Health Sciences
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological, social, and environmental factors influencing human health and disease. This course offers a comprehensive overview of topics including anatomy and physiology, epidemiology, public health principles, healthcare systems, disease prevention, and health promotion strategies. Students will develop a foundational understanding of the scientific methods used in health research, as well as the ethical and cultural considerations in delivering healthcare. Through lectures, discussions, and practical activities, learners gain insights into the roles of healthcare professionals and the importance of evidence-based practice in improving patient outcomes and community well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics Concepts and Applications 9th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Q1) Sequencing all the DNA in the fluid that leaks from the bottom of a garbage can is an example of
A) stem cell science.
B) gene expression profiling.
C) metagenomics.
D) DNA profiling.
E) prenatal diagnosis.
Answer: C
Q2) A melon that has been altered to produce a protein normally made only in a cabbage is
A) transformed.
B) transgenic.
C) genomic.
D) transgendered.
E) recessive.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Cells
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Q1) The organelle that consists of a stack of flat,membrane-enclosed sacs is the A) mitochondrion.
B) nucleolus.
C) ER.
D) Golgi apparatus.
E) nucleus.
Answer: D
Q2) During apoptosis,caspases
A) stimulate synthesis of carcinogens.
B) activate enzymes that cut DNA into same-sized pieces.
C) cause mitochondria to replicate their DNA.
D) alter the cell surface so that viruses can more easily enter.
E) remove introns from DNA.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Meiosis and Development
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Q1) Thalidomide is
A) a drug that causes fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) a drug that causes fetal limb defects, but is used to treat leprosy.
C) a drug that causes mental retardation in fetuses, but is used to treat acne.
D) a type of bacterial infection.
E) a vitamin that harms fetuses in megadoses.
Answer: B
Q2) The head of a sperm contains the A) mitochondria.
B) cell membrane.
C) cytoskeleton.
D) DNA.
E) testosterone.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Q1) The inheritance of eye color indicates that
A) a single gene is the only factor that determines eye color.
B) many different genes determine eye color, each contributing to different degrees.
C) eye color is sensitive to what the mother ate while pregnant.
D) other characteristics, such as the texture at the back of the eye, can affect the phenotype.
E) a person's sex influences inheritance of eye color.
Q2) Which of the following represents a monohybrid cross?
A) Bb x Bb
B) AaBb x AaBb
C) BB x bb
D) AABB x aabb
E) a x b
Q3) Mendel followed the transmission of traits through several generations in A) fruit flies.
B) frogs.
C) peas.
D) bacteria.
E) the mustard weed.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Law
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Q1) Morris is a big,healthy bull.One spring,he fathers ten calves,but five of them are stillborn,their muscles very rigid in a phenotype called "contracture." Three of the dams (mothers of the stillborns)are also Morris' daughters,and the fourth is his half-sister.Farm animals have little chance for romance and so often mate with their close relatives.The large number of stillborns is most likely due to
A) recessive lethal alleles that occur as new mutations in the doomed offspring.
B) dominant lethal alleles that Morris shares with his mates.
C) multiple lethal alleles that Morris shares with his mates.
D) co-dominance between two lethal alleles.
E) allergy to the feed.
Q2) Epistasis and multiple alleles differ in that
A) epistasis is an interaction between two different chromosomes, and multiple alleles affect a single gene.
B) epistasis is an interaction between two genes, and multiple alleles are variants of the same gene.
C) epistasis affects males and multiple alleles occur in females.
D) epistasis only occurs in genes that have multiple alleles.
E) in epistasis one gene masks another, but one allele cannot mask the effect of another.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Q1) In males,genes on the X chromosome are
A) expressed.
B) silenced.
C) disease-causing.
D) mutant.
E) autosomal.
Q2) Microphthalmia is a condition that causes chickens to have very small eyes,but it only appears in hens.The condition is autosomal recessive.Microphthalmia is sex-influenced and not sex-limited because
A) only females express the trait.
B) only males express the trait.
C) it is not transmitted on a sex chromosome.
D) both sexes have eyeballs.
E) chickens do not have hormones.
Q3) X inactivation is controlled by
A) the SRY gene.
B) the XIST gene.
C) the XTASY gene.
D) whether or not a woman takes birth control pills.
E) the location of the spindle in mitosis.
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Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) If a trait has a large inherited component,then concordance among monozygotic twins will be
A) considerably higher than that of dizygotic twins.
B) considerably lower than that of dizygotic twins.
C) about the same as that of dizygotic twins.
D) 100%.
E) 0%.
Q2) Studies that implicate the environment in influencing body weight consider
A) indigenous populations where the people have lived in the same area for thousands of years and tend to all be thin.
B) populations that split, with some people remaining in the homeland and others moving to areas where their diet changes dramatically, and they gain a great deal of weight.
C) mice bred to be obese that are given different types of junk food.
D) SNPs located throughout the genome.
E) celebrities who can afford to have carefully controlled meals delivered to them every day.
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9
Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) Two proteins that control synapse formation in response to environmental stimuli in early childhood and that might lie behind autism when abnormal are
A) serotonin and dopamine.
B) collagen and elastin.
C) insulin and glucagon.
D) neurexin and neuroligin.
E) fibrin and fibrinogen.
Q2) Schizophrenia affects about ____ percent of the population.
A) 0.1
B) 1.0
C) 5.0
D) 10.0
E) 50.0
Q3) A treatment that may help patients who do not respond to antidepressant drugs is
A) anti-inflammatory drugs.
B) barbiturate drugs.
C) electroconvulsive therapy.
D) mood aversion therapy.
E) bariatric therapy.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Q1) The number of DNA replications in an average human lifetime is very approximately A) one billion.
B) three trillion.
C) 100 trillion.
D) 100 quadrillion.
E) infinite.
Q2) When DNA folds and winds into the nucleus of a cell,it shrinks in length by a factor of A) 10.
B) 100.
C) 1,000.
D) 7,000.
E) 3.2 billion.
Q3) The directional nature of the DNA double helix is observed in the A) locations of the hydrogen bonds.
B) locations of the numbered carbons in the sugars.
C) locations of the oxygen atom in the phosphate.
D) double helix when it is separated into single strands.
E) mirror.
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11
Chapter 10: Gene Action: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) An mRNA molecule is also called a(n)
A) intron.
B) transcript.
C) gene.
D) proscript.
E) linguist.
Q2) A ribozyme is
A) an RNA-protein complex that cleaves DNA.
B) an enzyme that catalyzes the assembly of ribosomes.
C) a small RNA that can catalyze a specific chemical reaction.
D) a stretch of uracils in RNA that directs splicing.
E) a short DNA molecule that acts as scissors on longer sequences of DNA.
Q3) RNA differs from DNA in that
A) most of it is single-stranded.
B) it is usually double-stranded.
C) it has thymine instead of uracil.
D) it has deoxyribose instead of ribose.
E) it encodes information but has no other functions.
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Q1) Epigenetic changes
A) pass from one cell generation to the next but do not alter the DNA sequence.
B) do not pass from one cell generation to the next but do alter the DNA sequence.
C) irreversibly alter the DNA sequence and are only passed to the next cell generation if they add an advantage.
D) only occur in males.
E) alter the RNA codon - amino acid assignments of the genetic code.
Q2) About __ percent of human genes are alternately spliced.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 75
E) 90
Q3) Multiple proteins can be produced from a single gene by
A) intron shuffling.
B) alternate splicing.
C) chain switching.
D) production of pseudogenes.
E) chromatin remodeling.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Q1) The Hutterites are a peace-loving people descended from people who lived in the Austrian province of Tyrol in the 16th century,and immigrated to Montana and the Dakotas,then to Canada.Bowen-Conradi syndrome is a rare autosomal condition seen only among Hutterites,who marry within their own communities.The condition causes extreme growth retardation shortly before and after birth,resulting in early childhood death.The mutation that causes Bowen-Conradi syndrome changes an aspartic acid to a glycine by replacing an A with a G.This is a _______ mutation affecting the _____ codon position.(Consult the genetic code in figure 10.12 for your answer).
A)missense; first
B)missense; third
C)missense; second D)nonsense; second
E)nonsense; third
Q2) Homozygotes for hemoglobin C have
A) sickle cell disease.
B) a normal phenotype.
C) a bluish complexion.
D) a black mouth.
E) black ear tips.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Q1) Spindle fibers (microtubules)attach to a chromosome's _______ during mitosis.
A) centromere
B) telomere
C) genomere
D) euchromatin
E) tips
Q2) Only nine types of aneuploids are known in newborns because
A) only nine chromosomes undergo nondisjunction.
B) most types of aneuploids are lethal early in development.
C) most aneuploids do not cause detectable defects.
D) missing chromosomes cause most lethal aneuploids.
E) most aneuploids do not affect the phenotype.
Q3) The meiotic error that results in aneuploid cells is
A) crossing over.
B) nondisjunction.
C) recombination.
D) unequal segregation.
E) mosaicism.
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Q1) Mitochondrial DNA is helpful in obtaining a DNA profile for very degraded genetic material because
A) cells have many mitochondria, and therefore several copies of mtDNA sequences.
B) the mitochondrial outer membrane protects it from being damaged.
C) mitochondria contain oxidative enzymes that protect the DNA.
D) mtDNA consists of a single helix, so it cannot be unwound.
E) it uses uracil instead of thymine, which is a more stable nitrogenous base.
Q2) In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,frequency of a dominant allele is
A) p.
B) p<sup>2</sup>.
C) 2pq.
D) q.
E) 100%.
Q3) Which of the following have the longest DNA sequences?
A) VNTRs
B) STRs
C) SNPs
D) thymine dimers
E) base pairs
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Q1) Deleterious alleles are eliminated from populations by A) natural selection.
B) mutation.
C) migration.
D) nonrandom mating.
E) genetic drift.
Q2) Balanced polymorphism explains why carriers of cystic fibrosis are relatively resistant to
A) malaria.
B) tuberculosis.
C) diarrheal illness.
D) pneumonia.
E) prion diseases.
Q3) _______ in the mycobacterium tuberculosis population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century.
A) Natural selection
B) Mutation
C) Migration
D) Nonrandom mating
E) Genetic drift
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Chapter 16: Human Ancestry
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Q1) Comparison of common chromosomal banding patterns between humans and 5 other species are given below.Based on these data,humans are least related to
A) gorillas: 99% common chromosome bands.
B) orangutans: 99% common chromosome bands.
C) African green monkeys: 95% common chromosome bands.
D) domestic cats: 35% common chromosome bands.
E) mice: 7% common chromosome bands.
Q2) The major genetic distinction between humans and chimps is
A) the DNA sequence.
B) the number of indels.
C) gene expression patterns.
D) the number of introns.
E) dietary effects on the genome.
Q3) Haplogroups consist of
A) sets of species that share a recent ancestor.
B) the set of Y chromosomes in a population.
C) groups of SNPs that are linked on a chromosome.
D) preserved gametes, which are haploid.
E) all of the homeotic genes in a genome.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Q1) The genes of the HLA system encode cell surface
A) phospholipids.
B) lipoproteins.
C) glycolipids.
D) glycoproteins.
E) histamines.
Q2) HIV destroys the immune system by primarily destroying
A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) B cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) erythrocytes.
Q3) One way an autoimmune disorder can arise is if
A) the person encounters an immunodeficiency virus.
B) the person inhales an allergen.
C) a nonself antigen coincidentally resembles a self antigen.
D) too many T cells die in the thymus.
E) a person has too many organ transplants.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) Dana Reeve,the wife of actor Christopher Reeve,died at a young age from lung cancer,although she had never smoked.Her cancer was likely caused by
A) a germline mutation.
B) two somatic mutations in the same lung cell.
C) exposure to carcinogens.
D) second hand smoke.
E) stress from caring for her husband, who had a spinal cord injury.
Q2) A breast cancer test for HER2 considers
A) genotype.
B) phenotype.
C) gene expression.
D) mutation rate.
E) receptor diversity.
Q3) BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations
A) are X-linked.
B) are incompletely penetrant.
C) are translocations.
D) cause several types of leukemia.
E) are in oncogenes.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Genetic Technologies: Amplifying, Modifying, and Monitoring DNA
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Q1) The field of biotechnology began
A) in 2001, when the human genome was sequenced.
B) in 1961, when the genetic code was deciphered.
C) in 1953, when the structure of DNA was discovered.
D) in the early 1900s, when Mendel's laws were rediscovered.
E) with the advent of agriculture, about 10,000 years ago.
Q2) Which technique amplifies viral RNA in a patient's blood specimen?
A) antisense engineering
B) a knockout gene
C) a knockin gene
D) transcription-mediated amplification
E) traditional PCR
Q3) A naturally-occurring,small,circle of DNA used as a vector to transmit DNA is a
A) plasmid.
B) prion.
C) liposome.
D) lipofectin.
E) ring chromosome.
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Q1) Gene therapy to treat muscular dystrophy targets the gene that encodes A) actin.
B) dystrophin.
C) collagen.
D) myoglobin.
E) myosin.
Q2) A patient received bone marrow modified by an adeno-associated virus (AAV)carrying the human gene that encodes an enzyme her body could not make.This is an example of
A) protein therapy.
B) germline gene therapy.
C) somatic gene therapy.
D) retroviral gene therapy.
E) IVF.
Q3) A serious limitation of using a retrovirus as a vector for gene therapy is that A) the retrovirus may insert into a proto-oncogene, causing cancer.
B) a genetically modified retrovirus causes AIDS.
C) it cannot infect rapidly dividing cells.
D) it causes ADA accumulation.
E) reverse transcriptase will not work in human cells.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) A normal sperm count is ____ sperm per ejaculate.
A) 10,000 - 50,000
B) 100,000 - 500,000
C) 1-2 million
D) 20 to 200 million
E) 1 to 3 billion
Q2) Infertility affects around one in ____ males.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 100
E) 4
Q3) A procedure that places an oocyte and sperm in a culture dish,allows a few cell divisions,and then places the resulting very early embryo in the oocyte donor's uterus is A) IVF.
B) intrauterine insemination.
C) surrogate insemination.
D) GIFT.
E) ex vivo gene therapy.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Genomics
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Q1) Which genetic map is derived from overlapping short pieces of DNA and is used to distinguish genes tens of kilobases apart?
A) Cytogenetic map
B) Linkage map
C) Physical map
D) Sequence map
E) Genotype map
Q2) Genes that are highly conserved are
A) found in a wide range of species.
B) repeated many times in a genome.
C) found in humans only.
D) found in a narrow range of closely related species.
E) deleted by natural selection.
Q3) The part of the genome that encodes protein is called the A) encode.
B) intron.
C) exon.
D) exome.
E) prodrome.
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Page 24