcohol patient confidentiality are reported to the:
A)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
B)Food and Drug Administration (FDA) if a narcotic is involved.
C)State department of health in which the breaches occurred.
D)US attorney for the district in which the infraction occurred.
Q3) The individuals authorized to document entries in specialized patient records include _____.
A)health information technicians
B)licensed health care professionals
C)medical assistants
D)unit clerks
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Chapter 12: Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quality management is described as a _____.
A)clinical function that seeks to define optimum performance
B)method of assessing individual patients at organizations
C)process of identifying sentinel and other events
D)way of increasing risk to a healthcare organization
Q2) Which is an example of a sentinel event?
A)Expected reaction to administered medications
B)Patient who reports being aware during surgery
C)Recovery following elective open heart surgery
D)Transfer of a patient to a tertiary care facility
Q3) Information regarding the competence and conduct of health care practitioners and providers is _____.
A)does not include actions against a provider's license
B)excludes information regarding malpractice payments
C)maintained by individual states of the United States
D)reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank
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25
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A risk manager would typically have a _____ background.
A)administration
B)billing
C)legal
D)monetary
Q2) Which is the general term for any event or circumstance not consistent with the normal routine operations of the hospital, its staff, or the routine care of a patient?
A)accident
B)error
C)incident
D)situation
Q3) With regard to importance, an incident report is _____.
A)equally significant for defendant's and plaintiff's attorney
B)more significant for defendant's attorney
C)of no significance for either defendant's or plaintiff's attorney
D)significant to the patient who gets a copy of the report
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26
Chapter 13: Information Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under HIPAA, a patient has the right to _____.
A)Alter the original medical record in person
B)Know how his information is being disclosed
C)Receive copies of any records upon request
D)Restrict all disclosures of information
Q2) Permissions granted in an electronic health record system involve _____.
A)Authenticating individual entries made in the EHR
B)Ensuring that people are who they say that they are
C)Levels of access granted to an operating system
D)Preventing malicious attempts to destroy health data
Q3) The patient's legal electronic health record is _____
A)Clearly defined by federal statues and written regulations
B)Defined by each institution with input from its legal counsel
C)Healthcare documentation imported from an R.H.I.O.
D)Information captured from one health care setting to another
Q4) Safeguards established by HIPAA security rules _____.
A)Ensure data integrity by protecting it from unauthorized deletion
B)Limit the availability of healthcare and other data to authorized users
C)Operate within the confines of stricter state legislation and rules
D)Protect confidentiality by allowing all providers to access information
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Chapter 13: Information Systems: Part A
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Q1) When the electronic health record (EHR) is admitted into evidence during a medical malpractice lawsuit means the health record will _____.
A)be used by plaintiff's attorney only in court
B)facilitate credentialing of medical staff physicians
C)improve computerized processes using the EHR
D)serve as proof of the quality of patient care
Q2) Which organization defined the eight core functions of an electronic health record (EHR) that include health information and data, results management, effective communications, clinical decision support, order entry and management, patient support, reporting and population health management, and administrative processes?
A)American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA)
B)Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services (CMS)
C)Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)
D)Institute of Medicine (IOM)
Q3) Providers are authorized to operate and practice medicine _____.
A)accreditation organizations
B)county health departments
C)professional associations
D)state licensing agencies
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Page 28
Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse
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Q1) An ethics-based compliance program conforms to applicable laws through _____ because it is the right thing to do or because a cost-benefit analysis reveals it would be a sound business practice.
A)Efforts to avoid punishment if found guilty of violating standards
B)Law enforcement and prosecution of those suspected of wrongdoing
C)Mandatorily imposed accreditation standards and policies/procedures
D)Voluntary compliance with local, state and federal laws and regulations
Q2) Anti-kickback statutes were enacted to prevent _____.
A)HMO control of health care
B)Overbilling of laboratory services
C)Plaintiffs from filing qui tam actions
D)Remuneration for patient referrals
Q3) The primary responsibility for investigating claims of fraud committed against the military's health insurance programs is the responsibility of the _____.
A)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
B)Defense Criminal Investigative Service
C)DHHS Office of the Inspector General
D)Office of the Surgeon General
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Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse: Part A
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Q1) Match the examples of fraud and abuse with the appropriate type. Charging for procedures that were not performed
A)Abuse
B)Fraud
Q2) Federal and state government health programs and third-party payers lose _____ of dollars annually due to intentional fraudulent actions and poor coding practices.
A)billions
B)millions
C)thousands
D)trillions
Q3) Which software technology is most commonly associated with combating fraud and abuse?
A)automated coding software
B)electronic health record
C)programming languages
D)statistical analysis software
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Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace
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Q1) Which are employed by a service firm and assigned to work at a business or an organization?
A)Independent contractors
B)Leased employees
C)Permanent employees
D)Temporary employees
Q2) A business or organization has the least control over the work product prepared by _____.
A)Independent contractors
B)Leased employees
C)Permanent employees
D)Temporary employees
Q3) Incorporating ethics into an employee's performance evaluation _____.
A)Encourages the employee to treat others with respect
B)Has little bearing on employee performance
C)Is not appropriate and is, in fact, illegal
D)May adversely affect corporate compliance
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Chapter
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Q1) Which assists the worker or the worker's family in replacing income and provides compensation for medical expenses if there is an injury, illness, or death occurring on the job?
A)Unemployment insurance
B)Workers' compensation
Q2) Match the Federal legislation with its definition
Establishes minimum standards for health and safety of employees.
A)Consumer Credit Protection Act
B)Employee Retirement Income Security Act
C)Federal Labor Standards Act
D)Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
E)Occupational Safety and Health Act
Q3) Match the type of employee with its definition.
Someone designated by laws as being subject to tax withholding requirements imposed on employers but who otherwise is not an employee.
A)Independent contractor
B)Leased employee
C)Regular employee
D)Statutory employee
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