Health Sciences
Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological, behavioral, and social aspects of health, disease, and healthcare systems. This course introduces students to fundamental concepts in anatomy, physiology, public health, epidemiology, health promotion, and healthcare delivery. Emphasizing evidence-based practices, students will develop an understanding of how individual, environmental, and societal factors impact health outcomes and learn about strategies for disease prevention and management. Through case studies and practical applications, the course prepares students for advanced study or careers in healthcare, research, health policy, or related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2430
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
A) Swelling of the knee
B) Fever
C) Pain in the neck
D) Red rash on the face
Answer: B
Q2) The term prognosis refers to the:
A) period of recovery and return to a normal state.
B) expected outcome of the disease.
C) mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
D) typical collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
Q3) Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
A) an iatrogenic cause of cancer.
B) a preventive measure.
C) a precipitating factor.
D) a predisposing condition.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Iron
Answer: A
Q3) Which two ions are most important for acid-base balance in the body?
A) K+, Na+
B) Cl- and HCO<sub>3</sub>-
C) Ca<sup>++</sup>, Na<sup>+</sup>
D) Na<sup>+</sup>, Cl<sup>-</sup>
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is likely lost before reaching the site of action?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Sublingual
D) Intravenous
Answer: A
Q2) Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify:
A) those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.
B) those typical side effects associated with this drug.
C) the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug.
D) the maximum shelf life of the medication.
Answer: A
Q3) Antagonistic drugs may be used to:
A) increase the effectiveness of selected drugs.
B) prolong the action of a drug.
C) act as an antidote when necessary.
D) speed up the excretion of a drug.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Pain
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
A) It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
B) The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
C) The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
D) The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
Q2) Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as:
A) neuropathic pain.
B) central pain.
C) neurogenic pain.
D) referred pain.
Q3) What is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual takes action?
A) Pain threshold
B) Referred pain
C) Phantom pain
D) Pain tolerance
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6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following EXCEPT:
A) decreased bone density.
B) wasting of skeletal muscle.
C) opportunistic infections.
D) increased leukocyte production.
Q2) A large burn area predisposes to decreased blood pressure because:
A) bleeding occurs under the burn surface.
B) the heart is damaged by toxic materials from the burn.
C) fluid and protein shift out of the blood.
D) vasoconstriction occurs in the burn area.
Q3) An abscess contains:
A) serous exudate.
B) purulent exudate.
C) fibrinous exudate.
D) hemorrhagic exudate.
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Chapter 6: Infection
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?
A) Immunosuppression
B) Bone marrow damage
C) Presence of bacterial infection
D) An allergic or autoimmune reaction
Q2) A bacterial endospore can:
A) also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium.
B) exist in latent form inside a host cell.
C) reproduce very rapidly.
D) survive high temperatures and a dry environment.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe?
A) Capacity for opportunism
B) Production of toxins
C) Ability to mutate
D) Invasive qualities
Q4) A retrovirus such as HIV contains:
A) RNA and enzymes for its conversion.
B) a double strand of DNA.
C) many enzymes to limit budding of new virions.
D) numerous mitochondria.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
A) Active natural
B) Active artificial
C) Passive natural
D) Passive artificial
Q2) An autoimmune disease is:
A) excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.
B) an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.
C) an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.
D) failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.
Q3) A diagnosis of HIV positive means that:
A) the number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased.
B) significant opportunistic infection is present in the body.
C) the individual has AIDS.
D) the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.
Q4) Which of the following are the target cells for HIV?
A) Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes)
B) B lymphocytes
C) Natural killer cells
D) Macrophages
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic effects of acute necrotizing fasciitis include:
A) low-grade fever and malaise.
B) toxic shock and disorientation.
C) mild nausea and vomiting.
D) headache and difficulty breathing.
Q2) Leprosy (Hansen's disease) is caused by:
A) a fungus.
B) a bacterium.
C) a virus.
D) a helminth.
Q3) What causes the pruritus associated with scabies?
A) An allergic reaction to the causative microbe due to endotoxins
B) Mites burrowing into the epidermis and reaction to their feces
C) Bleeding and injected toxin from bites of the larvae
D) Neurotoxins secreted by mites on the skin surface
Q4) Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo.
A) Large, red, painful nodule filled with purulent exudates
B) Small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass
C) Red, swollen, painful areas often with projecting red streaks
D) Firm, raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joints affected by osteoarthritis can sometimes affect healthy joints by:
A) causing enzymes to be released that travel to other joints.
B) bacteria traveling from the affected join to a healthy one through the bloodstream.
C) inflammation and edema affecting the entire limb.
D) the affected individual's exerting stress on the normal joint to protect the damaged one.
Q2) During the fracture healing process, the hematoma:
A) is broken down and absorbed immediately.
B) provides the base for bone cells to produce new bone.
C) is the structure into which granulation tissue grows.
D) produces fibroblasts to lay down new cartilage.
Q3) Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and ligaments and act as additional cushions are called:
A) articular capsules.
B) bursae.
C) synovial sacs.
D) hyaline chambers.
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11
Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can result from a malabsorption problem?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Pernicious anemia
Q2) What are the typical early general signs and symptoms of anemia?
A) Chest pain, palpitations
B) Jaundice, stomatitis
C) Pallor, dyspnea, and fatigue
D) Bradycardia, heat intolerance
Q3) Why is pernicious anemia treated with injections of vitamin B ?
A) An immune reaction in the stomach would destroy the vitamin.
B) Digestive enzymes would destroy the vitamin.
C) The vitamin irritates the gastric mucosa.
D) The ingested vitamin would not be absorbed into the blood.
Q4) Which of the following applies to the etiology of aplastic anemia? It is:
A) idiopathic in many cases.
B) a genetic disorder.
C) predisposed by exposure to myelotoxins.
D) Both A and C.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
A) an increase in resistant microorganisms.
B) an increase in adult obesity.
C) an increase in high cholesterol levels.
D) an increase in HIV infections.
Q2) One of the reasons non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin's lymphomas is that they:
A) tend to be much larger than Hodgkin's lymphomas.
B) involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
C) are not affected by the newer drug treatments.
D) are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV.
Q3) A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is:
A) Castleman disease.
B) hyperlymphatic disease.
C) hypolymphatic disease.
D) Ann Arbor disease.
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13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Effects that may be expected from a beta-adrenergic blocking drug include:
A) increasing systemic vasoconstriction.
B) decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C) blockage of an angiotensin receptor site.
D) increased release of renin.
Q2) Which factor predisposes to varicose veins during pregnancy?
A) Compressed pelvic veins
B) Stenotic valves in leg veins
C) Thrombus formation
D) Insufficient muscle support for veins
Q3) Rheumatic heart disease usually manifests in later years as:
A) swollen heart valves and fever.
B) cardiac arrhythmias and heart murmurs.
C) thrombus formation and septic emboli.
D) petechial hemorrhages of the skin and mucosa.
Q4) The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:
A) preventing an excessively rapid heart rate.
B) limiting the time for a myocardial contraction.
C) allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria.
D) completing ventricular filling.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are significant signs of bronchiectasis?
A) Persistent nonproductive cough, dyspnea, and fatigue
B) Persistent purulent nasal discharge, fever, and cough
C) Chronic cough, producing large quantities of purulent sputum
D) Wheezing and stridor
Q2) Which of the following distinguishes influenza from infectious rhinitis?
A) Influenza is a viral infection.
B) Treatment is symptomatic
C) Influenza has a sudden onset with fever, marked muscle aching, and severe malaise.
D) Complications can occur with influenza.
Q3) Rust-colored sputum in a patient with pneumonia usually indicates:
A) secondary hemorrhage in the lungs.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae is the infecting agent.
C) prolonged stasis of mucous secretions in the airways.
D) persistent coughing has damaged the mucosa in the bronchi.
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15
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the heart rate change as intracranial pressure increases?
A) Rate decreases
B) Rate increases
C) No change in rate
D) Irregular heart rate
Q2) The largest category of primary malignant brain tumors that arise from cells in the central nervous system (CNS) are called:
A) gliomas.
B) sarcomas.
C) lymphomas.
D) myelomas.
Q3) Which of the following are common early manifestations of Parkinson's disease?
A) Tremors at rest in the hands and repetitive motion of the hands
B) Extreme weakness in the legs and spastic movements in the arms
C) Visual deficits and speech impairment
D) Loss of facial expressions and altered posture and gait
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trachoma is indicated by the presence of:
A) purulent exudate and red sclerae.
B) corneal abrasions by the infected eyelids.
C) diplopia and cloudy lens.
D) ptosis and fixed dilation of the pupil.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of conduction deafness?
A) Damage to the organ of Corti
B) Degeneration of cranial nerve VIII
C) Adhesions reducing the movement of the ossicles
D) Trauma affecting the temporal lobe
Q3) In a case of acute otitis media, what would a purulent discharge in the external canal of the ear and some pain relief likely indicate?
A) Infection of the external ear
B) Obstruction of the auditory tube
C) Rupture of the tympanic membrane
D) Spread of infection into the mastoid cells
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polydipsia occurs with diabetes mellitus when:
A) lack of insulin causes hunger.
B) ketone levels rise in the blood.
C) polyuria causes dehydration.
D) glucosuria causes ketoacidosis.
Q2) Goiters may be caused by:
A) hypothyroid conditions only.
B) either hypothyroid or hyperthyroid conditions.
C) hyperthyroid conditions only.
D) fungal infections such as candidiasis.
Q3) What is caused by hyperparathyroidism?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Tetany
C) Bone demineralization
D) Deficit of vitamin D
Q4) Which of the following is an effect of long-term glucocorticoid therapy?
A) Decreased secretion from the adrenal cortex gland
B) An increased inflammatory response to irritants
C) Hypotension and poor circulation
D) Increased number of hypersensitivity reactions
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are related to post-hepatic jaundice?
A) Pruritic skin and light-colored stools
B) Dark-colored stools and urine
C) Increased serum levels of unconjugated bilirubin
D) Loss of all metabolic functions
Q2) Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:
A) peptide hormones.
B) clotting factors and antibodies.
C) cellular energy.
D) hemoglobin.
Q3) What is the primary cause of esophageal varices?
A) Increased hydrostatic pressure in the veins
B) Alcohol irritating the mucosa
C) Failure to inactivate estrogen
D) Poor nutritional status
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19
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal pH of urine is:
A) 7.35-7.45.
B) 4.5- 8.0.
C) 1.5-7.5.
D) 1.0-7.0.
Q2) Which of the following congenital defects is a common cause of cystitis in young children?
A) Polycystic kidney
B) Horseshoe kidney
C) Hypoplasia of the kidney
D) Vesicoureteral reflux
Q3) Which of the following is a significant indicator of renal insufficiency?
A) Urine with pH of 5
B) Increased serum urea and creatinine
C) Urine with high specific gravity
D) Decreased blood pressure
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specific genetic links have been shown for:
1) cervical cancer.
2) testicular cancer.
3) breast cancer.
4) prostatic cancer
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) A chancre is best described as:
A) a vesicle surrounded by a red inflamed area.
B) a pustule filled with purulent exudate.
C) an area of necrosis and fibrosis.
D) a firm painless ulcerated nodule.
Q3) What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?
A) High estrogen levels
B) Familial incidence
C) Infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV)
D) Early age for onset of menstrual cycles
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
A) The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
B) Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
C) The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
D) The effects of multiple metastatic tumors
Q2) One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
A) identify the original cell from which the tumor developed.
B) locate and identify the primary tumor.
C) decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor.
D) determine the best treatment and prognosis.
Q3) Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because:
A) the gastrointestinal tract is irritated.
B) the chemicals stimulate the emetic center.
C) the drugs have an unpleasant odor.
D) A and B
Q4) The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:
A) exposure to promoters causing dysplasia.
B) development of defective genes.
C) an irreversible change in the cell DNA.
D) a single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be detected using amniotic fluid?
A) Chromosomal abnormalities
B) Metabolic disorders
C) Certain structural abnormalities
D) All the above
Q2) Which of the following statements applies to Huntington's disease?
A) The effects are obvious at birth.
B) There is a test for the defective gene.
C) There is a 50% probability that the child of an affected parent will be a carrier.
D) The child must inherit the defective gene from both parents in order to be affected.
Q3) What is the probability of two parents, both carriers of a defective recessive gene, producing a homozygous child (with each pregnancy)?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the usual time period between the first day of the last menstrual period and the time of birth?
A) 38 weeks
B) Termed the gestation period
C) Referred to as gravidity
D) The embryonic period
Q2) Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
A) inadequate prenatal care.
B) poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) All of the above
Q3) During which time period do teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
A) First week following fertilization
B) First 2 months
C) Any time up to 6 months
D) During labor and delivery
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following comprise typical early signs of Still's disease, a form of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
1) Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
2) High fever and skin rash
3) Swollen painful knees, wrists, and elbows
4) Deformity of the hands and feet
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
Q2) An autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints of children is: A) lordosis.
B) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA).
C) osteomyelitis.
D) metabolic syndrome.
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) All are physiological changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:
A) reduced skeletal muscle mass.
B) degeneration of fibrocartilage in intervertebral discs in the spine.
C) increased basal metabolic rate (BMR).
D) reduced bladder capacity and incomplete bladder emptying.
Q2) Recommendations to reduce the risk factors and the progression of osteoporosis with aging include:
A) reducing vitamin D intake.
B) maintaining walking and weight-bearing exercise.
C) increasing bone resorption.
D) maintaining glucocorticoid therapy.
Q3) Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased:
1) tissue elasticity.
2) rib mobility.
3) control by the respiratory center.
4) skeletal muscle strength.
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
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Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do prolonged periods of immobility frequently lead to?
1) Orthostatic hypotension
2) Increased blood pressure and increased heart rate
3) Increased risk of both thrombi and emboli
4) Rapid, deep respirations
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q2) Inactive muscle quickly loses strength as it becomes _____________.
A) less elastic.
B) atrophied.
C) contracted.
D) spastic.
Q3) Immobility may lead to dehydration primarily as a result of:
A) changes in hormonal secretions due to increased blood in the thorax.
B) destruction of the kidneys as a result of ischemia and necrosis.
C) blockage of the ureters, causing retention of urine.
D) toxins being produced by infectious microorganisms.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Selye defined three stages in the stress response. The third stage is designated as the:
A) alarm stage.
B) resistance stage.
C) stage of exhaustion.
D) maladaptive stage.
Q2) Severe, prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop as a result of:
A) a deficit of glucose and oxygen in the body.
B) the development of decompensated acidosis.
C) prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia.
D) the supply of hormones having been exhausted.
Q3) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A) The presence of several stressors at the same time
B) Past experiences
C) Lack of effective coping mechanisms
D) A, B, and C
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28
Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is physiological dependence?
A) An intense emotional need for a drug in order to function
B) Adaptation of the body to a drug, resulting in withdrawal signs after the drug is discontinued
C) The need for an ever-increasing dose to produce the same effect
D) Continuing to take a drug when it is not required medically
Q2) Synergism can cause an emergency situation when:
A) antidotes for respiratory depression are given too quickly.
B) a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken.
C) a large dose of a drug affects the CNS.
D) an individual involuntarily develops a habit.
Q3) Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished:
A) with medical support.
B) with legally prescribed drugs.
C) following intensive counseling.
D) using CNS stimulants.
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is/are signs of hypothermia?
A) Systemic vasodilation
B) Lethargy and confusion
C) Nausea and cramps
D) Rapid but strong pulse
Q2) Choose the correct effects of exposure of the ears to very cold temperatures:
A) Loss of sensation
B) Lethargy and confusion
C) Vascular occlusions
D) A and C
Q3) Which of the following is a potential effect of a bite or sting?
A) Immediate heart failure
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Bone marrow damage
Q4) Two types of eye damage that can be caused by a laser beam are:
A) chemical and structural.
B) thermal burn and photochemical damage.
C) tissue necrosis and vascular occlusions.
D) formation of deep lesions in the optic nerve and in the sclera.
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